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Patient care > Patient care > Flashcards

Patient care Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following blood pressure measurements might indicate shock?

  1. Systolic pressure lower than 60 mm Hg.
  2. Systolic pressure higher than 60 mm Hg.
  3. Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mm Hg.
  4. Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mm Hg.
A

Shock indicated by extremely low blood pressure.
Normal blood pressure is 110 to 140 mm Hg systolic and 60 to 80 diastolic.

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2
Q

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered.

  1. Rectally
  2. Orally
  3. Intrathecally
  4. Through a nasogastric tube
A

3.

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3
Q

For medicolwegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include all the following information, except

  1. The patient’s name and/or identification
  2. The patient’s birth date
  3. A right-or-left side marker
  4. The date of the examination
A

2.

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4
Q

A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals could be found guilty of

  1. Invasion of privacy
  2. Slander
  3. Libel
  4. Defamation
A

1.

Spoken defamation-Slander

Written defamation-Libel

If the disclosure is in some way detrimental or otherwise harmful to the patient, the radiographer may be accused of- Defamation

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5
Q

A diabetic patient who has prepared for a fasting radiographic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by

  1. Shaking and nervousness
  2. Cold, clammy skin
  3. Cyanosis
A

1 and 2

Hypoglycemic reactions can be very severe and should be treated with an immediate dose of sugar (e.g. in juice). Early symptoms of insulin reaction are shacking, nervousness, dizziness, cold, and clammy skin, blurred vision, and slurred speech.

Convulsion and coma may result if the patient is not treated.

Cyanosis is the lack of oxygenated blood, which is a symptom of shock

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6
Q

Which of the following instructions should be given to the patient following a barium sulfate examination?

  1. Increase fluid and fiber intake for several day
  2. Changes in stool color will occur until all barium has been evacuated
  3. Contact a physician if no bowel movement occurs in 24 hours.
A

1,2, and 3.

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7
Q

Logrolling is a method of moving patients with suspected

  1. Head injury
  2. Spinal injury
  3. Bowel obstruction
  4. Extremity fracture
A

2.

Patient arriving from the emergency department (ED) with suspected spinal injury should not be moved. AP and horizontal lateral projections of the suspected area should be evaluated and a decision made about the advisability of further images. For lateral projection, the patient should be moved along one plane, that is, rolled like a log. it is impressive that twisting motions be avoided.

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8
Q

A patient is usually required to drink a barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of following structures?

  1. Pylorus
  2. Sigmoid
  3. Ilium
A

1.

Oral administration of barium sulfate is used to demonstrate the upper digestive system-the esophagus, fundus, body, and pylorus of the stomach and the barium process through small bowel.

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9
Q

The normal average rate of respiration for a healthy adult patient is

  1. 5 to 7 breaths/min
  2. 8 to 12 breaths/min
  3. 12 to 20 breaths/min
  4. 20 to 30 breaths/min
A

3.

For children, the rate is higher averaging between 20 to 30 breath/min. In addition to monitor the depth ( shallow or labored) and pattern (regularity) of respiration. A respiration rate greater than 20 breaths/min in an adult would be considered tachypnea.

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10
Q

Example of COPD include

  1. Bronchitis
  2. Pulmonary emphysema
  3. Asthma
A

1,2, and 3.

COPD is irreversible and decreases the ability of the lungs to perform their ventilation functions. There is often less than half the normal expected maximal breathing capacity.

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11
Q

Administration of contrast agents for radiographic purposes is usually performed by which of the following parenteral routes?

  1. Subcutaneous
  2. Intravenous
  3. Intramuscular
  4. Intradermal
A

2.

A parental route of drug administration is one that bypasses the digestive system. In radiography, the IV method is most commonly used to administer contrast agents.

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12
Q

A patient developed hives several minutes after injection of an iodinated contrast agent. What type of drug should be readily available?

  1. Analgesic
  2. Antihistamine
  3. Anti-inflammatory
  4. Antibiotic
A

2.

When a contrast medium is injected, histamines are produced to protect the body from the foreign substance. An antihistamine (such as diphenhydramine (Benadryl)) blocks the action of the histamine and reduces the body’s inflammatory response to the contrast medium.

An-inflammatory drug (such as ibuprofen) suppresses the inflammation of tissue.

Antibiotics (such as penicillin) help fight bacterial infections.

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13
Q

The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a

  1. Defibrillator
  2. Cardiac monitor
  3. Cash cart
  4. Resuscitation bag
A

1.

A cardiac monitor is used to display, and sometime record, ECG readings and some pressure reading.

The cash cart is a supply cart with various medications and equipment necessary for treating a patient who is suffering from a myocardial infraction to some other serious medical emergency.

A resuscitation bag is used for ventilation, as during cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

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14
Q

which of the following sites are commonly used for an intravenous injection?

  1. Antecubital vein
  2. Basilic vein
  3. Popliteal vein
A

1 and 2.

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15
Q

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath sounds. you should

  1. Begin mouth-to-mouth reuse breathing giving two full breath
  2. Proceed with the Heimlich maneuver
  3. Begin external chest compression at a rate of 80 to 100/min
  4. Begin external chest compression at a rate of a lease 100/ min
A

1.

The victim’s airway should first be opened. This is accomplished by tilting back the head and lifting the chin. However, if the victim may have suffered a spinal cord injury, the spine should not be moved and the airway should be opened using the jaw thrust method. The rescuer nest listens to breathing sounds and watches for the rise and fall of the chest to indicate breathing. If there is no breathing, the rescuer pinches the victim’s nose and delivers two full breaths via mouth- to- mouth rescue breathing.

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16
Q

In classifying intravenous (IV) contrast agents, the Total number of dissolved particles in solution per kilogram of water defines

  1. Osmolality
  2. Toxicity
  3. Viscosity
  4. Miscibility
A

1.

Toxicity- how noxious or harmful a contrast agent is. Contrast agents with low osmolality have been found to cause less tissue toxicity than the ionic IV contrast agent.

Viscosity- the thickness or concentration of the contrast agent

Miscibility- a contrast agent refers to its ability to mix with body fluids, such as blood. An important consideration in preventing thrombus formation.

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17
Q

which of the following procedures requires that the patient be placed in the lithotomy position?

  1. Myelography
  2. Venography
  3. T-tube cholangiography
  4. Hysterosalpingography
A

4.

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18
Q

A nosocomial infection is a(n)

  1. Infection acquired from frequent hand shaking
  2. Upper respiratory tract infection
  3. Infection acquired in a hospital
  4. Type of rhinitis
A

3.

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19
Q

The legal doctrine res ipsa loquitur means

  1. Let the master answer
  2. The thing speaks for itself
  3. A thing or matter settled by justice
  4. A matter settled by precedent
A

2.

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20
Q

The usual patient preparation for an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination is

  1. NPO 8 hrs before the examination
  2. Light breakfast only on the morning of the examination
  3. Clear fluids only on the morning of the examination
  4. 2-ounce castor oil and enemas until clear
A

1.

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21
Q

Conditions in which there is a lack of normal bone calcification include

  1. Rickets
  2. Osteomalacia
  3. Osteoarthritis
A

1 and 2

Rickets and osteomalacia are disorders in which there is softening of bone. Rickets results from a deficiency of vitamin D and usually is found affecting the growing bones of young children.

Osteomalacia is an adult condition in which new bone fails to calcify.

Osteoarthritis- often seen in the elderly and is characterized by degeneration of articular cartilage in adjacent bones.

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22
Q

Abnormal accumulation of air in pulmonary tissues, resulting in over distention of the alveolar spaces, is

  1. Emphysema
  2. Empyema
  3. Pneumothorax
  4. Pneumoconiosis
A

1.

Empyema- pus in the thoracic

Pneumothorax- is air or gas in the pleural cavity

Pneumoconiosis- a condition of the lungs characterized by particulate matter having been deposited in lung tissue

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23
Q

Anaphylactic shock manifest early symptoms that include

  1. Dysphagia
  2. Itching of palms and soles
  3. Constrictions of the throat
A

1,2, and 3.

Dysphagia- difficult to swallow

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24
Q

Anaphylaxis is term used to describe

  1. An inflammatory reaction
  2. Bronchial asthma
  3. Acute chest pain
  4. Allergic shock
A

4.

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25
Q

Of the four stages of infection, which is the stage during which the infection is most communicable

  1. Latent period
  2. Incubation period
  3. Disease phase
  4. Convalescent phase
A

3.

In the initial phase, the latent period, the infection is introduced and lies dormant. As soon as the microbes begin to shed, the infection becomes communicable. The microbes reproduce ( during the incubation period), and during the actual disease period signs and symptoms of the infection may begin. The infection is most active and communicable at this point. As the patient fights off the infection, and the symptoms regress, the convalescent (recovery) phase occurs.

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26
Q

When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an infant, it is required that the number of compressions per minute, compared to that for an adult,

  1. Remain the same
  2. Double
  3. Decrease
  4. Increase
A

The heart rate of an infant is much faster than that of an adult; therefore, the number of compressions per minute is also greater. Infant CPR requires 5 compressions to 1 breath. There should be at least 100 compression per minute.

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27
Q

All of the following statements regarding hand washing and skin care are correct except

  1. Hands should be washed after each patient examination
  2. Faucets should be opened and closed with paper towels
  3. Hands should be smooth and free from chapping
  4. Any cracks or abrasion should be left uncovered to facilitate healing.
A

4.

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28
Q

A patient whose systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mm Hg is usually considered

  1. Hypertensive
  2. Hypotensive
  3. Average/ normal
  4. Baseline
A

2.

A patient is considered hypertensive when systolic pressure is consistently above 140 mm Hg, and hypotensive when the systolic pressure is lower than 90 mmHg

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29
Q

When a patient arrives in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is important to

  1. Place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder
  2. Place the drainage bag the same level as the bladder
  3. Place the drainage bad below the level as the bladder
  4. Clamp the Foley catheter
A

3.

Placement of the tubing or bag above or level with bladder will allow back floe of urine into bladder. This reflux of urine can increase the chance of UTI.

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30
Q

Instruments required to asses vital signs include

  1. A thermometer
  2. A tougue blade
  3. A watch with a second hand
A

1 and 3

The four vital signs are temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.

A watch with a second hand is required to measure the patient’s pulse and respiratory.

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31
Q

Lyme disease is caused by bacteria carried by deer tick. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an transmission of an infection by

  1. Droplet contact
  2. A vehicle
  3. The airborne route
  4. A vector
A

4.

Vectors are insects and animals carrying disease.

Droplet contact, involves contact with secretions (from the nose, mouth, and eye) that travel via a sneeze or cough

The airborne route involves evaporated droplets in the air that transfer disease.

A vehicle can transmit infection via contaminated water, food, blood, or drug

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32
Q

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously include all of the following except

  1. A warm feeling
  2. Altered taste
  3. Nausea
  4. Hypotension
A

4.

Nonionic, low-osmolality iodinated contrast agents are associated with far fewer side effects and reactions than ionic, higher osmolality contrast agents.

Possible side effects of iodinated contrast agents include a warm, flushed feeling, a metallic taste in the mouth, nausea, headache, and pain at the injection site.

Adverse reactions include itching anxiety, rash or hives, vomiting, sneezing, dyspnea, and hypotension.

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33
Q

Blood pressure may be expressed as 120/95. What dose 95 represent?

  1. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue
  2. The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue
  3. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure.
A

1 and 3.

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34
Q

All drug packages must provide certain information required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Some of the information that must be provided includes

  1. The generic name
  2. Contraindications
  3. The usual dose
A

1, 2, and 3

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35
Q

Forms of intentional misconduct include

  1. Slander
  2. Invasion of privacy
  3. Negligence
A

1 and 2

However, if a radiographer leaves a weak patient standing along to check images or get supplies, and that patient falls and sustains an injury, that would be considered unintentional misconduct or negligence.

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36
Q

When a patient with an arm injury needs help in undressing, the radiography should

  1. Remove clothing from the injured arm first
  2. Remove clothing from the uninjured arm first
  3. Always remove clothing from the left arm first
  4. Always cut clothing away from the injured extremity
A

2.

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37
Q

Which of the following conditions describes a patient who is unable to breathe easily while in the recumbent position?

  1. Dyspraxia
  2. Apnea
  3. Orthopnea
  4. Oligopnea
A

3.

A patient with orthopnea is unable to breath while lying down. When the body is recumbent, the diaphragm and abdominal viscera move to a move superior position. It is therefore more difficult to breath deeply. Patients with orthopnea must be examined in an erect or semi erect position.

Dyspnea refers to difficulty breathing in any body position.

Apnea describes cessation of breathing for short intervals.

Oligopnea is infrequent breathing as slow as 6 to 10 respirations per minute.

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38
Q

You and fellow radiographer have received an unconscious patient from a motor vehicle accident. As you perform the examination, it is important that you

  1. Refer to the patient by name
  2. Make only those statements that you would make with a conscious patient
  3. Reassure the patient about what you are doing
A

1,2, and 3

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39
Q

A diuretic is used to

  1. Induce vomiting
  2. Stimulate defecation
  3. Promote elimination of urine
  4. Inhibit coughing
A

3.

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40
Q

When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to

  1. Move quickly
  2. Address them by their full name
  3. Give straightforward instructions
A

2 and 3

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41
Q

The complete killing all microorganisms is termed

  1. Surgical aseptic
  2. Medical aseptic
  3. Sterilization
  4. Disinfection
A

3.

The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed sterilization.

Surgical aseptic refers to the technique used to prevent contamination when performing procedures.

Medical asepsis refers to practices that reduce the spread if microbes, and therefore the chance of spreading disease or infection. Hand washing is an example of medical asepsis. It reduces the spread of infection, but dose not eliminate all microorganisms. disinfection involves the use of chemicals to either inactive or inhibit the growth of microbes.

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42
Q

Involuntary patient motion can be caused by

  1. Post traumatic shock
  2. Medication
  3. Low room temperature
A

1,2, and 3

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43
Q

When caring for A patient with an IV, the radiographer should keep the medication

  1. 18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein
  2. 18 to 20 inches below the level of the vein
  3. 28 to 30 inches above the level of the vein
  4. 28 to 30 inches below the level of the vein
A

1.

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44
Q

Which of the following may be used to affectively reduce the viscosity of contrast media

  1. Warming
  2. Refrigeration
  3. Storage at normal room temperature
  4. Storage in a cool, dry place
A

1.

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45
Q

The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in peripheral vessels in classified as

  1. Neurogenic
  2. Carcinogenic
  3. Hypovolemic
  4. Septic
A

1.

This occurs in cases of trauma to the central nervous system that results on decreased arterial resistance and pooling of blood in peripheral vessels.

Cardiogenic shock is related to cardia failure and results from interference who heart function. it can occur in case of cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolus, to myocardial infraction.

Hypovolemic shock is related to loss of large amounts of blood, either from internal bleeding or from hemorrhage associated with trauma

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46
Q

Which of the following must be included in patient’s medical record or chart?

  1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders
  2. Medical history
  3. Informed consent
A

1,2, and 3

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47
Q

What type of precautions prevents the spray of infectious agents in aerosol form?

  1. Strict isolation
  2. Protective isolation
  3. Airborne precautions
  4. Contact precautions
A

3.

Airborne precautions are employe with a patients suspects or known to be infected with tubercle bacillus (TB), chicken pox (varicella), or measles (rubeola). Airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask to avoid the spread of bronchial secretions or there pathogens during coughing. Patients under airborne precautions require a private, specially ventilated ( negative pressure) room.

Rubella (German measles), mumps, and influenza are among the diseases spread by droplet contact; a private room is required for the patient, and health care practitioners should use gown and gloves.

Any diseases spread by direct or close contact, such as MRSA, conjunctivitis, and hepatitis. A require contact precautions. Contact precautions require a private patient room and the gloves, mask, and gown for anyone coming in direct contact with the infected individual to his or her environment.

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48
Q

Which of the following conditions must be meet in order for patient consent to be valid?

  1. The patient must signed the consent form before receiving sedation
  2. The physician named on the consent form must perform the procedure
  3. All the blanks on the consent form must be filled in before the patient signed the form
A

1,2, and 3

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49
Q

The Heimlich maneuver is used if a patient is

  1. In cardiac arrest
  2. Choking
  3. Having a seizure
  4. Suffering from hiccups
A

2.

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50
Q

Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile techniques?

  1. Goes are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms
  2. Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist
  3. Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face
  4. A sterile filed should not be left unattended
A

3.

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51
Q

Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health-care provider’s and the patient’s actions contributed to an injurious outcome?

  1. Intentional misconduct
  2. Contributory negligence
  3. Gross negligence
  4. None of the above
A

2.

Gross negligence occurs when there is willful or deliberate neglect of the patient.

Intentional misconduct- assault, battery, invasion of privacy, false imprisonment, and defamation of character all fall under the category.

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52
Q

If extravasation occurs during an IV injection of contrast media, correct treatment includes which of the following?

  1. Remove the needle and locate a studier vein immediately
  2. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops
  3. Apply warm, moist heat
A

2 and 3.

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53
Q

Which of the following diastolic pressure reading might indicate hypertension?

  1. 40 mm Hg
  2. 60 mm Hg
  3. 80 mm Hg
  4. 100 mm Hg
A

4.

Diastolic normal range is 60 to 80 mm Hg.

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54
Q

To reduce the back strain associated with transferring patients from stretcher to x-ray table, the radiographer should

  1. Pull the patient
  2. Push the patient
  3. Hold the patient away from his or her body and lift
  4. Bend at the waist and pull
A

1.

Pull, do not push, the patient; pushing increases friction and makes the transfer more difficult. Do not bend at the waist and pull; use your biceps for pulling the patient. Draw the patient as close to you as possible and then lift if necessary.

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55
Q

A small bottle containing a single dose of medication is termed

  1. An ampule
  2. A vial
  3. A bolus
  4. A carafe
A

1.

A carafe is a narrow- mouthed container; it is not likely to be used for medical purpose.

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56
Q

If an emergency trauma patient experiences hemorrhaging from a leg injury, the radiographer should

  1. Apply pressure to the bleeding site
  2. Call the emergency department for assistance
  3. Apply a pressure bandage and complete the examination
A

1 and 2.

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57
Q

Ingestion of a gas-producing powder or crystals is usually preliminary to which of the following examinations?

  1. Double-contrast GI
  2. Oral cholecystogram
  3. IV urogram
A

1.

A double-contrast GI examination requires that the patient ingest gas-producing power, crystals , pills, or beverage followed by a small amount of high-density barium.

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58
Q

Which ethical principle is related to the the theory that’s patients have the right to decide what will or will not be done to them?

  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Fidelity
  4. Veracity
A

1.

Beneficence is related to the idea of doing good and being kind.

Fidelity is faithfulness and loyalty

veracity is not only telling truth, but also not practicing deception

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59
Q

When disposing of contaminated needles, they are placed in a special contained using what procedure?

  1. Recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle
  2. Do not recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle
  3. Recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe
  4. Do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe
A

4.

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60
Q

You receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left fourth and fifth metatarsals; however, the requisition asks for a left ankle examination. what should you do?

  1. Perform a left foot examination
  2. Perform a left ankle examination
  3. Perform both a left foot and a left ankle examination
  4. Check with the referring physician
A

4.

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61
Q

You receive an ambulatory patient for GI series. As the patient is seated on the x-ray table, he feels faint. you should

  1. Lay the patient down on the x-ray table
  2. Elevate the patient’s legs or place the table
  3. Leave quickly and call for help
A

1 and 2.

A patient who feels faint should never be left alone

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62
Q

Which of the following examinations requires restriction of the patient’s diet?

  1. GI series
  2. Abdominal survey
  3. Pyelogram
A

1 and 3.

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63
Q

The radiographer must perform which of the following procedures prior to entering a contact isolation room with a mobile x-ray unit

  1. Put on gown and gloves only
  2. Put on gown, gloves, mask, and cap
  3. Clean the mobile x-ray unit
A

1.

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64
Q

Examples of nasogastric tubes include

  1. Swan-Ganz
  2. Salem-sump
  3. Levin
A

2 and 3.

The levin and Salem-sump tubes are NG tubes used for gastric decompression. The Salem-sump tube is radiopaque and has a double lumen. One lumen is for gastric compression, and the other is for removal of fluid. The levin tube is a single-lumen tube that is used to prevent accumulation of intestinal liquids and gas during and following intestinal surgery.

The Swan-Ganz IV catheter is advanced to the pulmonary artery and used to measure various heart pressures

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65
Q

Rapid onset of severe respiration or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or after an insect bite, best describes

  1. Asthma
  2. Anaphylaxis
  3. Myocardial infraction
  4. Rhinitis
A

2.

Anaphylaxis is an acute reaction characterized by the sudden onset urticaria, respiratory distress, vascular collapse, or systemic shock, sometimes leading to death. It is caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent such as a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or by an insect bite.

Asthma and rhinitis are examples of allergic reactions.

Myocardial infraction (MI) is caused by partial to complete occlusion of a coronary artery

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66
Q

The most effective method of sterilization is

  1. Dry heat
  2. Moist heat
  3. Pasteurization
  4. Freezing
A

2.

The most effective method of sterilization is moist heat, using steam under pressure. This is known as autoclaving.

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67
Q

The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is

  1. Bronchial asthma
  2. Bronchitis
  3. Emphysema
  4. Tuberculosis
A

3.

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68
Q

Chest drainage system should always be kept

  1. Below the level of the patients chest
  2. Above the patient’s chest
  3. At the level of the patient’s diaphragm
A

1.

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69
Q

Which of the following patient rights is violated by discussing privileged patient information with an individual who is not involved with the patient’s care?

  1. The right to considerate and respect care
  2. The right to privacy
  3. The right to continuity of care
A

2.

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70
Q

Nitroglycerin is used

  1. To relieve pain from angina pectoris
  2. To relieve pain a heart attack
  3. As a vasoconstrictor
  4. To increase blood pressure
A

1.

Angina pectoris is a crushing chest pain caused by a circulatory disturbance of the coronary arteries. Nitroglycerin is used to dilate (vasodilation) and decrease blood pressure in the treatment of pain from angina pectoris. Nitroglycerin is usually given sublingually, and thus is absorbed directly into the bloodstream

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71
Q

In which of the following situations should a radiographer wear protective eye gear (goggles)

  1. When performing an upper GI radiography examination
  2. When assisting the radiologist during an angiogram
  3. When assisting the radiologist in a biopsy/ aspiration procedure
A

2 and 3.

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72
Q

In reviewing a patient’s blood chemistry, which of the following blood urea nitrogen BUN ranges is considered normal

  1. 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100
  2. 4.5 to 6 mg/ 100
  3. 8 to 25 mg/100
  4. up to 50 mg/100
A

3.

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73
Q

A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time is termed

  1. An IV push
  2. An infusion
  3. A bolus
  4. Hypodermic
A

2.

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74
Q

A patient who is diaphoretic has

  1. Pale, cool, clammy skin
  2. Hot, dry skin
  3. Dilated pupils
  4. Warm, moist skin
A

1.

Observation is an important part of the evaluation of acutely ill patients. The patient who is diaphoretic is “ in a cold swear” with pale, cool, moist skin.

Hot, dry skin accompanies fever.

Warm. moist skin may be a result of anxiety or simply of being in a warm room.

The pupils dilate in dimly illuminated places in order to allow more light into the eyes.

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75
Q

In what order should the following examinations be performed?

  1. Upper GI
  2. IV urogram
  3. Barium enema
A

2,3, and 1

When scheduling patient examinations, it is important to avoid the possibility of residual contrast medium covering areas that will be of interest on later examinations. the IV urogram (also refereed to as intravenous Pyelogram/IVP) should be scheduled first because the contrast medium used is excreted rapidly. the barium enema should be schedule next. Finally, the upper GI is scheduled. there should not be enough barium remaining from the previous BE to interfere with the examination of the stomach or duodenum, although a preliminary scout image should be taken in each case.

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76
Q

An MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient who has

  1. Herniated disc
  2. Aneurysm clip
  3. Dental fillings
  4. Subdural bleeding
A

2

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77
Q

An inanimate object that has bee in contact with an infectious microorganism is termed a

  1. Vector
  2. Fomite
  3. Host
  4. Reservoir
A

2

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78
Q

The advantages of using nonionic, water-soluble contrast media include

  1. Cost-containment benefits
  2. Low toxicity
  3. Fewer adverse reaction
A

2.

The relatively low-osmolality and nonionic, water-soluble contrast medium available to radiology departments have outstanding advantages, especially for patients with a history of allergic reaction. They were originally used for intracathecal injections (pyelography), but they were quickly accepted for intravascular injections as well. Side effects and allergic reactions are less likely and less severe with these media. Their one very significant disadvantage is they high cost compared to ionic contrast media.

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79
Q

A vasodilator would most likely be used for

  1. Angina
  2. Cardiac arrest
  3. Bradycardia
  4. Antihistamine
A

1.

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80
Q

Which of following statements are true regarding a two member team performing mobile radiography on a patient with MRSA precautions?

  1. One radiographer remains “ clean” - That is, he or she has no physical contact with the patient
  2. The radiographer who positions the mobile unit also makes the exposure
  3. The radiographier who positions the cassette also retrieves the cassette and removes it from its plastic protective cover.
A

1 and 2.

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81
Q

Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media include

  1. Sneezing
  2. Dyspnea
  3. Asthma attack
A

1, 2, and 3.

82
Q

While in your care for a radiographic procedure, a patient asks to see his chart. which of the following is the appropriate response?

  1. Inform the patient that the chart is for health-care providers to view, not for the patient
  2. Inform the patient that you do not know where the chart is
  3. Inform the patient that he has the tight to see his chart, but that he should request to view it with his physician, so that it is properly interpreted
  4. Give the patient the chart and leave him alone for a few minutes to review it
A

3.

83
Q

Skin discoloration due to cyanosis may be observed in the

  1. Gums
  2. Nailbeds
  3. Cornea
A

1 and 2.

Cyanosis is a condition resulting form a deficiency of oxygen circulating in the blood. It is characterized by bluish discoloration of the gums, nail beds, and earlobes, and around mouth.

84
Q

With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently helpful to

  1. Elevate the head slightly with a pillow
  2. Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position
  3. Place a support under the knee
A

1 and 3.

The trendelenburg position causes diaphragm to assume a higher position and can cause a patient to become short of breath.

85
Q

While performing mobile radiography on a patient, you note that the requisition is for a chest image to check placement of a Swan-Ganz catheter. A Swan-Ganz catheter is a (n)

  1. Pacemaker
  2. Chest tube
  3. IV catheter
  4. Urinary catheter
A

3.

86
Q

The medical term for nosebleed is

  1. Vertigo
  2. Epistaxis
  3. Urticaria
  4. Aura
A

2.

Vertigo refers to s feeling “whirling” or sensation that the room is spinning.

Urticaria is a vascular reaction resulting in dilated capillaries and edema and causing the patient to breakout hives.

87
Q

Blood pressure is measured in units of

  1. mm Hg
  2. Beats per minute
  3. F
  4. Liters per minute
A

1.

88
Q

Which of the following radiographic procedures an intrathecal injection?

  1. IV pyelogram
  2. Myelogram
  3. Lymphangiogram
  4. Computed tomography (CT)
A

2.

89
Q

According to the CDC (Center for Disease Control and Prevention), all of the following precaution guidelines are true, except

  1. Airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask
  2. Masks are indicated when caring for patients on MRSA precautions
  3. Patients under MRSA precautions require a negative pressure room
  4. Gloves are indicated when caring for a patient on droplet precautions
A

3.

90
Q

The medical term for congenital clubfoot is

  1. Coza plama
  2. Osteochondritis
  3. Talipes
  4. Muscular dystrophy
A

3.

91
Q

The pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not converting sufficient blood to the heart is called

  1. Tachycardia
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Angina pectoris
  4. Syncope
A

3.

92
Q

Hypochlorite bleach (Clorox) and Lysol are examples of

  1. Antiseptics
  2. Bacrwriostatics
  3. Anti fungal agents
  4. Disinfectants
A

4.

Disinfectants are used in radiology departments to clean equipment and to remove microorganisms from areas such as radiographic tables.

Antiseptics are also used to stop the growth of microorganisms, but they are often applied to the skin, not to radiographic equipment.

Antifungal medications can be administered systemically or topically to treat or prevent fungal infections.

93
Q

The condition that allows blood to shunt between the right and left ventricles is called

  1. Aatent ductus arterioles
  2. Coarctation of the aorta
  3. Atrial septal defect
  4. Ventricular septal defect
A

4.

Atrial septal defect is a small hole (the remnant of the fetal foramen oval) in the intertribal septum. It usually closes spontaneously in the first months of life; it is persists or is unusually large, surgical repair is necessary.

94
Q

When radiographing young children, it is helpful to

  1. Let them bring a toy
  2. Tell them it will not hurt
  3. Be cheerful and unhurried
A

1 and 3

95
Q

A drug’s chemical name is called its

  1. Generic name
  2. Trade name
  3. Brand name
  4. Proprietary name
A

1.

96
Q

The act of inspiration will cause elevation of the

  1. Sternum
  2. Ribs
  3. Diaphragm
A

1 and 2.

97
Q

A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations?

  1. Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation
  2. Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination
  3. Discussing a patient’s condition with a third party
A

1, 2, and 3.

A tort is an intentional or unintentional act that involves personal injury or damage to a patient.

98
Q

Guideline for cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces include the following:
1. Clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated area
2. Clean in a circular motion, starting from the center and working outward
3, Clean from the top down

A

1 and 3.

99
Q

If the radiographer performed a lumbar spine examination on a patient who was supposed to have an elbow examination, which of the following charges may be brought against the radiographer?

  1. Assault
  2. Battery
  3. False imprisonment
  4. Defamation
A

2.

Battery refers to the unlawful laying of hands on a patient.

Assault is the threat of touching or laying hands on someone.

False imprisonment may be considered if a patient is ignored after stating that she no longer wishes to continue with the procedure, or if restraining devices are improperly used or used without physician’s order.

Defamation can be upheld when patient confidentiality is not respected, and as a result the patient suffers embarrassment or mockery.

100
Q

Physical changes characteristic of gerontologic patients usually include

  1. Loss of bone calcium
  2. Loss of hearing
  3. Off of mental altertness
A

1.

101
Q

Which statement (s) would be true regarding tracheostomy patients?

  1. Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking
  2. A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy tubing to be rotated out of view
  3. Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction
A

1 and 3.

102
Q

An esophagogram might be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms?

  1. Varices
  2. Achalasia
  3. Dysphasia
A

1 and 2.

Varices or dilated twisted veins. the esophagus are frequently associated with obstructive liver disease or cirrhosis of the liver. these esophageal veins enlarge and can rupture, causing serious hemorrhage.

Achalasia is dilation of the esophagus as a result of the cardiac sprinter’s failure to relax and allow food to pass into the stomach.

Dysphagia refers to difficult swallowing and is the most common esophageal complaint.

Dysphasia is a speech impairment resulting from a brain lesion, it is not related to the esophagus.

103
Q

Medication can be administered by which of the following routes?

  1. Orally
  2. Intravenously
  3. Intramuscular
A

1,2, and 3.

104
Q

Protective or “reverse” isolation is required in which of the following conditions?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Burns
  3. Leukemia
A

2 and 3.

105
Q

When a GI series has been requested on a patient with a suspected perforated ulcer, the type of contrast medium that should be used is

  1. Thin barium sulfate suspension
  2. Thick barium sulfate suspension
  3. Water-soluble iodinated medium
  4. Oil-based iodinated medium
A

3.

106
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy?

  1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason
  2. Before you section a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated
  3. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between
A

1, 2, and 3.

107
Q

A patient experiencing an episode of syncope should be placed in which of the following positions?

  1. Dorsal recumbent with head elevated
  2. Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated
  3. Lateral recumbent
  4. Seated with feet supported
A

2.

108
Q

The diameter of a needle is termed its

  1. Bevel
  2. Gauge
  3. Hub
  4. Length
A

2.

109
Q

A patient in a recumbent position with the head lower than the feet is said to be which of the following position?

  1. Trendelenburg
  2. Fowler’s
  3. Sims’
  4. Stenver’s
A

1.

110
Q

Which of the following drugs is considered a bronchodilator?

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Lidocaine
  3. Nitroglycerin
  4. Verapamil
A

1.
Epinephrine (adrenalin) is a bronchodilator. Bronchodilators may be administered in a spray mister, such as for asthma, or bu injection to relieve severe bronchospasm.

Lidocaine (xylocaine) is an anti arrhythmic used to prevent or treat cardiac arrhythmias (dysrhythmia).

Nitroglycerin and verapamil are vasodilators. Vasodilators permit increased blood flow by relaxing the walls of the blood vessels.

111
Q

Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or cardiac arrest?

  1. Nitroglycerin
  2. Epineprine
  3. Hydrocortisone
  4. Digitoxin
A

2.

Epinephrine (adrenalin) is the vast pressor used to treat an anaphylactic reaction or cardiac arrest.

Digitoxin is used to treat cardia fibrillation.

Hydrocortisone is a steroid that may be used to treat baronial asthma, allergic reactions, and inflammatory reactions.

112
Q

Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called

  1. Antiseptic
  2. Germicides
  3. Disinfectants
A

2 and 3.

113
Q

All of the following rules regarding proper hand washing technique are correct except

  1. Keep hands and forearms lower than elbows
  2. Use paper towels to turn water on
  3. Avoid using hand lotions whenever possible
  4. Carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers
A

3.

114
Q

Where is the “sterile corridor” located?

  1. Just outside the surgical suite
  2. Immediately inside each operating room door
  3. Between the draped patient and the instrument table
  4. At the foot end of the draped patient
A

3.

115
Q

The medical abbreviation meaning “three times a day” is

  1. tid
  2. qid
  3. qh
  4. pc
A

1.
qid- four times a day
qh- every hour
pc- after meals

116
Q

During a grand mal seizure, the patient should be

  1. Protected from injury
  2. Placed in a semi upright position to prevent aspiration of vomitus
  3. Allowed to thrash freely
  4. Given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury
A

1.

117
Q

A patient suffering from orthopnea would experience the least discomfort in which body position

  1. Fowler’s
  2. Trendelenburg
  3. Recumbent
  4. Eret
A

4.

Orthopedic is a respiratory condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing (dyspnea) in any position other than erect.

Fowler’s position is semi upright position, and the recumbent position is lying down.

118
Q

In which of the following conditions is a double-contrast barium enema (BE) essential for demonstration of the condition?

  1. Polyps
  2. Colitis
  3. Diverticulosis
A

1 and 2.

Double-contrast studies of the large bowel are particular useful for demonstration of the bowel wall, and anything projecting from it, as in diverticulosis. polyps are projections of the bowel wall mucous membrane into the bowel lumen. colitis is inflammation of the large bowel, often associated with ulcerations of the mucosal wall. a single contrast study would most likely obliterate these mucosal conditions, but coating of the bowel mucosa with barium and subsequent filling the bowel with air (double contrast) provides optimal delineation.

119
Q

When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective date should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that

  1. The patient appears to have a productive cough
  2. The patient has a blood pressure of 130/95
  3. The patient states that he experiences extreme pain in the upright position
  4. The patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast
A

3.

120
Q

Symptoms of impeding diabetic coma include

  1. Increased urination
  2. Sweet-smelling breath
  3. Extreme thirst
A

1, 2, and 3.

When a diabetic patient misses an insulin injection, the body loses its ability to metabolize glucose, and ketoacidosis can occur. If this is not quickly corrected, the patient may become comatose. Symptoms of impeding coma include increased urination, sweet (fruity) breath, and extreme thirst. Other symptoms are weakness and nausea.

121
Q

The condition of slow heart rate, below 60 beats/min, is termed

  1. Hyperthermia
  2. Hypothension
  3. Hypoxia
  4. Bradycardia
A

4.

122
Q

Which of the following is (are) symptoms of shock?

  1. Pallar and weakness
  2. Increased pulse
  3. Fever
A

1 and 2.

A patient who is going into shock may exhibit pallor weakness, a significantdrop in blood pressure, and an increased pulse. The patient may also experience apprehension and restlessness and may have cool, clammy skin. A radiographer recognizing these symptoms should call them to the physician’s attention immediately. Fever is nor associated with shock.

123
Q

Increased pain threshold, breakdown of the skin, and atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands are all important considerations when working with which group of patients?

  1. Infants
  2. Children
  3. Adolescents
  4. Geriatric patients
A

4.

124
Q

The medical abbreviation meaning “ every hour” is

  1. tid
  2. qid
  3. qh
  4. pc
A

3.

125
Q

Radiographs are the property of the

  1. Radiologist
  2. Patient
  3. Health-care institution
  4. Referring physician
A

3.

126
Q 
When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine range?
1. 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL
2 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL
3. 8 to 25 mg/100 mL
4. up to 50 mg/100 mL
A

3.

127
Q

Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure?

  1. Pulse oximeter
  2. Stethoscope
  3. Sphygmomanometer
A

2 and 3.

128
Q

Disease whose mode of transmission is through the air include

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Mumps
  3. Rebella
A

1, 2, and 3.

129
Q

All of the following statements regarding oxygen delivery are true, except

  1. Oxygen is classified as a drug as a drug and must be prescribed by a physician
  2. Rate of delivery and mode of delivery must be part of a physician order for oxygen
  3. Oxygen may be ordered continuously or as needed for the patient
  4. One of the above; they are all true
A

4.

130
Q

Which of the following imaging procedures do not require the use of ionizing radiation to produce an image?

  1. Ultrasound
  2. Computed axial tomography
  3. MRI
A

1 and 3.

131
Q

X-ray verification of central venous catheter (CVC) placement should identify the catheter’s distal tip at the

  1. Vena cava near the right atrium
  2. Vena cava near the left atrirum
  3. Aorta near the right atrium
  4. Aorta near the left atrium
A

1.

132
Q

Pathogennic microorganisms that require contact precautions include

  1. MRSA
  2. Clostridium difficile (C. difficile)
  3. Hepatitis A
A

1,2, and 3.

133
Q

From the following, select the four circumstances that violate ARRT Rules of Ethics and can lead to ARRT professional sanction

  1. Soliciting/receiving examination information that uses language similar to that found on the certification examination
  2. Providing incorrect/misleading information regarding one’s ARRT credentials or qualification
  3. Assisting in billing practices that violate Federal or State law
  4. Inappropriate use of radiographic equipment
  5. Failure to respect the patient’s privacy
  6. Providing false information regarding Continuing Education (CE) compliance
A

1,2,3, and 6

134
Q

Fractures of two or more adjacent ribs is terms

  1. Pectus carinatum
  2. Pectus excavatum
  3. Flail chest
  4. Atelectasis
A

3.

135
Q

Example of unintentional misconduct include

  1. Battery
  2. Negligence
  3. Slander
  4. Malpractice
  5. False imprisonment
A

2 and 3

136
Q

X-ray verification of pacemaker leads placement should identify the catheter’s tip at the

  1. Apex of the right ventricle
  2. Apex of the left ventricle
  3. Right or left pulmonary artery
  4. Superior or inferior vena cava
A

1.

137
Q

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously include which of the following?

  1. A warm, flushed feeling
  2. Altered taste
  3. Itching
  4. Sneezing
  5. Nausea
A

1, 2, and 5

138
Q

If the patient suffers as a result f the radiographer’s actions, the radiographer can be charged with professional negligence. many courts will apply res ipsa loquitur.” “the thing speaks for itself.” Select the three circumstances from the following that could subject the radiographer to an accusation of negligence.

  1. Failure to explain the x-ray examination to the patient
  2. Imaging the wrong patient
  3. Cropping/masking an electric images to make it look collimator
  4. Modification of exposure indicator (EI) values
  5. Failure to address the patient in a professional manner
A

2,3, and 4

139
Q

Types of inflammatory bowel disease include

  1. Crohn’s disease
  2. Ulcerative colitis
  3. Intussusception
A

1 and 2

140
Q

Some proteins in latex can produce mild-to-severe allergic reactions. Which of the following medical equipment could contain latex?

  1. Stethoscope
  2. Enema tips
  3. Bed linen
  4. Disposable needles
  5. Bedpans
  6. Syringe
A

1,2, and 6

141
Q

Conditions requiring oxygen therapy include

  1. COPD
  2. Pneumonia
  3. Sleep apnea
A

1,2,3

142
Q

In which stage of infective microbes begin to multiple?

  1. Latent period
  2. Incubation period
  3. Disease phase
  4. Convalescent phase
A

2.

143
Q

A partially obstructed airway is clinically manifested in which of the following way(s)?

  1. Dysphagia
  2. Noisy, labored breathing
  3. Nail bed and lip cyanosis
A

2 and 3

144
Q

All of the following are correct concepts of good body mechanics during patient lifting/moving except

  1. The radiographer should stand with feet approximately 12 inches apart, with one foot slightly forward
  2. The body’s center of gravity should be positioned over its base of support
  3. The back should be kept straight; avoid twisting
  4. When carrying a heavy object, hold it away from the body.
A

4.

145
Q

What dose number 85 represent in the blood pressure reading 145/ 85 mm Hg

  1. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue
  2. The phase of contract of the cardiac muscle tissue
  3. Higher than desirable diastolic pressure
  4. Lower than normal diastolic pressure
A

1 and 3

146
Q

Facsimile transmission of health information is

  1. Not permitted
  2. Permitted for urgently needed patient care
  3. Permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification
A

2 and 3

147
Q

Forms of intentional misconduct include

  1. Slander
  2. Invasion of privacy
  3. Negligence
A

1 and 2

148
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to assisting a patient from a wheelchair to an x-ray table?

  1. The wheelchair should be parallel with the x-ray table
  2. The wheelchair should be angled 45 degrees to the x-ray table
  3. The wheelchair should directly face the x-ray table
  4. The wheelchair footrest should be folded down for foot support during transfer
A

2.

149
Q

Blood flow into the left ventricle via the

  1. Tricuspid valve during atrial systole
  2. Tricuspid valve during ventricular systole
  3. Bicuspid valve during atrial systole
  4. Bicuspid valve during ventricular systole
A

3

150
Q

A cathartic is used to

  1. Inhibit coughing
  2. Promote elimination of urine
  3. Stimulate defecation
  4. Induce vomiting
A

3.

151
Q

The belief that one’s own cultural ways are superior to any other is termed?

  1. Ethnology
  2. Ethnobiology
  3. Ethnocentrism
  4. Ethnography
A

3.

152
Q

The type of shock often associated with pulmonary embolism or myocardial infraction is classified as

  1. Neurogenic
  2. Cardiogenic
  3. Hypovolemic
  4. Septic
A

2.

153
Q

Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media include

  1. Sneezing
  2. Hoarseness
  3. Wheezing
A

1,2, and 3

154
Q

An MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient who has

  1. A herniated disk
  2. Cochlear implant
  3. Dental filing
  4. Subdural bleeding
A

2.

155
Q

Blood pressure within vessels is higher during

  1. Ventricular diastole
  2. Ventricular systole
  3. Atrial diastole
  4. Atrial systole
A

2.

156
Q

Following pacemaker insertion, care must be taken to

  1. Keep the patient flat for 12 h
  2. Keep the patient Trendelenburg for 12 h
  3. Avoid elevating/ abducting the patient’s right arm for 24 h
  4. Avoid elevating/abduction the patient’s left arm for 24 h
A

4

157
Q

Procedures requiring intravascular iodinated contrast agent for patients being treated with metformin for type 2 diabetes, with no indication of acute kidney disease (AKI) or severe chronic kidney disease, should receive which of the following instructions?

  1. Do not discontinue metformin before or after receiving contrast
  2. Renal function reassessment not required following the examination
  3. Temporarily discontinue metformin at time of (or prior to) the procedure
A

1 and 2

158
Q

All the following are forms of mechanical obstruction seen in neonates or infants, except

  1. paralytic ileus
  2. Meconium ileus
  3. Volvulus
  4. Intussusception
A

1.

159
Q

The pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart is called

  1. Tachycardia
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Angina pectoris
  4. Syncope
A

3.

160
Q

The advantage of using nonionic, water-soluble contrast media include

  1. Cost- containment benefits
  2. Low toxicity
  3. Fewer adverse reaction
A

2 and 3

161
Q

A vasovagal response experienced after injection of a contrast agent is characterized by all of the following symptoms, except

  1. Nausea
  2. Syncope
  3. Hypertension
  4. Anxiety
A

3.

162
Q

The cycle of infection includes which of the following components?

  1. Reservoir of infection
  2. Susceptible host
  3. Mode of transmission
A

1,2, and 3

163
Q

While performing mobile radiography on a patient, you note that the requisition is for a chest image to check placement of a Swan-Ganz catheter. A Swan Ganz catheter is a/an

  1. A pacemaker
  2. Chest tube
  3. IV catheter
  4. Urinary cathefter
A

3.

164
Q

A patient who is warm, flushed, or feverish is said to be

  1. Diaphoretic
  2. Febrile
  3. Cyanotic
  4. Anxious
A

2.

165
Q

Disease that require droplet precautions include

  1. Rubella
  2. Mumps
  3. Influenza
A

1,2, and 3

166
Q 
When a GI series has been requested on a patient with a suspected perforated ulcer, the type of contrast medium that should be used is
1. A thin barium sulfate suspension
2. A thick barium sulfate suspension
3. Water- soluble iodinated media
4/ Oil-based iodinated media
A

3.

167
Q

Nitroglycerin is used

  1. To relieve pain from angina pectoris
  2. To prevent a heart attack
  3. As a vasoconstrictor
  4. To increase blood pressure
A

1.

168
Q

Select the three symptoms reactions that would be classified as mild anaphylactic symptoms.

  1. Tingling/itching at injection site
  2. Nasal congestion
  3. Wheezing
  4. Anxious feeling
A

1,2, and 4

169
Q

Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or a cardiac arrest?

  1. Nitroglycerin
  2. Epinephrine
  3. Hydrocortisone
  4. Digitoxin
A

2.

170
Q

Which blood vessels are best suited for determination of pulse rate?

  1. Superficial arteries
  2. Deep arteries
  3. Superficial veins
  4. Deep vein
A

1.

171
Q

Symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply include

  1. Diaphoresis
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Retraction of intercostal space
A

2 and 3

172
Q

The controlled Substance Act divides drugs and other controlled substances into five schedules according to

  1. Dosage form
  2. Actions
  3. Potential for abuse
  4. Generic name
A

3.

173
Q

which of the following is/are symptoms of shock?

  1. Pallor and weakness
  2. Increased pulse
  3. Fever
A

1 and 2

174
Q

The practice that is used to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria is termed

  1. Antiseptic
  2. Disinfection
  3. Sterilization
  4. Medical asepsis
A

1

175
Q

Which of the following medical equipment is used o determine blood pressure?

  1. Pulse oximeter
  2. Stethoscope
  3. Sphygmomanometer
A

2 and 3

176
Q

Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
  3. Rubeola
A

1,2, and 3

177
Q

Nosocomial infections are those acquired from

  1. Health care facilities
  2. Physicians
  3. Inanimate objects
  4. Insects
A

1

178
Q

Tracheostomy is indicated in case of tracheal obstruction when the obstruction is located

  1. Below the level of the larynx
  2. Above the level of the larynx
  3. Inferior to the carina
  4. In the right primary bronchus
A

2

179
Q

In the studies on death and dying, Dr. Elizabeth Kubler Ross described the first stage of the grieving process as

  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
A

1.

180
Q

The standard of Ethics is made up of

  1. Code of Ethics
  2. Rules of Ethics
  3. Patient’s Bill of Right
  4. Patient care Partnership
A

1 and 2

181
Q 
Which of the following are enteral routes of drug administration?
1. Intrathecal
2. Rectal
3. Buccal
4. Oral
5, Nasogastric
A

2, 4, and 5

182
Q

A localized dilatation or bulging in a blood vessel wall is a/an

  1. cyst
  2. Thrombus
  3. Aneurysm
  4. Angina
A

3

183
Q

Qualities of iodinated contrast agents that are less likely to contribute to side effects and reactions include all of the following, except

  1. Low osmolality
  2. High miscibility
  3. Low toxicity
  4. High viscosity
A

4

184
Q

An abnormal acquired immune response to a substance that would not usually trigger a reaction called a/an

  1. Allergy
  2. toxin
  3. Allergen
  4. Antidote
A

1.

185
Q

A diabetic patient who has taken insulin prior to a fasting radiologic examination is susceptible to

  1. Hypoglycemic reaction
  2. Hyperglycemic reaction
  3. Dyspnea
  4. Dysphagia
A

1.

186
Q

If the patient is not capable of making decision regarding his or her health, those rights can be exercised on their behalf by

  1. Designated proxy
  2. Designated surrogate
  3. Parent or spouse
A

1 and 2

187
Q

Which two of the following rules most likely apply when transporting a 3 year old children from the Pediatric floor to the Imaging department?

  1. The child can be carefully carried
  2. The child should be transported in a crib
  3. The child should be transported on a stretcher
  4. If transported via crib, the side rails must be up
  5. The child may be transported on a wheelchair
A

2 and 4

188
Q

Which of the following can be transmitted via infected blood?

  1. HBV
  2. HIV
  3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A

1 and 2

189
Q

Organize the Cycle of Infection components listed below

  1. Portal of entry
  2. Reservoir of infection
  3. Infectious organism
  4. Mode of transmission
  5. Susceptible host
  6. Portal of exit
A

3,2,6,5,1,4

IR Exit Sitting entry Med

190
Q

Methods of sterilization include

  1. 5 min in boiling water
  2. Steam under pressure
  3. Ethylene oxide
A

2 and 3

191
Q

The most frequently used intravenous injection site, which is an anastomosis between other veins, is the

  1. Basilic vein
  2. Cephalic Vein
  3. Median cubital vein
  4. Median antecubital vein
A

3.

192
Q

Therapeutic communication techniques include all of the following, except

  1. making observation
  2. Restating the main idea
  3. Giving advice
  4. Establishing guidelines
  5. Defending
A

3 and 5

193
Q

The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual’s heath care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the

  1. Advance health care directive
  2. Living will
  3. Health care proxy
A

1,2, and 3

194
Q

What is the most frequently used device to supplement the oxygen in room air?

  1. Nasal cannula
  2. Mechanical ventilator
  3. Venturi mask
  4. Partial rebreathing mask
A

1.

195
Q

Suction may be required when the patient

  1. Has excessive or very viscous secretions
  2. is unconscious
  3. Experience ineffective coughing
A

1,2, and 3

196
Q

Instruments required to assess vital signs include

  1. A stethoscope
  2. A sphygmomanometer
  3. A watch with a second hand
A

1,2, and 3

197
Q

Example of central venous catheters (CVCs) include the

  1. Port A Cath
  2. Swan Ganz
  3. Raaf
  4. PICC
  5. Hickman
A

1,3,4,and 5

198
Q

Pacemakers are most often used to treat

  1. Tachycardia
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Ventricular fibrillation
  4. PVC
A

2

199
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to treat dysrhythmias?

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Lidocaine
  3. Nitroglycerin
  4. Verapmil
A

2

200
Q

A medication used to reduce fever is called

  1. Emetic
  2. Antihistamine
  3. Antipyretic
  4. Diyretic
A

3.

Patient care (6 decks)

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