Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

ILS Components & installation details

A

Components: Localizer, Glide slope, Marker beacons, Approach lights

Localizer: installed 1000 feet past the far end of the runway. Configured so that full scale course width is 700 feet at the runway threshold.

Glide slope: 1000 feet from the approach end. Normally set for a 3 degree slope. Full scale is 1.4 degrees. Usable for 10nm

Marker beacons: Outer (4-7 miles, blue light, where glide slope intercepts appropriate approach altitude), Middle (3500 feet and 200agl, amber light), and Inner (optional, and even closer. White light)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Required conditions: contact approach

A

Visibility >1sm and clear of clouds, expected to persist all the way in. Pilot must request.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Required conditions: visual approach

A

Ceiling 1000, visibility >3sm, airport or traffic to follow in sight. Aircraft must remain in VMC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Approach Procedure Types

A

Precision: lateral guidance plus vertical guidance in the form of a glide slope indicator. (ILS is most common)
Non-precision: only lateral guidance. Pilot descends at own discretion, at or above published minimum altitudes. (Eg VOR, Localizer, NDB, RNAV to LNAV minimums)
Approach with vertical guidance: similar to precision, but not at a high enough fidelity to be classified as “precision.” (Eg RNAV to LNAV+VNAV or LPV minimums)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TCH

A

Threshold Crossing Height. Height at which you’ll cross the runway threshold if you maintain glide slope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TDZE

A

Touchdown zone elevation. The highest elevation in the first 3000 feet of the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Minimum Descent Requirements

A

DA: Decision altitude. In a precision approach, DA is the altitude at which you must instantly decide whether to continue the approach or perform a missed approach
MDA: minimum dissent altitude. In a non-precision approach, the MDA is the minimum altitude to which you may descend and maintain until you either identify the runway environment or reach the missed approach point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Approach procedure: title has an alphabetical suffix from the BEGINNING of the alphabet

A

Procedure does not meet the criteria for a straight in landing. A circling approach may be required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Approach Procedure: title includes a letter from the END of the alphabet

A

Two or more approaches use the same primary navigation source for a particular runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Approach briefing: T or A with black background

A

Non-standard takeoff or alternate minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F: approach charts can be relied on for terrain and obstacle depiction

A

False. While some information may be included, it is for VMC orientation only. There may be other (higher) obstacles in the vicinity that are not depicted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vref

A

Reference landing speed. If not provided, use 1.3Vs0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Minimums with multiple inop instruments

A

Raised to highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Landing minimums you use are determined by

A

Your equipment, your approach speed, and whether you are coming straight in or circling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Approach lighting system starts

A

Precision: 2400-3000 before threshold

Non-precision: 1400-1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Approach chart: asterisk on a frequency

A

Facility is only attended part time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

VDP

A

Visual descent point. If you can see the runway when you reach this point (and are at the MDA), you may safely descend at normal rate (VASI/PAPI, 3 degrees, or something else specified)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CVFP

A

Charted visual flight procedure. Depicts prominent landmarks, courses, and recommended altitudes to specific runways. Clearances are given when weather is good for noise abatement, environmental, or safety reasons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ILS CAT I minimums

A

RVR 2400 or 1/2 SM. With centerline and TDZ lights, can be reduced to 1800. Normal DH is 200ft.

20
Q

Localizer Service Volume

A

Angular area of 35 degrees on either side of the course (70 total) up to 10nm, and 10 degrees on both sides (20 total) up to 18nm. Max altitude = 4500ft above antenna elevation. Minimum altitude = 1000 AGL at 18nm.

21
Q

Localizer Course Width

A

Between 3-6 degrees. Signal width of 700ft at the runway threshold.

22
Q

Glide slope angle and range

A

Normally 3 degrees, +/- 0.7 unless terrain affects it. Range is 10nm. Potentially unreliable below the DA or above the intercept altitude.

23
Q

Marker beacon locations

A

Outer marker = 4-7 miles out, typically at the point of glide slope intercept. Inner marker = 100 feet above TDZE, which is typically the DH for a category 2 approach. Sometimes an outer marker is paired with a compass locator, which broadcasts the ILS’s identifier (in Morse code) out 15+ miles

24
Q

LDA and SDF

A

localizar-type directional aid and simplified directional facility. These are off airport (or off runway) nav aids that function like ILSes and/or localizers, but are not aligned with the runway and often require circle to land. LDA has the same sensitivity as an ILS (3-6 degrees). SDF is either 6 or 12 degrees

25
Q

Parallel instrument approach types

A

Dependent: 2500+ feet apart, staggered arrivals
Independent: 4300+ feet apart, simultaneous arrivals
Independent close: less than 4300. Requires a precision runway monitor system.

26
Q

Types of GPS approaches

A

LNAV: Lateral navigation only
LNAV+V: WAAS or bars-vnav equipment can often add vertical guidance to an LNAV approach. Still must obey step-down fixes and MDA.
LNAV/VNAV: Requires WAAS or baro-vnav. Minimums just above that of an ILS. Minimum is a DA.
LPV: Localizer performance with vertical guidance. Almost as good as an ILS. If WAAS is not available, you must fly to LNAV minimums (WAAS does not degrade to LNAV/VNAV)
LP: Localizer precision, but cannot provide vertical guidance, usually due to terrain or obstacles. Minimum is an [often lower] MDA. Separate approach from LPV (cannot degrade)
RNP: Required navigational performance. Can be flown by any type of equipment (and any pilot) that meets the standards outlined in AC-90-101

27
Q

Radar approaches

A
  • airport “surveillance” approach (ASR): ATC gives headings to fly, as well as the MDA. Pilot responsible for vertical control.
  • precision approach radar (PAR): similar to ASR, but with vertical guidance.
  • no gyro approach: controller tells you when to start and stop your turns. Use standard rate until established on final, then use half standard rate
28
Q

ILS Course Adjustments

A

Narrow as you get closer. By the outer marker, changes should be no greater than 2 degrees

29
Q

Selecting an alternate airport when required and when using GPS

A

Non-WAAS GPS: Alternate must have a non-GPS IAP that is anticipated to be operational at the ETA (and which the aircraft is equipped to fly)

WAAS GPS: An alternate with only GPS approaches is OK, but you must plan for the potential of only using LNAV minima

30
Q

T/F: when using GPS, ground-based navigational tools must still be available for the entire flight.

A

True. You only have to MONITOR them if RAIM is predicting an outage, but they must at least be available

31
Q

GPS degradation during approach

A

If only vertical guidance is lost, the flight can continue using LNAV minima (under some flight rules categories)

If both are lost, pilots should execute the missed approach

32
Q

Procedure turn: Maximum speed

A

200kias

33
Q

Straight-in Approaches: Definition

A

Final approach segment is begun without having executed a procedure turn (e.g. vectors to final). Does not mean you can’t circle to land.

34
Q

Straight-in minimums: Definition and identification

A

Final approach course is within 30 degrees of runway alignment. Letter S, followed by the runway (e.g. S-ILS 34)

35
Q

Approach segments

A

Initial: Segment from the initial (IAF) to the intermediate (IF)
Intermediate: Segment from the Intermediate (IF) to the Final (FAF)
Final: Segment from the Final (FAF) to the runway
Missed: Segment from the Missed Approach Point (MAP) or DH arrival to the Missed Approach Fix/Altitude

36
Q

Sidestep Maneuver

A

Pilots are expected to sidestep to another runway as soon as possible after the runway/environment is in sight. ATC may authorize when parallel runway is within 1,200 feet.

37
Q

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

A

Pilots will monitor tower frequency for advisories and instructions

38
Q

MSA

A

Minimum safe altitude. Guaranteed obstacle clearance of at least 1000 feet 25nm from the primary omnidirectional navaid

39
Q

Approach speed categories

A
1.3 times Vs0
Category A: Speed 90 knots or less.
Category B: Between 91 and 120 knots.
Category C: Between 121 and 140 knots.
Category D: Between 141 knots and 165 knots.
Category E: Speed 166 knots or more.
40
Q

Standard separation on parallel ILS approaches

A

1-1/2 miles radar separation between adjacent successive aircraft

41
Q

Turbojet approaches must be stabilized (engines spooked up, correct speed and flight path, descent <1000fpm) by what altitude?

A

IMC and straight in: 1000ft above TDZE
VMC: 500 feet above airport elevation
Circling: 500 feet above elevation OR MDA, whichever is lower

42
Q

Radar approaches: Turn rate

A

Prior to final approach: Standard rate

On final: Half standard rate

43
Q

Procedure: Loss of visual reference while circling to land

A

Climbing turn toward the approach runway, then continue the turn to intercept the missed approach course

44
Q

Procedure: Wake Turbulence

A

Land after the aircraft’s touchdown point, or take off before its rotation point. Be sure to account for wind, which may move the turbulence either sideways or forward into your path.

45
Q

Meaning: Airport beacon operating during daylight hours

A

Often indicates that ground visibility is <3sm and the ceiling is less than 1000