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FAMILY MEDICINE > FAM Med. UniUyo > Flashcards

FAM Med. UniUyo Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of Family (hint: 4 lines)

A

A group of individuals who are related biologically, legally or by choice and from whom one reasonably expects a measure of support in form of food, clothing, shelter or emotional nurturing and who shares a past, present and future and includes all who contribute in one way or the other to the family culture

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2
Q

A family group consisting of two people living together, ususally a woman & a man, without children is called?

A

Dyad family

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3
Q

Family medicine is a primary care oriented specialty, T/F?

A

TRUE

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4
Q

Define Family Medicine

A

A group of individuals who are related biologically, legally or by choice and from whom one reasonably expects a measure of support in terms of food, clothing, shelter or emotional nurturing and who shares a past, present and future and includes all who contribute in one way or the other to the family culture.

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5
Q

Domains of Family medicine are (hint:3)

A

Hospital-based care, Family care & Primary care

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6
Q

Khan’s 7-stars doctor (hint: picture the start)

A

Community leader, Communicator, Care provider, Decision maker/Advocate, Manager, Researcher, Coordinator

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7
Q

In Tropical Africa, _____ are responsible for most snake bites?

A

Vipers

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8
Q

Which family of snake has venom with powerful neurotoxic effect leading to muscular paralysis?

A

Elapidae. e.g., Cobra, Mamba, Coral snakes

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9
Q

The Hydrophidae has what type of venom?

A

Myotoxic venom which causes necrosis of muscles

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10
Q

Most victims of snake bites are between the ages of _____ & _____

A

5 and 30yrs

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11
Q

Most bites of snakes occur on the feet, T/F?

A

TRUE

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12
Q

The effect of snake venom on a victim depends on _____ & ______

A

Type/family of snake AND amount of venom

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13
Q

Local swelling is most common in which families of snakes (hint:2)

A

Viperidae and Crotalidae

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14
Q

An early systemic symptom of venom of Viper is _________

A

Blood-stained spit

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15
Q

An early systemic sign of Elapidea venom is _____

A

Ptosis.
followed by Glosso-phayngeal palsy

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16
Q

List the toxins in Cobra venom

A

Neurotoxin , Cardiotoxin

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17
Q

List the toxins in Cobra venom

A

Neurotoxin , Cardiotoxin

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18
Q

An Hydrophidae bitten victim can present what systemic features?

A

Muscle pain & stiffness, external ophthalmoplegia, Trismus, Myoglobinuria, Proteinuria, renal failure

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19
Q

Mention the 5 poisonous families of snake

A

Viperidae, Crotalidae, Elapidae, Colubridae, Hydrophidae

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20
Q

Presence of species-specific venom of a snake can be confirmed by ________

A

Immunodiffusion

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21
Q

When do you give anti-venom serum?

A

When the victim starts showing signs of systemic venom poisoning

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22
Q

How do you administer Polyvalent Viper-Cobra-Mamba anti-venom serum

A

Give 50-100ml anti-venom serum in 200-300ml of isotonic saline via infusion for 1hour.

N/B: Test dose of 0.2ml s.c or IM shoild be given first.

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23
Q

Administering Tetanus toxoid is part of the mgt of a snack bitten patient, T/F?

A

TRUE

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24
Q

Aim of IMCI

A

To reduce death, illness and disability thereby promoting improved growth and development among children U5 yrs of age

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25
Q

The strategy of IMCI has 3 main components which are?

A
  1. Improving case mgt skill of health care staff
  2. Improving overall health system
  3. Improving family and community health practices
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26
Q

Define Under-5 mortality rate

A

U5MR IS DEFINED AS THE ANNUAL NUMBER OF DEATHS OF CHILDREN UNDER 5 YEARS OF AGE PER 1000 LIVE BIRTHS

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26
Q

U5 mortality is a reflection of a country’s health system and economy, T/F?

A

TRUE

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27
Q

IMCI incorporates Child Survival Strategy which includes (hint: 11)

A

G- GROWTH MONITORING
O- ORAL REHYDRATION THERAPY
B- BREAST FEEDING
I- IMMUNIZATION
F- FAMILY PLANNING
F- FOOD FORTIFICATION
F- FEMALE EDUCATION
E- ESSENTIAL DRUG LIST
T- TREATMENT OF COMMON ILLNESSES/INJURIES
H- HEALTH EDUCATION
E-ENVIRONMENTAL SANITATION

N/B You can put it “THE GOBIFFFE”

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28
Q

Danger signs on P/E with respect to IMCI

A

Anemia, Pyrexia, Dehydration, Dyspnea, Wasting, Jaundice

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29
Q

List the steps in IMCI implementation (hint: 6)

A
  1. History taking from parent/care giver
  2. Assess child(examination) for danger signs
  3. Classify the illness
  4. Take decision
  5. Counsel the mother/care giver
  6. Follow up
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30
Q

The commonest symptom that presents to primary care is ______

A

Dyspepsia

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31
Q

Dyspepsia is more common in men, smokers & those taking NSAIDs, T/F?

A

FALSE.
Common in women not men

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32
Q

Patients with dyspepsia have poor life expectancy, T/F?

A

FALSE

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33
Q

Dyspepsia is associated with poor health-related quality of life, T/F?

A

TRUE

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34
Q

The most important contributory factors to dyspepsia are _____&______

A

The presence of H. pylori and use of medications such as NSAIDs

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35
Q

Systemic conditions that can cause dyspepsia (hint: 9)

A

Adrenal insufficiency, congestive heart failure, diabetes mellitus, hyperparathyroidism, intra-abdominal nongastrointestinal malignancy, myocardial infarction, pregnancy, renal insufficiency, thyroid disease

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36
Q

Draw out NICE model Algorithm for the mgt of dyspepsia

A

Refer to Note

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37
Q

The key investigations in the diagnosis of dyspepsia are ______&______

A

Endoscopy and test for H. Pylori are the key investigations in the diagnosis of dyspepsia

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38
Q

Functional dyspepsia is a diagnosis of exclusion, T/F?

A

TRUE

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39
Q

What is the mgt of Functional dyspepsia

A

the mental health status of the patients should be evaluated and identifiable co-morbid conditions like depression, anxiety disorder, etc which can further worsen the quality of life, should be identified and treated.

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40
Q

PUD majorly affects what part of the GIT? (hint; 3)

A

It affects lower esophagus, stomach or duodenum

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41
Q

List the injurious/damaging factors that play a role in development of PUD (hint: 7)

List the protective factors (hint: 8)

A

The injurious factors include:
-gastric acid, pepsin, bile acids, NSAIDS, genetics, H. Pylori, ethanol.

The protective factors include:
-mucus, bicarbonate, prostaglandin, mucosal blood flow, alkaline tide, epithelial renewal, hydrophobic layer, epidermal growth factor (EGF)

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42
Q

Ratio of Gastric ulcer to Duodenal ulcer

A

1:4

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43
Q

Family hx is a risk factor of PUD, T/F?

A

TRUE

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44
Q

What blood group is a common risk factor for PUD?

A

Blood grouo O

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45
Q

Mention the risk factors for PUD (hint: 7 major, 3 minor)

A
  1. male sex
  2. family history
  3. smoking (cause and delay healing)
  4. stress
  5. common in blood group O
  6. nsaids (2-4 times increase in in GU and ulcer complications)
  7. H. Pylori: (if absent and no NSAIDS, ulcer unlikely)
    Unproven risk factors:
  8. corticosteroids
  9. alcohol
  10. diet
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46
Q

PUD may be silent in the elderly on NSIADs, T/F?

A

TRUE

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47
Q

P/E of a patient with PUD usually yields positive findings, T/F?

A

FALSE

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48
Q

Investigations for PUD (hint:4)

A
  1. Endoscopy (investigation of choice)
  2. Barium studies
  3. Serum gastrin
  4. H. Pylori test
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49
Q

Complications of PUD (hint: 7)

A
  1. Penetration
  2. Perforation
  3. Bleeding →haematemesis & melaena
  4. Pyloric stenosis →obstruction
  5. Anaemia
  6. Oesophageal stenosis
  7. Carcinoma (GU)
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50
Q

Aims of mgt of PUD (hint:4)

A
  1. Relieve symptoms
  2. Accelerate ulcer healing
  3. Prevent complication
  4. Minimise risk of relapse
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51
Q

The most important nutrients in nutritional anemia are ____, _____ & _____

A

Iron, Folate, Vitamin B12

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52
Q

Anemia is considered to be early manifestation of nutritional deficiency, T/F?

A

FALSE

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53
Q

The commonest causes of nutritional anemias are ______ & _____

A

The commonest causes are nutritional deficiencies and chronic infections with parasites and malaria

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54
Q

The major adaptations to anemia are in ______ system

A

Cardiovascular

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55
Q

The symptom of anemia depends on _____ & ____

A

the acuteness of onset and he severity of the anaemia

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56
Q

Lists the non-specific symptoms related to tissue hypoxia (hint: 4)

A

(1) Tiredness
(2) Lassitude
(3) Exertional dyspnoea
(4) Headache

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57
Q

Severe anemia can result in anemia & exudate in optics, T/F?

A

TRUE

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58
Q

Clinical features of anemia due to Iron deficiency (hint: 6)

A
  1. Smooth shining tongue (Actual soreness of the tongue is uncommon in IDA but common in pernicious anaemia)
  2. Angular stomatitis (R/O poor fitting dentures)
  3. Spoon nail (Koilonychia)
  4. Occasionally (Plummer Vinson syndrome of glossitis/dysphasia produced by post cricoids web).
  5. Pruiritus
  6. Abnormal food fads (pica)
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59
Q

The usual oral dose for the treatment of IDA contains _____mg of elemental iron?

A

The usual dose is 100-200mg of elemental iron daily e.g. ferrous sulphate 325mg. three times daily

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60
Q

Differential diagnosis of IDA (mention at least 3)

A

Lead poisoning, Thalassemia, Anemia of chronic inflammation

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61
Q

In children, IDA oral dose treatment is _____

A

Dose of ferrous iron-preparation should be 6mg/kg per day of elemental iron divided into 3 doses

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62
Q

Duration for iron stores to be replenished via oral iron intake

A

At least for 6 months

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63
Q

Indications for blood transfusion in IDA

A

Should only be used for severe iron deficiency (<4.0g/l) when associated with heart failure or prior to urgent surgery

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64
Q

Vitamin B12 is found exclusively in _____ tissue

A

Animal

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65
Q

The most striking feature of Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is ______

A

peripheral neuropathy affecting the lower limbs most frequently.

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66
Q

Treatment of Vit B12 deficiency anemia

A

1000ug/day for the first week then 1000kg weekly until haematologic values normalize or for at least 6 months if neurologic complications exists, then 1000ug monthly for life

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67
Q

A confirmed vitamin B12 defiecncy patient should be placed on vit B12 for life, T/F?

A

TRUE

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68
Q

There is presence of neurological deficit in folate deficiency, T/F?

A

FALSE

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69
Q

Treatment of folate deficiency

A

Administration of FA-1mg/day

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70
Q

What is the treatment of the nutritional cause sideroblastic anemia

A

Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

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71
Q

Vitamin E is a powerful antioxidant, T/F?

A

TRUE

72
Q

Chronic Vitamin A can cause macrocytic anemia, T/F?

A

FALSE

Chronic vitamin A toxicity cause a microcytic anaemia and leucopenia

73
Q

Infection of the prostate(prostatitis) is a part of UTI, T/F?

A

TRUE

74
Q

UTI occurs most frequently b/w the ages of ___ & ___ in women

A

16 & 35

75
Q

Rates of asymptomatic bacteriuria increases with age in women, T/F?

A

TRUE

75
Q

Which type of UTI is the most common cause of nosocomial infection

A

Pyelonephritis

76
Q

Risk factors for UTI (hint: 25)

A

RISK FACTORS FOR UTI’S:
FEMALE GENDER- ANATOMY-PROXIMITY OF FEMALE URETHRA TO THE VAGINA& ANUS
AGE-↑ WITH ↑AGE
SEXUAL INTERCOURSE-↑ WITH FREQUENCY OF SEX
EXPOSURE TO SPERMICIDE IN FEMALE (IN DIAPHRAGM) & CONDOM
PREGNANCY-↓ IMMUNITY, ↓ESTROGEN
MENOPAUSE
IMMUNOSUPRESSION-↓ HOST DEFENCE
DM-↓IMMUNITY
PREVIOUS INFECTION (PROBABLY POORLY TREATED)
POOR PERINEAL HYGIENE
DEHYDRATION
DELAYED MICTURITION
OBSTRUCTION TO URINARY FLOW
-CONGENITAL ANOMALIES
-CALCULI
-URETERAL OCCLUSION
RESIDUAL URINE IN BLADDER
-NEUROGENIC BLADDER
-URETHRAL STRICTURE
-PROSTATIC HYPERTROPHY
VESICOURETERAL REFLUX
INSTRMENTATION OF URINARY TRACT
-INDWELLING URINARY CATHETER
-CATHETERIZATION
-URETHRAL DILATION
-CYSTOSCOPY

77
Q

Chronic bacterial prostatitis may cause recurrent UTI in maales, T/F?

A

TRUE

78
Q

Viruses are common causes of UTI in an immuno competent host, T/F?

A

FALSE.
VIRUSES ARE UNCOMMON CAUSE OF UTI’S IN AN IMMUNOCOMPETENT HOST
THEY ARE INCREASINGLY RECOGNIZED AS THE CAUSE OF LOWER UTI, ESPECIALLY HAEMORRHAGIC CYSTITIS AMONG IMMUNOCOMPROMISED PATIENT

79
Q

Method of choice for diagnosing Viral UTI

A

DIAGNOSIS OF VIRAL LUTI’S IS BASED ON MOLECULAR TECHNIQUES AND REAL-TIME POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION IS OFTEN THE METHOD OF CHOICE BECAUSE IT ALLOWS FOR QUANTIFICATION OF VIRAL LOAD

80
Q

Drug of choice for viral UTI

A

CIDOFOVIR IS BECOMING A DRUG OF CHOICE IN VIRAL UTI’S

81
Q

Mention mechanisms that maintain the Urinary tract’s sterility (hint: 4)

A
  1. ACIDITY OF URINE
  2. EMPTYING OF THE BLADDER @ MICTURITION
  3. URETEROVESICAL & URETHRAL SPINCTERS
  4. VARIOUS IMMUNOLOGIC & MUCOSAL BARRIER
82
Q

Routes of infection in UTI are (hint: 3)

A
  1. Direct entry through the urether
  2. Hematologic route
  3. Lymphatic route
83
Q

Clinical manifestations of Upper UTI (hint: 11)

A

-HIGH GRADE FEVER
-RIGORS/CHILLS
-VOMITTING
-SWEATING
-HEADACHE
-DIARRHOEA
-LOIN PAIN
-±ABDOMINAL PAIN
-OLIGURIA (IF AKI)
-LOIN TENDERNESS (COSTOVERTEBRAL ANGLE TENDERNESS)
-TACHYCARDIA

84
Q

Clinical manifestation of Lower UTI (hint: 8)

A

-DYSURIA
-FREQUENCY
-URGENCY
-FEELING OF INCOMPLETE BLADDER EMPTYING
-SUPRAPUPIC PAIN AND TENDERNESS
-±STRANGURY
-HAEMATURIA
-OFFENSIVE URINE

85
Q

UTI can be diagnosed using a urine dipstick, T/F?

A

TRUE
Typical symptoms + Presence of Leukocyte esterase & Nitrite

86
Q

In asymptomatic patient, >10^5 CFU/microgram is significant (Asymptomatic bacteriuria), T/F?

A

FALSE.
>10.5 CFU ORGANISM/ML

87
Q

Investigation for UTI are (hint: 3)

A

ALL PATIENTS:
1. DIPSTIC ESTIMATION OF NITRITE, LEUCOCYTE ESTERASE, GLUCOSE
2. MICROSCOPY/CYTOMETRY OF URINE FOR WHITE BLOOD CELLS, ORGANISMS
3. URINE CULTURE

88
Q

In complicated UTI & also UTI in infants & children what other investigations should you carry out? (hint: 3)

A

-FBC, U/E/C, BLOOD CULTURES

89
Q

Duration of treatment for uncomplicated LUT infection

A

FOR INFECTION OF THE LUT, TREATMENT FOR 3 DAYS IS THE NORM

90
Q

Drug of choice for initial treatment of LUT infection is

A

TRIMETHOPRIM

91
Q

Antibiotic class that can be used in treatment of UTI in pregnancy (hint: 2)

A

PENINCILLINS AND CEPHALOSPORIN ARE EFFECTIVE/SAFE IN PREGNANCY

92
Q

Acute pyelonephritis is characterized by a triad of _____, _____ & ______

A

-LOIN PAIN
-FEVER
-TENDERNESS OVER THE KIDNEYS (COSTOVERTEBRAL ANGLE TENDERNESS)

93
Q

The necrotizing form of pyelonephritis with gas formation is known as __________ and occasionally seen in _____ patients

A

EMPHYSEMATOUS PYELONEPHRITIS IS OCASSIONALLY SEEN IN DM PATIENT

94
Q

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is characterized by ________

A

XTERIZED BY ACCUMULATION OF FOAMY MACROPHAGES & GENERALLY REQUIRES NEPHRECTOMY

95
Q

Treatment of recurrent or chronic UTI

A

AMOXICILLIN/ CLAVUNATE- 500/125MG (ORALLY)- 12HRLY, OR
TRIMETHOPRIN- 300MG (ORALLY) DLY, OR
CEPHALEXIN- 500MG (ORALLY) 12HRLY, all for 10-14 days

96
Q

What is Evidence-based medicine?

A

EBM is defined as “the conscientious, explicit and judicious use of current best available evidence in making decisions about the care of the individual patient.” by David Sackett

97
Q

EBM is the integration of _______, _________& _________

A

EBM is the integration of best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values

98
Q

Types of evidence?

A

Disease oriented evidence (DOE) AND Patient oriented evidence that matters (POEM)

99
Q

The most reliable and accepted evidence in the hierarchy of evidence is

A

Level I - Randomized controlled trial/meta-analysis/systemic review

100
Q

Case series is in Level II of hierarchy of evidence, T/F?

A

FALSE.
Level III

101
Q

Clinical practice guidelines are fixed protocol that must always be followed, T/F?

A

FALSE
They are not fixed protocol that must always be followed but intended for health providers to consider

102
Q

Examples of solid state storage

A

A. Flash drive
B. Media card ( Memory stick, SD card, Compact flash)

103
Q

Types of Optical storage device

A
  1. Compact disc (CD)
  2. Digital versatile disc (DVD)
104
Q

Motherboard(MOBO) is a _______ component of a computer

A

Computation

105
Q

Computer applications in medicine (hint: 12)

A
106
Q

ALARMS symptoms in dyspepsia means

A

A-NAEMIA
L-OSS OF WEGHT (UNINTENTIONAL)
A-NOREXIA
R-ECENT ONSET OF PROGRESSIVE SYMPTOMS
M-ALAENA/HAEMATEMESIS
S-WALLOWING DIFFICULTY (DYSPHAGIA)

107
Q

Define Ageing

A

Ageing can be defined as the time-related deterioration of the physiological functions necessary for survival and fertility.

108
Q

Reasons for rising ageing population (hint: 3)

A
  1. Breakthroughs in healthcare = increased life expectancy.
  2. People choosing to have smaller families.
  3. Falling birth rates:
    Later marriages
    Better education about contraceptives.
    increased number of women working.
109
Q

Classify ageing

A
  1. Objective
  2. Subjective
  3. Functional
110
Q

According to WHO, adult aged >65 is elderly, T/F?

A

FALSE
WHO: adults aged ≥ 65 years

111
Q

List the concepts of ageing (hint: 5)

A
  1. CHRONOLOGIC AGEING (change in the no. of years lived)
  2. BIOLOGIC AGEING (changes in physiology)
  3. PSYCHOLOGIC AGEING (changes in behavior, personality & act)
  4. SOCIAL AGEING (changes in roles & relatonships)
  5. COGNITIVE AGEING (changes in the basic process of learning & memory)

Mnemonic: Biopsychosocial C^2

112
Q

Biologic/biological ageing is also called ______ or _____

A

Senescence or Physiologic ageing

113
Q

Social ageing is profoundly influence by the society’s culture, T/F?

A

TRUE

114
Q

The two major categories of ageing theories are

A

The Programmed theories
The Damage of Error theories

115
Q

A major hallmark of ageing is a decrease in inflammatory levels reflected by lower levels of circulating pro-inflammatory cytokines, T/F?

A

FALSE.

Increased levels

116
Q

Hearing loss that occurs in ageing is usually to low frequency sound, T/F?

A

FALSE
High frequency sounds

117
Q

Problem solving skills increase with age, T/F?

A

TRUE

118
Q

Intellectual functioning defined as “stored” memory decrease with age, T/F?

A

FALSE.
Increases with age

119
Q

Emotions play a significant role in appetite & digestion, T/F?

A

TRUE

120
Q

Orthostatic hypotension is relatively common in the elderly, T/F?

A

TRUE

121
Q

The symptoms of climacteric period are typically present for about ____ years

A

5 years

122
Q

Autoimmue disorders increased in older adults, T/F?

A

TRUE
increase in findings of positive
rheumatoid factor, anti-nuclear antibody, and false-
positive syphilis screens in healthy older adults

123
Q

Lipofusin is ageing pigment, TF?

A

TRUE

124
Q

Adolescents are those b/w the ages of ___&___

A

10-19

125
Q

Teenagers are those b/w the ages of __ to __

A

13-19years

126
Q

Young people are those b/w the ages of __ & ___

A

10-24years

127
Q

Youths are those b/w the ages of

A

15-24years

128
Q

Young adults are those b/w the ages of

A

25-44years

129
Q

Middle age are those b/w the ages of

A

45-64years

130
Q

Adolescents are homogenous population, T/F

A

FALSE

131
Q

The well known barriers limiting adolescents from accessing health services are? (hint: 2)

A
  1. Shyness
  2. Healthcare provider’s unsupportive and judgmental attitude
132
Q

Health wise, adolescents are neglected & abandon population, T/F

A

TRUE

133
Q

The importance of youth health is viewed in 3 subheadings

A
  1. Persistent health problem from childhood
  2. Manifest youth health problems
  3. Risk for later disease
134
Q

Female adolescents are forced into conflicts and combatants more than male adolescents, T/F

A

FALSE

135
Q

Female adolescents experience higher rates of domestic and sexual violence than boys, T/F

A

TRUE

136
Q

According to Erik Erikson model, at the stage of adolescence there must be establishment of ______, _______ and _____ about life

A

identity, goals and purpose

137
Q

The adolescent is faced with the resolution of number developmental tasks which include (hint: 5)

A

a). Adaptation to the physiological and anatomical changes associated with puberty and integration of a mature sexuality into a personal model of behavior
b). The progressive resolution of earlier forms of attachment to the parents and family and development through peer relationships of an enhanced capacity for interpersonal intimacy.
c). The establishment of individual identity incorporating a sexual identity and adaptive social roles.
d). Utilization of enriched intellectual competence with the requisition of a sense of community and world views
e) .Development of potentials for occupational and leisure activity with gradual commitment to those that are relevant to both the individual and the community.

138
Q

Mention circumstances that can limit adolescent care strategy on guaranteed confidentiality

A
  1. information suggesting someone is in imminent danger,
  2. the suspicion or evidence of abuse, and
  3. the diagnosis of certain communicable diseases

N/B: all must be reported to the proper authority

139
Q

The 5F’s in Adolescent care are

A

Facts
Fear
Fables
Family
Future

140
Q

The 2 Strategies of breaking bad news are

A

SPIKES (Setting, perspective/perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Empathy/Emotion, Summary/Support)

BREAKS (Background, Rapport, Explore, Announce, Kindle, Summarize)

141
Q

Define Grief

A

Grief is an intense, emotional, physical, social, spiritual and mental response to loss

142
Q

Define Bereavement

A

Bereavement is the Entire experience of family members and friends in the Anticipation, Death and Subsequent adjustment to living following the loss of a loved one

143
Q

Aggressiveness is an emotional reaction of Grief, T/F

A

FALSE
Social response

144
Q

Overprotectiveness is an emotional reaction of Grief, T/F

A

FALSE
Mental response

145
Q

Continuously thinking about the Loss
is _________ response to grief

A

Mental

146
Q

Searching for actual meaning of loss
is _______ response to grief

A

Spiritual

147
Q

Awareness of fragility of Life is _______ response to grief

A

Spiritual

148
Q

Separation Anxiety/Fearfulness is _______ response to grief

A

Social

149
Q

Concerning the Kübler-Ross Change Curve, state the stages of grief

A

Shock
Denial
Anger & Bargaining
Depression
Testing
Decision
Integration/Acceptance

150
Q

Bereavement leave should be for 3 months, T/F

A

FALSE
no laid down rule to determine the duration of such leave

151
Q

In the basic family stages,
- Sandwich generation is stage _____
- Empty Nesters is also referred to as _____
- The Golden years is ______stage of family
- Stage 3 is ______ family

A

-stage 4 (Families with adolescents “Sandwich Generation”)
-Stage Five: Launching children and moving on “Empty Nesters”
-Stage Six: Families in later life “Retirement, the Golden Years”
-Stage Three: Families with young children

152
Q

Roles can only be given, T/F

A

FALSE
Roles can be inherited Or given

153
Q

Family dynamics is always static, T/F

A

FALSE
The dynamics is never static, there are swings

154
Q

Factors affecting family life

A

A. Mis-communication
B. Self image
C. Family crises
D. Social issues
E. Culture
F. Responsibilities and rewards
G. Types of families
H. Role expectations
I. Personal values

155
Q

Mention lifestyle diseases (hint: 6)

A

Obesity
Neoplasm
Hypertension
Dyslipidaemias
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Osteoarthritis

156
Q

Primary prevention & treatment of many lifestyle diseases is via _________

A

Exercise

157
Q

The recommended minutes of exercise per week
-for moderate-intensity=
-for vigorous-intensity=

A

at least 150min
at least 75min

158
Q

What’s the recommended number of servings of fruit & vegetable per day

A

5

159
Q

Moderate alcohol intake is defined as consumption of _____units per day in men and _____units per day in women

A

3-4 units in men
2-3units in women

160
Q

A unit of alcohol is equivalent to ___grams

A

8g

161
Q

Obesity is diagnosed when BMI is _____

A

30kg/m^2

162
Q

The chief determinants of energy imbalance are lifestyle factors, T/F

A

TRUE

163
Q

Individual total energy requirement depends on ______, ______ & _______

A
  1. the basal metabolic rate (BMR),
  2. thermic effects of food, and
  3. energy needed for the days physical activity(ies) needed
164
Q

The incidence of overweight increases steadily after the age of ____ until the _____decade of life

A

20 until the 6th decade of life

165
Q

Obesity can be seen in all ages, T/F

A

TRUE

166
Q

Obesity results from the interaction of ______, _____ & _______

A

Genetic makeup, Environment, & Lifestyle

167
Q

Men are more likely to be obese, T/F

A

FALSE

168
Q

Men are more likely to be overweight, T/F

A

TRUE

169
Q

BMI does not reflect distribution of body fat, T/F

A

TRUE

170
Q

Calculation of BMI is not an effective estimation of risk in what subgroups (hint: 4)

A
  1. children and adolescents
  2. Individuals who are < 4 ft tall, or > 7 feet tall
  3. Competitive athletes and body builders
  4. Pregnant women
171
Q

WHO categorization of obesity (underweight, healthy weight, Obesity I, Obesity II, Obesity III)

A
172
Q

Risk factors for obesity (hint: 3)

A
  1. Family history of obesity
  2. Diet-high caloric, low fruits and vegetables, snack foods and fast –food consumption
  3. Low levels of physical activity
173
Q

Structural social support has a direct effect on health, T/F

A

TRUE

174
Q

Functional or perceived social support directly affects health by buffering stress

A

FALSE

It indirectly

175
Q

Mention the forms of social support

A

Emotional
Esteem
Tangible or Instrumental
Information
Network

176
Q

Social support influences health through two pathways namely

A
  1. Buffering of Stress
  2. The main effect hypothesis
177
Q

People with more social support have a lower susceptibility to the common cold, T/F

A

TRUE

FAMILY MEDICINE (7 decks)

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