Private M&A Flashcards
Are the heads of terms binding?
The heads of terms will include a combination of binding and non binding clauses.
No, none of the clauses in the heads of terms are binding
Yes, all the clauses in the heads of terms are binding
The heads of terms will include a combination of binding and non binding clauses.
Correct
What preliminary documentation will the buyer and seller usually enter into in a bilateral sale?
Heads of terms, break fee agreement and confidentiality agreement
Heads of terms, confidentiality agreement and exclusivity agreement
Heads of terms, confidentiality agreement and exclusivity agreement
Correct
What type of acquisitions does FSMA apply to?
Business sales because a group of assets is a specified investment
Business sales because a group of assets is a specified activity
Share sales because shares as defined as a specified investment
Share sales because shares as defined as a specified investment
Correct
Correct
You are a solicitor in the corporate department of Price Prior. Your client wishes to buy 50% of the shares in a company as an investment. Your client has instructed you to advise her on the acquisition (including on the merits).
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding authorisation under FSMA?
Shares are not a specified investment, therefore FSMA does not apply.
FSMA does apply and you will need to be authorised by the FCA to act for the client on the acquisition.
You will not need to be authorised by the FCA to act for the client because your advice will be excluded from FSMA under Article 70 RAO.
You will not need to be authorised by the FCA to act for the client because your advice will be excluded from FSMA under Article 70 RAO.
Correct
Correct
A private limited company would like to sell the entire issued share capital of its wholly owned subsidiary. The Board of the seller have indicated that they wish to advertise in local newspapers and magazines to raise interest from other small local companies who may wish to purchase the shares.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the position?
Unless this advertisement was approved by an ‘authorised person’ it would be prohibited under FSMA.
Although the sale is likely to constitute a ‘regulated activity’, an exemption would be available due to the proportion of shares being sold.
If the proposed sale goes ahead it would be prohibited by FSMA because it would constitute a ‘regulated activity’.
Although the sale is likely to constitute a ‘regulated activity’, an exemption would be available due to the proportion of shares being sold.
Correct
Who is a ‘processor’?
An identified or identifiable natural person (a living individual) to whom personal data relates.
Someone who processes personal data on behalf of a controller.
Someone who decides the purposes and means of the processing of personal data.
Someone who processes personal data on behalf of a controller.
Correct
What is the lawful and fair processing principle?
Personal data must be processed lawfully, fairly and in a transparent manner in relation to the data subject
Personal data must be accurate and, where necessary, kept up to date
Personal data must be processed in a manner that ensures appropriate security of the personal data
Personal data must be limited to what is necessary in relation to the purposes for which the data is processed
Personal data must be processed lawfully, fairly and in a transparent manner in relation to the data subject
Correct
Which of the following statements is correct in respect of the regulatory consents required for a change of control?
If the target is a financial services firm regulated by the Prudential Regulation Authority, consent for the change in control must be obtained from PRA
If the target offers financial services, consent for the change in control must be obtained from the Financial Conduct Authority.
If the target offers financial services, consent for the change in control must be obtained from the Bank of England.
If the target offers financial services, consent for the change in control must be obtained from the Secretary of State.
If the target is a financial services firm regulated by the Prudential Regulation Authority, consent for the change in control must be obtained from PRA
If the target is a financial services firm regulated by the Prudential Regulation Authority, consent for the change in control must be obtained from PRA
In what circumstances will shareholder consent be required for an acquisition? Please select the statement that best explains the position
Where there is a provision in the Companies Act 2006, any shareholder’s agreement or the articles of the company.
Where the seller, the buyer or the target is a public company
Where the buyer, the target or the seller is a listed company
Where there is a provision in the Companies Act 2006, any shareholder’s agreement or the articles of the company.
Correct
A listed company is entering into negotiations to acquire a private limited company. What disclosure obligations does the listed company have?
There is no obligation on a listed company to disclose inside information for reasons of confidentiality until ongoing negotiations are concluded.
There is a general obligation under UK MAR on a listed company to disclose inside information unless such disclosure would affect the ongoing negotiations.
There is a general obligation under the Companies Act 2006 on a listed company to disclose inside information if it may have a significant effect on the company’s share price.
There is a general obligation under UK MAR on a listed company to disclose inside information if the information is not already public knowledge and it may have a significant effect on the company’s share price.
There is a general obligation under UK MAR on a listed company to disclose inside information if the information is not already public knowledge and it may have a significant effect on the company’s share price.
Correct
What are the procedural requirements for a class 2 transaction?
An explanatory circular (approved by the FCA) must be sent to shareholders.
Prior shareholder approval of the transaction must be obtained by an ordinary resolution.
A Regulatory Information Service must be notified and provided with prescribed details of the transaction.
A Regulatory Information Service must be notified and provided with prescribed details of the transaction.
Correct
How can common control be acquired in a merger?
Being appointed as a director
Having an ability to exercise material influence
Acquiring any number of shares
Having an ability to exercise material influence
Correct
In what circumstances might a merger be reviewed by the CMA?
If the merged entity has a share of supply in the UK of 20% or more and the transaction increases the overall share.
The value of the turnover in the UK of the target exceeds £70 million.
The value of the turnover in the UK of the target exceeds £70 million.
Correct
When can a call-in notice be issued?
A call-in notice may be issued at any time while a transaction is in progress or contemplation, or within five years of the ISU becoming aware of a completed transaction.
A call-in notice may be issued at any time while a transaction is in progress or contemplation, or within six months of the ISU becoming aware of a completed transaction, provided this occurs within five years of its completion.
A call-in notice may only be issued after completion of the transaction but within six months of the ISU becoming aware of a completed transaction, provided this occurs within five years of its completion.
A call-in notice may be issued at any time while a transaction is in progress or contemplation, or within six months of the ISU becoming aware of a completed transaction, provided this occurs within five years of its completion.
correct
What are the sanctions if a notifiable transaction subject to mandatory clearance is completed without prior approval?
The transaction cannot be avoided; the directors have committed a criminal offence and are potentially subject to civil fines; the acquirer is subject to civil sanctions and potentially criminal liability.
The transaction is automatically void ; the directors have committed a criminal offence and are potentially subject to civil fines; the acquirer is subject to civil sanctions and potentially criminal liability.
The transaction is voidable at the instance of the company; the directors have committed a criminal offence and are potentially subject to civil fines; the acquirer is subject to civil sanctions and potentially criminal liability.
The transaction is automatically void ; the directors have committed a criminal offence and are potentially subject to civil fines; the acquirer is subject to civil sanctions and potentially criminal liability.
correct
A public limited company (‘Buyer’) is acquiring the shares in a private limited company (‘Target’). The Buyer is obtaining a loan from Barkers Bank to fund the acquisition. The bank requires security from the Buyer and the Target.
Can the Target and the Buyer grant the security to the bank?
None of the security can be given because the security from the Buyer and the Target will constitute unlawful financial assistance
Only the Buyer can give the security as the security given by the Target will constitute unlawful financial assistance.
The security from the Buyer and the Target will not constitute unlawful financial assistance so it can be given to the bank
The security from the Buyer and the Target will not constitute unlawful financial assistance so it can be given to the bank
Correct
Which one of the following statement describes one the conditions required to be a person with significant control?
The person otherwise has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, a degree of influence or control over the company;
The person holds the right, directly or indirectly, to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of the company;
The person holds, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the shares in the company. This is calculated by reference to the nominal value of the shares.
The person holds the right, directly or indirectly, to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of the company
Correct
What is the effect of Business Asset Disposal Relief?
It BADR applies then any gain on the sale of shares is not treated as a chargeable gain and no tax is payable.
It reduces the rate of CGT chargeable on a chargeable gain to 10% for an individual who is a higher or additional rate taxpayer
It reduces the rate of corporation tax chargeable on a chargeable gain to 10% for a company
It reduces the rate of CGT chargeable on a chargeable gain to 10% for an individual who is a higher or additional rate taxpayer
Correct
A private limited company acquired 10% of the issued share capital in another private limited company seven years ago. Recently it sold half of these shares making a chargeable gain. Will the disposal qualify for SSE?
No, because the disposal related only 5% of the shares in the company
Yes, because the company has owned 10% of the shares for at least 2 years.
Yes, because the company has owned 10% of the shares for 12 months consecutive months in the last 6 years.
No, because for SSE to apply the company must own at least 50% of the shares in the company
Yes, because the company has owned 10% of the shares for 12 months consecutive months in the last 6 years.
Correct
Why does a buyer in an acquisition need to conduct due diligence?
So the buyer’s solicitors can establish what corporate support it will require from specialist departments within the buyer’s law firm.
So the buyer can decide whether to structure the acquisition as a share sale or an asset sale.
The common law rule ‘caveat emptor’ applies to all acquisitions and therefore the buyer must conduct a thorough investigation of the company or business it is going to purchase.
The common law rule ‘caveat emptor’ applies to all acquisitions and therefore the buyer must conduct a thorough investigation of the company or business it is going to purchase.
Correct
Which of the following statements best explains the lawful and fair processing principle?
Personal data must be processed lawfully, fairly and in a transparent manner. The seller cannot disclose personal data to the buyer
Personal data must be processed lawfully, fairly and in a transparent manner. Individuals must be notified that their data will be used and the purpose for which it will be used.
Personal data must be processed lawfully, fairly and in a transparent manner. This means the seller should anonymise the personal data before disclosing to the buyer.
Personal data must be processed lawfully, fairly and in a transparent manner. The buyer should sign an undertaking ensuring the confidentiality of the information.
Personal data must be processed lawfully, fairly and in a transparent manner. Individuals must be notified that their data will be used and the purpose for which it will be used.
Correct
In a share sale via auction the seller wishes to provide information and documents to prospective buyers who are based in different geographical locations. The timetable for completion is short and therefore the due diligence exercise must be completed as quickly as possible. What should the seller do?
Set up a virtual data room which can be accessed remotely.
Complete a due diligence questionnaire and post the documents to the prospective buyers.
Set up a physical data room at the offices of the seller’s solicitors.
Set up a virtual data room at the offices of the seller’s solicitors.
Set up a virtual data room which can be accessed remotely.
Correct
Why might a buyer of the shares in a target company want to check the constitution of the target company as part of its due diligence?
To check that the directors of the buyer have the authority to buy the shares in the target company.
To check that the target company owns all of the assets it says it does.
To check that the target company is validly incorporated.
To check that the target company is validly incorporated.
Correct
The requirement that data must be processed in a manner that ensures the appropriate security of the personal data is an example of which principle?
The second principle of processing data, the ‘purpose limitation’ principle
The sixth principle of processing data, the ‘integrity and confidentiality’ principle
The third principle of processing data, the ‘data minimisation’ principle
The sixth principle of processing data, the ‘integrity and confidentiality’ principle
Correct
The parties in a share sale have agreed to issue a privacy notice to the target’s employees in order to provide certain fair processing information. What information should be included in the privacy notice?
The fact that the parties are in negotiations to acquire the target company.
The name of the buyer and details of the transaction
The fact that their data will be processed, and the purpose for which their data will be processed.
The fact that their data will be processed, and the purpose for which their data will be processed.
Correct
You act for the buyer in a share acquisition, and you would like to establish what registered IP rights are owned by Target in the UK. What should you do?
Carry out a search at Companies House
Review Target’s statutory books
Carry out a search at the UK Intellectual Property Office
Carry out a search at the UK Intellectual Property Office
Correct
You are acting for the buyer in a share acquisition. Target has the benefit of a licence to use IP rights granted by a third party. What should you do to ensure Target can continue to use the licensed IP rights after completion?
Check the terms of the licence to see if there are any restrictions on assignment.
Check the terms of the licence to see if it contains a change of control clause.
Check the terms of the licence to see if there are any restrictions on novation
Negotiate a new licence between the target and the third party.
Check the terms of the licence to see if it contains a change of control clause.
Correct
The marketing director of a company instructs a consultancy firm to create training materials for the company’s employees. Which of the following statements best explains who owns the copyright in the training materials?
Copyright in any work created by a consultant on behalf of a company will belong to the company unless the consultancy agreement states otherwise.
Copyright in any work created by a consultant for the benefit of the employees of the company, will belong to the employee unless the consultancy agreement states otherwise.
Copyright in any work created by a consultant acting on instructions by a director of the company, will belong to the director unless the director’s service contract states otherwise.
Copyright in any work created by a consultant will usually belong to the consultant unless otherwise agreed in the consultancy agreement.
Copyright in any work created by a consultant will usually belong to the consultant unless otherwise agreed in the consultancy agreement.
Correct
You act for the buyer in relation to a share sale. The target and the seller’s group companies use a registered trade mark in relation to key products. The seller owns the trade mark. The target wants to continue to use the trade mark in relation to a different class of new products after completion. How can this best be achieved?
The seller can grant a licence to the buyer to use the trade mark in relation to the new products.
The trade mark can be assigned to the target so that it can be used for the different class of new products whilst use by the seller’s group companies is restricted to other classes of goods.
The seller can grant a licence to the target to use the trade mark in relation to the new products.
The trade mark can be assigned to the target so that it can be used for the different class of new products whilst use by the seller’s group companies is restricted to other classes of goods.
Correct
You act for the buyer in a share sale. The target uses IP rights granted to it by a third party under licence. The licence does not contain a change of control clause. Can the target continue to use the IP rights?
The target can continue to use the IP rights provided the licence is novated to the buyer.
The target cannot use the IP rights because a change of ownership automatically terminates the licence.
The target can continue to use the IP rights provided the licence is assigned to the buyer.
The target can continue to use the IP rights after completion because a change in ownership of target does not trigger termination of the licence.
The target can continue to use the IP rights after completion because a change in ownership of target does not trigger termination of the licence.
Correct
You act for the buyer in relation to the acquisition of the business and assets of Company A. The buyer is part of a group of companies. Company A uses a logo on all its promotional materials. The buyer would like all of its group companies to use this logo following completion. Your enquiries reveal that the logo is owned by Company A but it has not been registered. Which of the following statements represent the best advice to the buyer?
Company A should register the logo as a trade mark as soon as possible at the Intellectual Property Office. Once registered Company A should assign it to the buyer.
The buyer should seek an exclusive licence to use the logo from Company A.
The buyer should register the logo as a trade mark at the Intellectual Property Office
Company A should register the logo as a trade mark before granting an exclusive licence to use the logo to the buyer.
Company A should register the logo as a trade mark as soon as possible at the Intellectual Property Office. Once registered Company A should assign it to the buyer.
Correct
Which of the following statements best describes constructive dismissal?
Constructive dismissal occurs where the employee was dismissed and the employer did not have a fair reason for the dismissal and the dismissal was not fair in all the circumstances.
Constructive dismissal occurs where the employer has dismissed the employee in breach of the terms of their employment contract.
Constructive dismissal occurs when the employee leaves their employment in response to a fundamental breach of their employment contract by the employer.
Constructive dismissal occurs when the employee leaves their employment in response to a fundamental breach of their employment contract by the employer.
Correct
An employer would like to dismiss an employee. The employee’s employment contract stipulates that they should have 3 months’ notice. The employment contract also includes restrictive covenants, but it does not include a PILON clause. Which of the following statements best describes the position for the employer?
The employer must give the employee 3 months’ notice. The restrictive covenants will be enforceable provided they go no further than is reasonably necessary to protect a legitimate interest of the business .
If the employer gives the employee less than 3 months’ notice, then this will be a breach of the employment contract. However, the restrictive covenants will be enforceable provided they provided they go no further than is reasonably necessary to protect a legitimate interest of the business.
The employer must give the employee 3 months’ notice but the restrictive covenants are likely to be void and unenforceable.
The employer can make a payment in lieu of notice to the employee. The restrictive covenants will be enforceable provided they go no further than is reasonably necessary to protect a legitimate interest of the business.
The employer must give the employee 3 months’ notice. The restrictive covenants will be enforceable provided they go no further than is reasonably necessary to protect a legitimate interest of the business .
Correct
You act for the buyer in relation to the acquisition of the business and assets of Company A. The buyer intends to change the terms and conditions of employment of the transferred employees to harmonise them with the terms and conditions enjoyed by the buyer’s existing employees. Which of the following statements represents the best advice to the buyer?
Any changes to the employment terms of the transferred employees where the principal reason for the change is the transfer, will be void, unless the variation is for an ETO reason and both the buyer and employees consent to the change
The buyer can make changes to the terms and conditions of the employment of the transferred provided they all agree to it.
The buyer cannot make any changes to the terms and conditions of employment of the transferred employees.
Any changes to the employment terms of the transferred employees where the principal reason for the change is the transfer, will be void, unless the variation is for an ETO reason. There is no need to obtain the consent of the employees.
Any changes to the employment terms of the transferred employees where the principal reason for the change is the transfer, will be void, unless the variation is for an ETO reason and both the buyer and employees consent to the change
Correct
Your client is acquiring the entire issued share capital of Company B. Should your client carry out due diligence relating to the employees?
Yes, because your client will become the new employer of the employees of Company B pursuant to TUPE and therefore will assume all employer related liabilities.
No, because there is no change of employer following the acquisition so your client will not assume any liabilities.
Yes, because your client will become the new owner of Company B and therefore will indirectly assume any employment related liabilities.
Yes, because your client will become the new owner of Company B and therefore will indirectly assume any employment related liabilities.
Correct
Your client is acquiring the business and assets of the manufacturing division of Company C, who will retain the retail division. Your client would like your advice on which employees will transfer to it following completion.
Your client can decide which employees it would like to take.
All the employees employed in the manufacturing division immediately before the transfer .
All the employees of Company C.
Only the employees of Company C who want to transfer to your client.
All the employees employed in the manufacturing division immediately before the transfer .
correct
You act for the buyer in relation to the purchase of the entire issued share capital shares in Company D. The buyer wants to change the terms and conditions of employment of Company D’s employees to put them on the same terms and conditions as its existing workforce. What advice should you give to the buyer?
The buyer will need the consent of the employees to change the terms and conditions of their employment.
The buyer does not need the consent of the employees to make changes to the terms and conditions of their employment.
The buyer will need the consent of the employees to change the terms and conditions of their employment and the variation must be for an ETO reason.
The buyer cannot make any changes to the terms and conditions of employment of the employees.
The buyer will need the consent of the employees to change the terms and conditions of their employment.
correct
What type of occupational pension scheme do employers prefer and why?
Employers prefer a defined benefit scheme as it is cheaper to fund than other types of pension scheme.
Employers prefer a stakeholder pension scheme as it allows employers to make flexible contributions.
Employers prefer a defined contribution scheme as they have more certainty because their liability is fixed.
Employers prefer a defined contribution scheme as they have more certainty because their liability is fixed.
Correct
Your client is buying the business and assets of Company C who operates a personal pension scheme for its employees. What pension obligations does your client have following completion?
Your client can choose to take a transfer of all the rights and liabilities under the personal pension scheme, or it can provide an alternative scheme to its employees.
The personal pension scheme remains with Company C. Your client must provide the same pension benefits to the employees
TUPE will apply to the transaction with the effect that all the employees’ contractual rights and liabilities under the personal pension scheme will transfer to your client.
The personal pension scheme remains with Company C. Your client must provide a scheme to the employees, but it is not obliged to match Company C’s scheme.
TUPE will apply to the transaction with the effect that all the employees’ contractual rights and liabilities under the personal pension scheme will transfer to your client.
Correct
The Target company participates in a group final salary scheme which is in deficit. What does this mean for the Target if it leaves the group?
The target may be liable for a proportion of the deficit when it leaves the group.
The target will be liable for the whole deficit when it leaves the group.
The target can exclude its liability for the deficit in the acquisition agreement.
The target will not have any liability for the deficit when it leaves the group.
The target may be liable for a proportion of the deficit when it leaves the group.
Correct
What action may the buyer have against its solicitors if they do not properly investigate the title to the property?
The buyer has a potential action for negligence/breach of contract against its own solicitors if they do not investigate and report properly
The buyer has a potential action for breach of warranty against its own solicitors if they do not investigate and report properly
The buyer has a potential action for negligent misstatement against its own solicitors if they do not investigate and report properly
The buyer has a potential action for negligence/breach of contract against its own solicitors if they do not investigate and report properly
Correct
Who is liable for the costs of cleaning up contaminated land?
The owner who was responsible for the original contamination
The owner even if the owner was not responsible for the original contamination.
The owner even if the owner was not responsible for the original contamination.
Correct
Which of the following statement best describes a horizontal agreement?
A horizontal agreement operates at the same level of the supply chain
A horizontal agreement operates at different levels of the supply chain
A horizontal agreement operates at the same level of the supply chain
Correct
What is the responsibility of the CMA in reviewing a relevant merger?
To assess whether the relevant merger may affect trade within the UK
To assess whether a relevant merger could lead to a substantial lessening of competition
To assess whether the transaction leading to the relevant merger contains hardcore restrictions
To assess whether a relevant merger could lead to a substantial lessening of competition
Correct
Which model of taking goods and services to market might involve a vertical agreement?
A licencing agreement
Appointing an agent
Direct sales to customers
A distribution agreement
A distribution agreement
Correct
Each of the parties to a vertical agreement has a market share in their own market of more than 30%. The vertical agreement affects trade in the UK and has the effect of restricting trade in the UK. Which of the following statement best describes the legal position?
The agreement may be in breach of s. 2 of the Competition Act 1998 and would therefore be void.
Provided the vertical agreement does not include “hardcore restrictions” , it will be exempt from the provisions of s. 2 of the Competition Act 1998
The agreement may be in breach of s. 2 of the Competition Act 1998 and would therefore be void.
correct
What contractual protections should the buyer seek to protect the know-how of the target?
Restrictive covenants
Indemnities
Warranties
Title guarantee
Restrictive covenants
Correct
Which of the following statements sets out a key issue that needs to be taken into account when drafting restrictive covenants?
The covenants must be reasonable in duration which means less than 2 years.
The covenants must be reasonable for the protection of a legitimate interest of the seller
The covenants must be reasonable in geographical scope
The covenants must be reasonable in geographical scope
correct
A buyer is seeking a warranty that that the target is not involved in any disputes with any of its customers. Should the seller give this warranty?
Yes, the seller can give this warranty as it relates to matters within the seller’s knowledge
No, the seller should not give this warranty as it is too wide and should be amended.
No, the seller should not give this warranty as it is too wide and should be amended.
Correct
The buyer is seeking a warranty that all of the target’s book debts are recoverable. Should the seller give this warranty?
Yes, the seller should give this warranty as this relates to matters within the seller’s knowledge
No, the seller should not give the warranty as it relates to matters outside the seller’s control.
No, the seller should not give the warranty as it relates to matters outside the seller’s control.
correct
A buyer is seeking a warranty that that none of the target’s directors will resign following completion of the acquisition. Should the seller give this warranty?
No, the seller cannot give the warranty as worded and it should be qualified by the seller’s awareness after making enquiries
Yes, the seller can give this warranty as worded provided the seller first makes enquiries of the target’s directors
No, the seller cannot give the warranty as worded and it should be qualified by the seller’s awareness after making enquiries
correct
The case of Infiniteland says that when corporate solicitors negotiate warranties and disclosures in an acquisition transaction they must consider the standard of disclosure and the Buyer’s knowledge of a breach of warranty claim.
False
True
True
Correct
Infiniteland suggests that the way the Buyer’s knowledge is dealt with, depends on what was agreed in the acquisition agreement. What does constructive knowledge mean?
Buyer’s own knowledge
Knowledge of Buyer’s agents
Knowledge the Buyer should have
Knowledge the Buyer should have
Correct
Which of the following options are correct in clarifying what form the Disclosure Letter takes?
The General Disclosures are found in the second part of the Disclosure Letter.
As a letter from the Buyer’s solicitors to the Seller’s solicitors.
The Disclosure Letter will make reference to the Disclosure Bundle.
The Specific Disclosures are found in the first part of the Disclosure Letter.
The Disclosure Letter will make reference to the Disclosure Bundle.
Correct