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1MBChB Revision > Principles Final Condensed > Flashcards

Principles Final Condensed Flashcards

1
Q

apoenzymes vs holoenzymes

A

with cofactor

without cofactor

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2
Q

Vmax intersection vs Km intersection on Lineweaver Burk Plot

A 
Vmax = Y axis
Km = X axis
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3
Q

Low Km means

A

higher affinity

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4
Q

Does Km or Vmax vary in competitive vs non-competitive inhibition?

A 
Competitive = Km varies
Non-competitive = Vmax varies
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5
Q

Enzyme regulation of Hb vs myoglobin

A 
Hb = allosteric control - sigmoidal 
Myoglobin = Michaelis-Menten
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6
Q

Function of cholesterol

A

present in cell membranes, component of myelin sheath, precursor molecule for: steroid hormones, Vit D and bile acids

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7
Q

Function of TAGs (triglycerides)

A

highly concentrated energy store, present in the lipid bilayer

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8
Q

Purines

A

A and G

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9
Q

Pyramidines

A

U, T and C

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10
Q

Phosphodiester bonds happen between …

A

the 3’OH and the 5’triphosphate

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11
Q

what unwinds DNA

A

helicase

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12
Q

Describe the RNA polymerases in eukaryotes

A

Pol I, II, III

Pol II synthesises all mRNA

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13
Q

What does RNA polymerase binding require

A

transcription factors

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14
Q

what is TFIID

A

general transcription factor required for all Pol II transcribes genes

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15
Q

start codon?

stop codon?

A

AUG

UAA, UAG, UGA

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16
Q

components of translation

A

AAs, tRNAs, aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, protein factors, ATP/GTP, ribosomes and mRNA

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17
Q

Describe initiation in translation

A

GTP provides the energy
Ribosomal sub-units bind to the 5’ end of mRNA, moves along until the start codon is found
Initiator tRNAs pair to start codon
Large sub-units joins assembly and initiator tRNA is located at the P site

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18
Q

Describe elongation in translation

A

Elongation factor bring aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site
GTP
Second elongation factor regenerates to pick up the next aminoacyl-tRNA

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19
Q

what does peptidyl transferase catalyse

A

peptide bond formation between amino acids at the P and A sites

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20
Q

descibe termination in translation

A

Occurs when the A site o ribosome encounters a stop codon

Finished proteins cleaves of tRNA

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21
Q

what are the 3 tRNA binding sites on ribosomes

A

Exit
Peptidyl
Aminoacyl

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22
Q

Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate kinase

A

phosphorylates glucose
phosphorylates fructose-6-phosphate
converts phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate

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23
Q

negative and positive modulators of phosphofructokinase

A 
\+ve = AMP, fructose-2,6-biphophate
-ve = ATP, citrate, H+
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24
Q

aerobic metabolism of pyruvate

A

enters mitochondria
converted to acetyl-CoA
condenses with 4C compounds to form a 6C comound
6C compound decarboxylates to 2 3C’s - yielding 2CO2
4 oxidation reactions yield NADH+H+ and FADH2
GTP formed
4C compound recreated

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25
Q

where are the enzymes in TCA

A

all in the matrix apart from succinate dehydrogenase which is in the membrane

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26
Q

Electrons needed in conversion of the NAD and FAD

A

3 in NAD+ to NADH+H+

1 in FAD to FADH2

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27
Q

phosophoryl transfer potential

A

free energy change for ATP hydrolysis

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28
Q

Electron transfer potential

A

measured by redox potential of a compound

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29
Q

standard redox potential

A

how readily a substance will donate an electron –> -ve values mean reduced from of X has a lower affinity for electrons that hydrogen and vice versa

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30
Q

describe electron transport in the coupling of respiration with ATP synthesis

A

Respiratory chain - electrons from NADH enter at complex I, electrons from FADH2 enter at complet II, electrons are handed down from higher to lower redox potentials until transferred onto O2 and H2O
Transfer of electronc through respiratory chain is couples with H+ transport from mitochondrial matrix to intermembrane space
3/4 complexes pump H+ (1,2,4)

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31
Q

electrochemical gradient

A

more protons in inter-membranous space than the matrix making the matrix side more negative and so protons are attracted to the matrix - couples to ATP synthesis

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32
Q

how many ATP does 1 glucose yield

A

30-32 ATP

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33
Q

what inhibits oxidative phosphorylation

A

cyanide, azide and CO inhibit the transfer of electrons to O2

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34
Q

aneuploidy

A

whole missing or extra chromosome

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35
Q 
47 XY +21
47 XY +18
47 XXY
47 XY +14
45 X
A 
Down's Syndrome
Edward Syndrome
Kleinfelter Syndrome
Miscariage 
Turner Syndrome
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36
Q

Sickle cell anaemia
ALzeihmers and Parkinsons
Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease
Glycogen storage disease

A

Missense mutation (glu to val)
protein folded before fully synthesised
prions folding goes wrong
enzyme deficiency so cant use glycogen stores

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37
Q

robertsonian translocation

A

two acrocentric chromosomes stuck end on end - increases risk of trisomy in pregnancy

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38
Q

gonadal mosaicism

A

causes recurrnece risk for the autosomal dominant conditions even if the parent isnt affected

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39
Q

penetrance

A

likelihood of having a disease if you ave the gene mutation

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40
Q

autosomal dominant

A

disease seen in all generations

severity variable males and females equally affected

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41
Q

autosomal recessive

A

2 faulty copies needed to cause disease
one generation
causes loss of function

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42
Q

x linked

A

recessive
haemophilia
no male to male transmission

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43
Q

mitochondrial

A

maternal inheritance

point mutations and deletions occur

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44
Q

mendelian disorders

A

high penetrance

small environmental contribution

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45
Q

what does DNA methylation lead to

A

modification of histones which repress transcription

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46
Q

imprinting

A

the differences in gene expression depending on whether the gene was maternally or paternally inherited
specific chromosomal locations contain imprinting genes

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47
Q

angelmans syndrome

A

neuro-genetic disorder
chromosome 15
happy demeanour

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48
Q

heteroplasmy

A

different daughter cells contain different amounts of mutant mitochondria

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49
Q

rough vs smooth ER

A 
R= protein synthesis 
S= cholesterol and lipid synthesis and detoxification
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50
Q

golgi apparatus

A

modification and packaging of secretions –> has bound cisternae

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51
Q

microfilaments vs microtubules

A

7nm composed of Actin

25nm composed of tubulin

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52
Q

Dynein vs kinesin

A 
D = towards centre
K = away from centre
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53
Q

site of RNA synthesis

A

nucleus

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54
Q

types of intracellular junctions

A 
occluding = tight
anchoring = desmosomes
communicating = gap
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55
Q

cadherin molecules

A

bind to each other in the extracellular matrix space and to actin of the cytoskeleton

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56
Q

desmosomes vs hemidesmosomes

A

link submebrane intermediate filaments of adjacent cells

link submebrane intermediate filaments of cells to extracellular matrix through transmembrane proteins

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57
Q

colour of haematoxylin vs eosin

A 
H = purple (basic)
E = pink (acidic)
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58
Q

epithelium classification

A

shape - squamous (flattened), cuboidal an columnar

layers - simple (one), stratified (2+), pseudo-stratified (looks like multiple but is one

59
Q

exocrine vs endocrine

A 
exo = product secreted to apical end of cell
endo = product secreted to basal end of cell ans is transported in the vascular system
60
Q

diaphysis vs epiphysis

A 
D = outer shell of corticol bone makes up the shaft 
E = cancellous/trabecular bone occupies the end
61
Q

blood and lymph connective tissue?

A

yes

62
Q

cardiac muscle vs skeletal muscle

A 
C = intercalated discs
S = elongated nuclei
63
Q

connective tissue coat in the CNS vs PNS

A 
C = meninges
P = epineurium
64
Q

types of glia and functions

A

Astrocytes = support and ion transport
Oligodendrocytes = produce myelin
Microglia = provide immune surveillance
Schwann cell = produce myelin and support axons

65
Q

3 salivary glands

A

parotid, sumandibular, sublingual

66
Q

large intestine, outer longitudinal muscle organisation

A

teniae coli - 3 strips

67
Q

bronchus vs bronchioles structure

A

large diameter and hyaline cartiliage

small, no cartilage, mainly smooth muscle

68
Q

islets of langerhans

A

endocrine pancreas
A cells = glucagon
B cells = insulin
D cells = somatostatin

69
Q

pericytes

A

connective tissue cells with contractile properties - located in capillaries and venules

70
Q

3 types of capillary

A

fenestrated - pores (gut mucosa, kidney, endocrine glands)
continous - (muscle, lung, skin, nerve)
sinusoidal - large gaps (liver, spleen, marrow)

71
Q

variolation

A

exposure of an individual to the contents of dried smallpox pustules from an infected patient

72
Q

what has increased prevalence in HIV caused

A

reemergence of TB

73
Q

innate immune response

A

fast
general
mast cells, NK cells, phagocytes and complement

74
Q

Adaptive immune response

A

slow

unique

75
Q

PRRs:PAMPs vs Antigen:Antigen receptors

A

innate

adaptive

76
Q

types of lymphocyte

A

B cells
T cells
NK cells

77
Q

types of phagocyte

A

neutrophils
monocytes
macrophages
dendritic cells

78
Q

soluble components of the immune response

A

complement

antibodies - Igs

79
Q

where are mast cells found and what do they do

A

reside in tissues and degranulate and release histamine and tryptase

80
Q

neutrophils produce …. when activated

3 mechanisms of attack

A

TNF

phagocytosis, release antimicrobial peptides and degredative proteases and generate extracellular traps

81
Q

where are macrophages found

A

reside in tissues

monocytes are the precursor

82
Q

dendritic cells important in

A

antigen presentation

when activated they mature and go to the secondary lymphoid tissues

83
Q

helper T cells

A

CD4+ = produce cytokines, activate CD8+ and recognise peptides on MHC/HLA class II (expressed on dendritic, macrophages and B cells)

84
Q

cytotoxic T cells

A

CD8+ = recognise pathogens n MHC/HLA class I (expressed on all nucleated cells), trigger apoptosis and secrete cytokines and pore formign molecules like perforin

85
Q

examples of cytokines

A

Interferons
TNF
chemokines
ILs

86
Q

acute phase response

A

liver produces acute phase proteins in response to pro-inflammatory cytokines eg IL1, IL6 and TNF
examples of the acute phase proteins = CRP, complement proteins and serum amyloid A

87
Q

complement pathways

A

classical
lectin
alternative

88
Q

MAC is made of

A

C6-C9 and C5b

89
Q

T cell antigen receptor vs B cell antigen receptor

A 
T = membrane bound heterodimer (a and b chains)
B = membrane bound antibofy (IgM or IgD) - light and heavy chains and disulphide bridges
90
Q

Exo vs endo toxin

A

Exo on +ve = mad einside the cell

Endo on -ve = part of cell wall

91
Q

events in fever

A

antigen attacks macrophages
releases cytokines
travel to anterior hypothalamus of the brain
stimulates production of PGE
reset bodys thermal temperature
body perceives cold and so shiver to conserve heat
FEVER

92
Q

antibiotic in anaerobes
antibiotic for staph aureus
antibiotic for coliforms

A

metronidazole
flucloxacillin
gentamicin

93
Q

cell wall antibiotics

A

penicillin (beta lactam), cephalosporins (ceftriaxone), glycopeptides - only effectove on gram +ve cell walls (vancomycin )
all bactericidal

94
Q

protein synthesis antibiotics

A

macrolides (thromycin’s), textracyclines (doxycycline) and aminoglysides (gentamicin)
all bacteriostatic appart from gentamicin

95
Q

bacterial DNA antibodies

A

metronidazole, trimethopim and fluouroquinolones

96
Q

what are the neutralising antibodies of viruses

A

IgM and IgG

97
Q

non lethal cell injury

A

hydropic change
fatty change
membrane shedding

98
Q

meatbolic disorders inheritance

A

autosomal recessive

99
Q

phenylketonuria

A

Guthrie test - due to the accumulation of phenylalanine caused by a deficiency in enzyme converts phenylalanine to tyrosine

100
Q

surface adhesion molcules

A

C5a
Leukotriene B2
TNF

101
Q

endothelial cell expression of adhesion molecules increased by

A

IL1, endotoxins and TNF

102
Q

5-HT (serotonin) in high concentration where

A

platelets

103
Q

cells of chronic inflammation

A

plasma cells, lymphocytes and macrophages

104
Q

irreversible damage in inflammation

A

severe damage to the cell membrane and mitochondria
leakage of enzymes
nuclear changes eg ATP changes, cell membrane damage

105
Q

labile cells

stable cells

A

Gi tract and bone marrow

hepatocytes and endothelium

106
Q

p53 activated by

arrests cycle at

A

cell stress

G1/S or G2/M

107
Q

T1 diabetes vs T2 diabetes

A 
T1 = insulin dependent 
T2 = non-insulin dependent
108
Q

orthoteric vs allosteric sites

A

competitive (same)

non-competitive (different)

109
Q

Henderson-Hasselbach equation

A

pH -pKa = log(A-/AH)

110
Q

Vd in IV setting

A

Vd= dose/plasma concentration

111
Q

parasympathetic cranial nerves

A

3,7,9,10

112
Q

what does noradrenaline activate

A

G protein coupled receptors - adrenoceptors

113
Q

muscarinic ACh receptors vs nicotinic ACh receptors

A 
M = G protei coupled receptors where they are all seperate parts 
N = ligand gated channel essentially with alpha, beta, gamma, delta and epsilon units
114
Q

M1
M2
M3

A

Gq - stimulates phospholipase C - incr stomach acid secretion
Gi - inhibits adenylyl cyclase, opens K channels - decrease HR
Gq - stimulates phospholipase C - incr saliva secretion and bronchoconstriction

115
Q

MAO vs COMT

A 
MAO = U1 NA metabolism 
COMT = U2 NA metabolism
116
Q

B1
B2
A1
A2

A

Gs - stimulates adenylyl cyclase - incr HR and force
Gs - stimulates adenylyl cyclase - relax brocnhial and vascular smooth muscle
Gq - stimulates phospholipase C - contraction of vascular smooth muscle
Gi - inhibits adenylyl cyclase - inhibits NA release

117
Q

amphetamine

A

U1 substrate
inhibits MAO
displaces NA into the cytoplasm so incr ADR stimulation

118
Q

1st order kinetics vs zero order kinetics

A

rate of elimination directly proportional to the drug concentration (T1/2 = 0.69/Kel)
initially eliminated at constant rate and then changes to first order pattern

119
Q

rate of elimination =

A

clearance x plamsa concentration

120
Q

Cpss and Css

A

maintenance dose rate/clearance

is reached after approximately 5 half lives

121
Q

Phase 1 drug metabolism

A

right side of liver
oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis
makes drug more polar

122
Q

Phase 2 drug metabolism

A

left side of liver
conjugation
adds endogenous compounds to increase polarity

123
Q

glomerular filtration

A

unbound only

occurs freely for most drugs

124
Q

organic anion transporter

organic cation transporter

A

handles acidic drugs - penicillins, uric acid, furesimide, thaizides (gout)
handles basic drugs - morphine
active tubular secretions

125
Q

what can active tublar secretions do

A

concentrate drugs in tubular fluid against the concentration gradient

126
Q

factors affecting reabsorption

A

lipid solubility
polarity
urinary flow rate
urinary pH (basic = incr excretion of acid, acidic = increase excretion of base)

127
Q

feedback of Na vs K channels in an AP

A 
Na = +ve feedback 
K = -ve feedback
128
Q

what is the state of the Na channels in the absolute refractory period

A

inactive

129
Q

oligodendrocytes
astrocytes
microglia

A

priduce myelinated cells in the CNS
star shaped, support homeostasis and maintain BBB
immune surveillance, mrcophages of the CNS

130
Q

what forms the glycocalyx layer

A

glycoproteins and glycolipids - carbohydrates

131
Q

cell adhesion molecules

A 
cadherin = hold cells in tissues together
integrins = span membrane acting as a link between extra and intracellular environment
132
Q

what is osmolatiry nd how to caluclate

A

concetration of osmotically active particles in a solution

osmoles/litre

133
Q

tonicity meaning

A

effect a solution has on a cell volume

134
Q

Na/K ATPase what goes in and out

A

3Na in

2K out

135
Q

membrane is more permable to Na or K

A

K

136
Q

nernst equation

A

Eion = 61 log ([ion]0/[ion]i)

137
Q

Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz

A

each ion in turn and its relative permaeability

calculates overall membrane potential

138
Q

hormones controlling glucose:
absorptive and post absorptive state
emergency
starvation

A

insulin and glucagon
adrenaline
cortisol and growth hormone

139
Q

insulin favours anabolism or catabolism

A

anabolism

hormone of the fed state

140
Q

where does the growth hormone come from

A

anterior lobe of the pituitary

141
Q

methods of heat gain

A

metabolic heat
radiation
convection

142
Q

methods of heat loss

A

convection
conduction
radiation
evaporation

143
Q

heat regulator in the brain

A

hypothalamus

1MBChB Revision (12 decks)

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