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Patient care > Procedure 3 > Flashcards

Procedure 3 Flashcards

1
Q 
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
A. Closed
B. Compound
C. Compression
D. Depressed
A

D.

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2
Q

Which of the following are appropriate technique for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury?

  1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts
  2. Maneuver the x-ray tube head instead of moving the patient
  3. Call for help and use the log- rolling method to turn the patient
A

2 and 3

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3
Q 
Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degrees RPO position with the central ray entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?
A. Left SI joint
B. Right SI joint
C. Left ilium
D. Right ilium
A

A.

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4
Q

Which of the following devices should not be removed before positioning for a radiograph?

  1. A ring when performing hand radiography
  2. An antishock garment
  3. A pneumatic splint
A

2 and 3

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5
Q 
Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate the cephalic, basilic, and subclavian veins?
A. Aortofemoral arteriogram
B. Upper-limb venogram
C. Lower-limb venogram
D. Renal venogram
A

B.

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6
Q 
The contrast media of choice for use in myelography are 
A. Ionic non-water-soluble
B. Ionic water-soluble
C. Nonionic water-soluble
D. Gas
A

C.

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7
Q

Arthography requires the use of

  1. General anesthesia
  2. Sterile technique
  3. Fluoroscope
A

2 and 3

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8
Q

Which of the following articulate (s) with the bases of the metatarsals?

  1. The heads of the first row of phalanges
  2. The cuboid
  3. The cuneiform
A

2 and 3

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9
Q 
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees, CR directed 45 degrees toward the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
A. Radial head
B. Ulnar head
C. Coronoid process
D. Olecranon process
A

A.

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10
Q

Operative cholangiography may be performed to

  1. Visualize biliary stones or a neoplasm
  2. Determine function of the hepatopancreatic ampulla
  3. Examine the patency of the biliary tract
A

1,2, and 3

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11
Q

All of the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true, except
A. For radiography of the kidneys, the CR should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis
B. Id a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than in the standard PA projection
C. Chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position
D. Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position

A

D.

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12
Q

Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?

  1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging devices and tilt table capabilities
  2. A fiberoptic endoscope
  3. Polethylene catheters
A

1,2, and 3

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13
Q

Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of

  1. Uterine tubal patency
  2. Mass lesions in the uterine cavity
  3. uterine postion
A

1,2, and 3

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14
Q

In the lateral projection of the foot, the

  1. Plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR
  2. Metatarsals are superimposed
  3. Talofibular joint should be visualized
A

1 and 2

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15
Q

In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?

  1. Supine flexion 45 degrees (merchat)
  2. Prone flexion 90 degrees (settegast)
  3. Prone flexion 55 degrees (hugston)
A

1 only

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16
Q

Knee athrography may be performed to demonstrate a

  1. Torn meniscus
  2. Baker’s cyst
  3. Torn rotator cuff
A

1 and 2

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17
Q

The structures forming the brain stem include

  1. Pons
  2. Medulla oblongata
  3. Midbrain
A

1,2, and 3

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18
Q 
The patient positioned for an T-tube cholangiography is in a
A. 15-20 degrees LPO
B. 15 -20 degrees RPO
C. 45 degrees LPO
D. 45 degrees RPO
A

B.

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19
Q 
With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15-20 degrees caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to
A. 10-15 degrees caudal
B. 25-30 degrees caudal
C. 15-20 degrees cephalic
3-5 degrees caudal
A

A.

20
Q

During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on

  1. Respiratory phase
  2. Body habitus
  3. Patient position
A

1,2, and 3

21
Q 
Which of the following projections of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the central ray directed 40 degrees caudad?
A. Axial plantodorsal projection
B. Axial dorsoplantar projection
C. Lateral projection
D. Weight-bearing lateral projection
A

B.

22
Q

To obtain an exact axial projection of the clavicle, place the patient
A. Supine and angle the central ray 30 degrees
B. Prone and angle the central ray 30 degrees cephalad
C. Supine and angle the central ray 15 degrees cephalad
D. In a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle

A

D.

23
Q

To better demonstrate the ribs below the diaphragm

  1. Suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation
  2. Suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation
  3. Perform the examination the recumbent position
A

1 and 3

24
Q 
Which of the following sinus group is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietocathial projection (Waters' method) and the central ray directed through the patient's open mouth?
A. Frontal
B. Ethmoidal
C. Maxillary
D. Sphenoidal
A

D.

25
Q 
All of the following are mediastinal structures except the 
A. Esophagus
B. Thymus
C. Heart
D. Terminal bronchiole
A

D.

26
Q 
The short, thick process that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the
A. Transverse processes
B. Vertebral arches
C. Laminae
D. Pedicles
A

D.

27
Q

For the AP projection of the scapula, the

  1. Patient’s arm is abducted at right angled to the body
  2. Patient ‘s elbow is flexed with the hand supinated
  3. Exposure is made during quiet breathing
A

1,2, and 3

28
Q 
Which of the following is located at the level of the interspace between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae?
A. Manubrium
B. Jugular notch
C. Sternal angle
D. Xiphoid process
A

C.

29
Q 
The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is:
A. age
B. Gender
C. Family history
D. Personal history
A

B.

30
Q 
What angle is formed by the median sagittal plane and the IR in the parietoorbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal?
A. 90 degrees
B. 37 degrees
C. 53 degrees
D. 45 degrees
A

C.

31
Q 
Shoulder arthrography may be performed to evaluate
A. Humeral dislocation
B. Complete or incomplete rotator tears
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Acromioclavicular joint separation
A

B.

32
Q

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate

  1. Pneumothorax
  2. Foreign body
  3. Atelectasis
A

1,2, and 3

33
Q

Blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the
A. Lateral projection of the facial bones
B. Parietoacanthial projection (Water’s method)
C. Posteroanterior projection with a 15 degrees caudal angle
D. Sweet’s localization method

A

B.

34
Q 
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the left apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?
A. LPO
B. RPO
C. Left lateral
D. PA
A

A.

35
Q 
Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
A. AP projection
B. Lateral projection
C. Medial oblique projection
D. Lateral oblique projection
A

B.

36
Q

In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the central ray is directed
A. 1/2 inch posterior to the anterior nasal spine
B. 3/4 inch posterior to the glabella
C. 3/4 inch distal to the nasion
D. 1/2 inch anterior to the EAM

A

C.

37
Q 
What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the below it?
A. Spondylitis
B. Spondylolysis
C. Spondylotisthesis
D. Spondylosis
A

C.

38
Q

Radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity requires the following accessories:

  1. Bell-Thompson scale
  2. Cannula
  3. Speculum
A

1

39
Q 
Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LAO position?
A. Hepatic flexure
B. Splenic flexure
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Ileocecal valve
A

B.

40
Q

If the patient’s zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient’s head
A. 15 degrees toward the side being examined
B. 15 degrees away from the side being examined
C. 30 degrees toward the side being examined
D. 30 degrees away from the side being examined

A

A.

41
Q 
Which of the following is functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
A. Open-mouth projection
B. Moving mandible AP
C. Flexion and extension laterals
D. Right and left bending AP
A

C.

42
Q 
In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the central ray should be directed
A. parallel to C4
B. Perpendicular to C4
C. 15 degrees cephalad to C4
D. 15 degrees caudad to C4
A

C.

43
Q

The medial oblique projection of the elbow demonstrates the

  1. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa
  2. radial head free of superimposition
  3. Coronoid process free of superimposition
A

1 and 3

44
Q

All of the following may be determined by oral cholecystography except
A. Liver function
B. Ability of the gallbladder to concentrate bile
C. Emptying power of the gallbladder
D. Pancreatic function

A

D.

45
Q

`Which of the following is/are proximal to the tibial plateau?

  1. Femoral condyles
  2. Tibial condyles
  3. Tibial tuberosity
A

1

46
Q

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the
A. Lateral projection
B. PA axial (Caldwell method) projection
C. Parietoacanthial (Water’s method)
D. AP axial (Grashey/Towne method) projection

A

C.

47
Q 
All of the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except
A. Femoral neck
B. Pubis symphysis
C. Greater trochanter
D. Iliac crest
A

A.

Patient care (6 decks)

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