Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VMCB121 (3rd LE) > Principles of Microbial Control > Flashcards

Principles of Microbial Control Flashcards

11/18 slides done

1
Q

Infectious agents of animals can be transmitted, not only by direct contact but
also via?

A

environmental contamination of inanimate objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

These are required for prevention of infectious disease spread.

A

Effective control measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Examples of Effective Control Measures

A
  1. Vaccination
  2. Chemotherapy and chemoprophylaxis
  3. Disinfection and sterilization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The most preferred method for prevention of infectious disease spread.

A

Vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Method (s) that can be applied selectively for prevention of infectious disease spread.

A

Chemotherapy
Chemoprophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

These are among the important elements to prevent microbial contamination, depending on the etiological agent.

A

Disinfection
Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

These are common procedures applied for microbial control.

A
  • Sterilization
  • Disinfection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

It is required for surgical and laboratory instruments

A

Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

It is required for kennels, laboratories and infected premises as well as farms.

A

Disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It is the process whereby all viable microorganisms are eliminated or destroyed, including microbial spores.

A

Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

It involves the destruction or significant reduction of pathogenic organisms associated with inanimate objects or surfaces, by chemical or physical methods.

A

Disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

It involves the inactivation and destruction of chemical means of microbes usually directly associated with an animal or tissue.

A

Antisepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

These are used interchangeably.

A

Disinfectants or antiseptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inhibition of growth and reversible

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It causes the death of microorganisms, and it is irreversible.

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Physical Methods (completely free of microorganisms) in killing bacteria

A
  1. Boiling
  2. Steam under pressure
  3. Steam
  4. Pasteurization
  5. Ultraviolet Light
  6. Ionizing Radiation
  7. Filtration
  8. Microwave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

It’s a method that required to be get the temperature up to 100 degrees Celsius to kill the vegetative form and spores.

It should also last for 5 minutes.

A

Boiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Physical method that kills vegetative form and spores for five minutes.

A

Boiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many minutes does Boiling require to kill vegetative forms and spores?

A

5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

It is also termed as “autoclaving”

A

Steam under pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The other term for steam under pressure.

A

Autoclaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In this method, the temperature should go up to 121 degrees Celsius by applying pressure for 15 minutes.

A

Steam under pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In steam under pressure or autoclaving method, what should be the temperature and how long should the method last?

A

121 degrees Celsius
15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

It is another term for “Tyndallization”

A

Steaming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The other term for Steaming

A

“Tyndallization”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In this method, 100 degrees Celsius steam is applied for 1 hour and 3 days.

A

Steaming / Tyndallization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The temperature that steaming / Tyndallization must go through to steam.

A

100 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

It is referred to heating of milk and liquid products as well as other packaged and non-packaged products.

A

Pasteurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How long should Tyndallization/ steaming take place?

A

1 hour and 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Its temperature is mild and less than 100 degrees Celsius

A

Pasteurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the temperature for Pasteurization?

A

less than 100 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

It is defined as low energy radiation.

A

Ultraviolet light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

It is equivalent to 2500 A wl

A

Ultraviolet light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

It interferes with the base pairing of DNA

A

Ultraviolet light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

X, Gamma rays, that damage DNA

A

Ionizing radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

It removes bacteria of pore size 0.45 micrometer

A

Filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The pore size of bacteria that Filtration removes.

A

0.45 micrometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

It generates heat that kills the bacteria

A

Microwave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

More selective Chemical methods to kill bacteria

A
  1. Disinfectants
  2. Salts
  3. Alkaline agents
  4. Hydrogen peroxide
  5. Detergents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

It removes majority of infectious agents

A

Disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Examples of Disinfectants

A
  • Alcohol
  • Phenolics
  • Quaternary ammonium compounds
  • Oxidizing agents
  • Halogens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

These are organic mercury compounds such as mercuro-chrome and thimerosal, that are less toxic than other mercuric compounds

A

Salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Examples of organic mercury compounds (salts)

A
  • Mercuro-chrome
  • Thimerosal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which are more toxic? Organic mercury compounds or other mercury compounds?

A

Other mercury compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

These are solutions used in veterinary medicine for disinfecting stables and premises.

A

Lye (sodium hydroxide) solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Lye (sodium hydroxide) solutions is an example of what chemical method?

A

Usage of Alkaline agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This method include Lye (sodium hydroxide) solutions for disinfecting stables and premises.

A

Alkaline agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

It is used for cleaning and disinfecting wounds.

A

Hydrogen peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The percentage of the hydrogen peroxide aqueous solution for cleaning and disinfecting wounds.

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

It acts on bacterial cell membrane.

A

Detergents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Examples of detergents include

A
  • Cationic detergents
  • Anionic detergents
  • Aldehydes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Examples of Common Disinfectants

A
  1. Aldehydes
  2. Hypochlorites
  3. Alcohols
  4. Phenolics
  5. Iodophors
  6. Quaternary ammonium compounds
  7. Alkalis
  8. Acids
  9. Biguanides
  10. Oxidizing agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Example of Aldehyde disinfectants

A
  • Formaldehyde
  • Glutaraldehyde
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Example of Hypochlorite Disinfectants

A
  • Sodium hypochlorite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Example of Alcohol disinfectant

A

70% aqueous solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Example of Phenolics Disinfectant

A
  • TekTrol
  • One Stroke Environ
  • Pine-Sol
57
Q

Example of Iodophors disinfectants

A

Povidone-iodine

58
Q

Example of Quaternary ammonium compounds

A
  • Roccal
  • DiQuat
59
Q

Example of Alkalis Disinfectants

A
  • Sodium hydroxide
  • Calcium oxide
  • Ammonium hydroxide
60
Q

Example of Biguanides Disinfectant

A

Chlorhexidine

61
Q

Example of Acidic Disinfectants

A
  • Acetic acid
  • Citric acid
62
Q

Example of Oxidizing agents

A
  • Hydrogen peroxide
  • Virkon S
63
Q

Activity level is intermediate to high level disinfection. Sterilization at prolonged contact times.

A

Aldehydes

64
Q

Activity level is intermediate to high-level disinfection.

A
  • Aldehydes
  • Hypochlorites
  • Alkalis
  • Oxidizing agents
65
Q

Activity level is Intermediate-level disinfection

A

Alcohols

66
Q

Activity level is Low or intermediate-level disinfection

A
  • Phenolics
  • Iodophors
  • Biguanides
67
Q

Activity Level is Low-Level disinfection

A
  • Quaternary ammonium compounds
  • Acids
68
Q

Classification of Bacteria Resistance

A
  • Susceptible (low-level disinfectant)
  • Resistant (Intermediate level disinfectant)
  • Highly Resistant
  • Extremely Resistant
69
Q

Susceptible (low-level disinfectant) types of bacteria

A
  • Enveloped viruses
  • Mycoplasmas
  • Gram Positive Bacteria
  • Gram Negative Bacteria
  • Yeasts
  • Fungi
  • Rickettsiae
  • Chlamydia
70
Q

Resistant (intermediate level disinfectant) types of bacteria

A
  • Fungal Spores
  • Non-Enveloped Viruses
  • Mycobacteria
  • Acid Fast bacteria
71
Q

Highly Resistant Types of Bacteria

A

Bacterial Spores

72
Q

Extremely Resistant Bacteria

A

Prions

73
Q

It means low-level disinfectant.

A

Susceptible

74
Q

It means it’s an Intermediate level disinfectant

A

Resistant

75
Q

Type of microbial agent that is susceptible (low-level disinfectant) due to its phospholipid bilayer wherein it is also sensitive to denaturation) by changes in temperature and pH

A

Enveloped Viruses

76
Q

Microbial agent that are resistant (intermediate level disinfectant) with very complex polysaccharides on their cell walls, allowing them to be resistant to environmental stress and mechanical stress.

A

Fungal Spores

77
Q

Microbial Agent that is Resistant (intermediate level disinfectant) containing capsid that protects them from environmental changes.

A

Non-Enveloped Viruses

78
Q

Highly Resistant Microbial agent because of multiple layers surrounding their walls, allowing the spores to deactivate the chemicals and make them permeable to chemicals.

A

Bacterial Spores

79
Q

Microbial agent that is extremely resistant which are also known as “infectious proteins”

A

Prions

80
Q

They cause neurodegenerative disease in animals such as in cattle and they are extremely resistent even to autoclaving at 120 degrees Celsius

A

Prions

81
Q

It can be used as a guide for appropriate selection and efficacy against the organism.

A

Classification of antimicrobials

82
Q

Clinical efficacy of antimicrobials is dependent on:

A
  1. Antimicrobial
  2. Pathogen
  3. Host
  4. Combined Effects of the disease process
  5. How antimicrobial was administered
83
Q

Classification of Antimicrobials based on SPECTRUM are:

A
  1. Narrow
  2. Broad
84
Q

It means its active against either gram negative (-) or gram positive (+) bacteria alone.

A

Narrow classification of antimicrobials based on spectrum

85
Q

It means it’s active against both gram negative (-) and gram positive (+) bacteria.

A

Broad classification of antimicrobials based on spectrum

86
Q

It meets the standard of at least a three log reduction in the bacterial population over 18-24 hours in a static concentration culture.

A

Bactericidal

87
Q

It can kill the bacteria over a certain period of time of exposure.

A

Bactericidal

88
Q

What is the standard in the bacterial population over 18-24 hours in a static concentration culture that Bactericidal should meet?

A

at least a three log reduction

89
Q

It’s a mechanism of action stalling bacterial cellular activity without directly causing bacterial death.

A

Bacteriostatic

90
Q

How many hours should the Bactericidal meet the standard of at least a three log reduction in the bacterial population in a static concentration culture?

A

18-24 hours

91
Q

It means it can kill the bacteria over a certain period of time of exposure.

A

Bactericidal

92
Q

It means it can prevent bacterial growth but not necessarily kill the microorganism.

A

Bacteriostatic

93
Q

It is possible for an antibiotic to display both bacteriostatic and bactericidal characteristics against the same pathogen isolate in vitro, depending on what?

A

the concentration (whether HIGH or LOW when administered)

94
Q

They prevent final cross-linking of cell wall (PG synthesis, G+ bacteria)

A

β-lactams

95
Q

4 Main Mechanistic Classifications

A
  1. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  2. Damage to cell membrane function.
  3. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis or function
  4. Inhibition of protein synthesis
96
Q

Mechanism of Action: Antimicrobials include inhibition of?

A
  1. Cell wall synthesis
  2. Cell membrane function
  3. Nucleic acid synthesis/function
  4. Protein synthesis
97
Q

It is where β-lactams prevent final cross-linking of cell wall (PG synthesis, G+ bacteria)

A

Inhibition of Cell Wall Synthesis

98
Q

It impairs cell membrane function by causing damage and leakage of cellular components.

A

Inhibition of cell membrane function

99
Q

It is when most drugs binds to DNA to inhibit transcription and replication/

A

Inhibition of Nucleic acid synthesis/ function

100
Q

Examples of β-lactams

A
  • Glycopeptides
  • Bacitracin
  • Streptogramins
101
Q

Example of antimicrobial that inhibits cell membrane function

A

Polyenes

102
Q

Examples of antimicrobials that inhibits Nucleic acid synthesis/function

A
  • Nitromidazoles
  • Nitrofurans
  • Sulfonamides
  • Trimethoprim
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Novobiocin
  • Rifampin
103
Q

It is where the antibacterial affects either 30S or 50S ribosomal unit that the cell uses for protein synthesis

A

Inhibition of Protein Synthesis

104
Q

Examples of Antimicrobial that inhibits protein synthesis

A
  • Tetracyclines
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Macrolides
105
Q

Factors considered in the clinical use of antimicrobials

A
  • Pharmacokinetics
  • Duration of therapy
  • Use of antibacterial combinations
106
Q

It is where each component rules in and rules out selected antimicrobials for specific applications

A

Pharmacokinetics

107
Q

It includes ADME

A

Pharmacokinetics

108
Q

It involves regimen design.

A

Pharmacokinetics

109
Q

These are the foundation for regimen design.

A

Pharmacokinetic properties of an antimicrobial

110
Q

ADME stands for?

A
  • Absorption
  • Distribution
  • Metabolism
  • Excretion
111
Q

It is the process by which drugs enter systemic circulation; characterized by bioavailability

A

Absorption

112
Q

A process by which the drug is transferred by the blood stream throughout the body.

A

Distribution

113
Q

Volume of distribution of antimicrobial drugs in different organs and tissues vary depending on their solubility in what?

A

water or lipids

114
Q

What is systemic circulation characterized by?

A

Bioavailability

115
Q

It has a low oral bioavailability compared to fluoroquinolone in some animals.

A

aminoglycosides

116
Q

Aminoglycosides have low oral bioavailability compared to what in some animals?

A

fluoroquinolone

117
Q

Where are water-soluble anti-microbials distributed in?

A

Low Concentrations in the CNS in the eyes and prostate glands

118
Q

Where are lipid-soluble distributed in?

A

Tissues

119
Q

A biotransformation process by which the drug is enzymatically transformed into new chemical compounds.

A

Metabolism

120
Q

Some drugs are rapidly metabolized compared to others depending on what?

A

active substance
and site of administration

121
Q

The irreversible process where the drug or its metabolites leave the body primarily renal or hepatic route.

A

Excretion

122
Q

Routes where the drug or its metabolites leave the body.

A

Renal or Hepatic Route

123
Q

They should be present for a sufficient period of time at the site of infection.

A

Duration of therapy

124
Q

It refers to antimicrobials that should be present for a sufficient period of time at the site of infection.

A

Duration of therapy

125
Q

Many antimicrobial therapy durations are ____, being given for _, _, _ _ durations.

A

arbitraty
7, 10, 14

126
Q

More evidence has been presented pointing to the advantage of what?

A

shorter antimicrobial regimens

127
Q

Some evidence showed longer periods of antimicrobial therapy results in ?

A

antimicrobial resistance

128
Q

It is where combination drugs may be advantageous in some cases.

A

Use of antibacterial combinations

129
Q

It may be advantageous in some cases

A

Combination drugs

130
Q

An example of combination drug.

A

Synergistic effect of two antimicrobials

131
Q

A drug where one drug facilitates the entry of other

A

Synergistic effect of two antimicrobials

132
Q

Clinical Importance of Antimicrobial Resistance

A
  • Acquired drug resistance
  • Acquired multiple antibiotic resistance to many common antibiotics
133
Q

It’s a major problem for pathogenic bacteria in veterinary medicine.

A

Acquired drug resistance

134
Q

It limits the use of these drugs especially in enteric bacteria where it is most commonly found such as Salmonella, and E. coli

A

Acquired multiple antibiotic resistance to many common antibiotics

135
Q

Why are the multiple antibiotic resistance to many common antibiotics limits the use of these drugs in enteric bacteria?

A

This is due to high number and variety of bacteria present in the intestines where horizontal gene transfer of resistance can occur.

136
Q

Resistance has been increasingly observed in ______ as well, such as Bordetella, Mannhemia and Pasteurella

A

non-enteric bacteria

137
Q

Examples of Enteric bacteria

A
  • Salmonella
  • E. coli
138
Q
A

VMCB121 (3rd LE) (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions