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revision year 1 > Principles Corrrections > Flashcards

Principles Corrrections Flashcards

1
Q

Do macrophages and B cells exhibit MHC 1/2 molecules?

A

MHC 2

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2
Q 
Which of the following is an important mediator of opsonization of bacteria by phagocytes?
CD8
Membrane attack complex (MAC)
Leucocyte adhesion molecule
Tumour necrosis factor
C-reactive protein
A

CRP

An opsonin promotes recognition of pathogens/antigens by phagocytes. CRP is a typical opsonin.

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3
Q 
Which of the following is a component of the strain of MRSA (Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus)which causes severe skin infection such as necrotising fasciitis?
hyaluronidase
coagulase
protein A
panton valentine leukocidin
fibrinolysin
A

Answer: D
Panton Valentine Leukocidin is a cytotoxin associated with highly virulent strains of Staph. aureus causing necrolytic skin infection

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4
Q 
Which of these virus can stay in the body in a latent state and reactivate to cause disease?
herpes simplex virus
hepatitis C virus
rabies virus
HPV
A

Herpes Simplex Virus) – Latency is characteristic of a herpetic viral infection. HSV is responsible for recurrent cold sores and genital herpes.

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5
Q

Most common bacterial cause of UTI?

A

E.coli

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6
Q

cause of food poisoning from cakes egtc?

A

staph aureus

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7
Q

cause of food poisoning in BBQ and Beef?

A

e. coli

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8
Q

name the antibiotics NOT allowed in pregnancy?

A

metronizadole
chloramphicol
aminoglycoside
tetracycline

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9
Q

SE gentamicin?

A

renal damage

deaf amnd dizziness, cranial nerve VIII

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10
Q

caustive agent in endocarditis?

A

strep viridians

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11
Q

What general antibiotic is used on gm +ve aerobes?

A

amoxicillin

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12
Q

What type of bacteria is vancomycin only used on?

A

gm +ve

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13
Q

what type of bacteria is gentamicin only used on?

A

gm -ve

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14
Q

What antibiotic is used on anaerobes?

A

metronidazole

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15
Q

How do GLUT-4 and insulin travel across cell membrane?

A

exocytosis

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16
Q

what plasia/trophy is a developmental disorder?

A

hyperplasia

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17
Q

What is acid fast?

A

resists the stain

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18
Q

what contorls vasomotor tone?

A

Discharge of sympathetic nerves resulting in continuous release of noradrenaline

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19
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme in the TCA cycle?

A

isocitrate dehydrogenase

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20
Q

is the vital capacity increased or decreased in Guillain barre syndrome and why?

A

decreased due to paralysis or weakness of the respiratory muscles

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21
Q

what antibody crosses the placenta?

A

IgG

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22
Q

what antibiotic is used for gram positive cover?

A

vancomycin

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23
Q

erection is sympathetoc or parasympathetic?

A

para

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24
Q

ejaculation is sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

sympathetic

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25
Q

what are the insulating material in the PNS?

A

schwann cells

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26
Q

what is the insulating material in the CNS?

A

oligodendrocytes

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27
Q

what do the astrocytes do in yhe CNS?

A

homeostasis

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28
Q

what do the microglia do in the CNS ?

A

immune surveillance

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29
Q

where are ribosomes made?

A

nucleolus

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30
Q

d: ionotropic

A

caused by binding of neurotransmitter

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31
Q

d: metabotropic

A

caused by binding of secondary protein etc

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32
Q

name an adrenergic type of receptor?

A

ligand gated ion channels

adrenaline/noradrenaline

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33
Q

what is a nicotinic receptor?

A

one reactive to acetyl choline

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34
Q

if something has a large Ka what type of acid is it?

A

strong acid

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35
Q

name enteral routes of admin?

A

oral, sublingual and rectal

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36
Q

name some paraeneteral routes of admin?

A

IV, IM, SC, Inhalation, topical

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37
Q

what is EC50 value in agonist response curve?

A

concentration that agonist elicits half max response

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38
Q

what type of drugs often have 1st pass effect?

A

oral

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39
Q

what shows 0 order kinectic?

A

alcohol metabolism

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40
Q

what is an example of drug oxidation in liver?

A

CYP450 system

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41
Q

what phase does CYP450 take place in?

A

phase 1

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42
Q

what side of the liver does phase 1 drug metabolism take place?

A

RHS

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43
Q

is phase 1 catabolic/anabolic?

A

catabolic

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44
Q

is phase 2 catabolic/anabolic?

A

anabolic

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45
Q

what cell has a kidney bean shaped nucleus?

A

macrophage

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46
Q

Which cell is most likely to deal with large parasites that cannot be phagocytosed?

A

mast cells

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47
Q

what type of hypersensitivoty reaction is sarcoid?

A

hypersensitivty 4

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48
Q

can you carry an autosomal dominant condition?

A

no

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49
Q

which cell has a multilobed nucleus?

A

neutrophil

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50
Q

which cell has a bilobed nucleus and is purple?

A

basophil

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51
Q

is a basophil acidic/alkaline?

A

acidic

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52
Q

name the two cells a monocyte can differentiate into?

A

macrophage and dendritic cell

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53
Q

where does the production of blood cells and platelets occur?

A

in the bone marrow

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54
Q

where can you find fenestrated capillaries?

A

gut and kidneys

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55
Q

what makes up endothelium?

A

simple squamous epithelium

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56
Q

what is the stain called for tissue?

A

H and E

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57
Q

name the 4 types of tissue?

A

nervous
muscle
connective
epithelium

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58
Q

SM is voluntary/non voluntary and striated/non striated?

A

non voluntary and non striated

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59
Q

skeletal muscle is voluntary/non voluntary and striated/non striated?

A

voluntary and striated

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60
Q

cardiac muscle is SM is voluntary/non voluntary and striated/non striated?

A

involuntary and striated

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61
Q

f: oligodendrocytes

A

produce myelin

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62
Q

f:astrocytes?

A

support ion transport in nervous cells

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63
Q

f: schwann cells

A

produce myeline and support axons

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64
Q

where does ATP synthesis occur?

A

mitochondria

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65
Q

function of RER?

A

transport proteins formed in vesicles

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66
Q

where do ribosomes bind to?

A

RER

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67
Q

F: SER

A

continues protein synthesis and site of lipid formation

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68
Q

f: golgi apparatus?

A

recieves proteins from SER and REER, packages them and adds something to them

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69
Q

f: lyosome?

A

bin men, contain enzymes to break stuff down

70
Q

what connects an anchoring junction?

A

desosome

71
Q

alpha haemolysis is what colour?

A

green

72
Q

beta haemolysis is what colour?

A

yella

73
Q

Rapidly contracting human muscle cells start producing lactic acid. Which of the following best explains this finding?

A

The cells have to convert NADH into NAD+

74
Q

During DNA replication, one strand of the DNA molecule is replicated in the form of short Okazaki fragments. Which of the following statements best explains this observation?

A

Nucleic acids are always synthesised in a 5’ to 3’ direction

75
Q

what lab test for measuring primary humoral response:
a: IgM antibody detection F: Cytogenic analysis
B: Light microscopy G: Cytochemistry
C: IgG antibody detection H: MRI
D: PCR I: CT
E: Immunophenotyping J: Scintigraphy

A

IgM antibody detection

76
Q

what lab test for The measurement of T-lymphocyte subsets in blood.
a: IgM antibody detection F: Cytogenic analysis
B: Light microscopy G: Cytochemistry
C: IgG antibody detection H: MRI
D: PCR I: CT
E: Immunophenotyping J: Scintigraphy

A

immunophenotyping

77
Q

what lab test for The analysis of cells based on their physical form & structure.
a: IgM antibody detection F: Cytogenic analysis
B: Light microscopy G: Cytochemistry
C: IgG antibody detection H: MRI
D: PCR I: CT
E: Immunophenotyping J: Scintigraphy

A

light microscopy

78
Q

Which of the following protein components of the inner mitochondrial membrane transfers energy associated with the proton motive from high energy phosphate bonds found in ATP?

A

FiFoATPase

79
Q

What is the reducing agent in the following reaction?Pyruvate + NADH + H+ -> Lactate + NAD+

A

NADH

80
Q 
Which organ is retroperitoneal? 
kidneys
liver
whole pancrease
brian
A

kidneys

81
Q

what type of joint is a bone joined by hyaline cartlidge eg long bone epiphyseal growth plate?

A

primary cartilaginous joints

82
Q

what type of joint is intervertebral discs?

A

secondary cartilaginous

83
Q

what type of joint is a coronal suture an example of?

A

fibrous

84
Q

interosseous membrane between tibia and fibia is an example of whaat type of joint?

A

fibrous

85
Q

metacarpophalangeal and acromioclavicular joint is what type of joints?

A

synovial

86
Q

what 2 structures form the diencephalon?

A

hypothalamus and thalamus

87
Q

what heart chamber is most anterioir?

A

right ventricle

88
Q

definition of Km

A

michaelus menten constant- the substrate concentration where the initial rate of reaction is 0.5 the max

89
Q

as km increases what happens to the affinity?

A

decreases

90
Q

is the substrate has a low Km what does it mean?

A

substrate only requires a little amount of substrate to work at 0.5 v max

91
Q

is a competative inhibitor reversible?

A

yes

92
Q

is a non-competative inhibitor reversible?

A

yes and no

93
Q

is the 1/2 vmax same/different for competative inhibition?

A

same

94
Q

is km same/different for competative inhibitor?

A

diff its higher

95
Q

is the 1/2 vmax same/different for non-competative inhibition?

A

diff and lower

96
Q

is km same/different for non-competative inhibitor?

A

km same

97
Q

what is y intercept on lineweaver burkwood plot?

A

Vmax

98
Q

what is the x intercept on lineweaver burkwood plot?

A

km

99
Q

diagnostic test for virus?

A

PCR diagnosis

100
Q

diagnostic test for bacteria?

A

cell culture

101
Q

what type of respiration is clostridium?

A

strict anaerobe

102
Q

what type of resp is legionella?

A

strict aerobe

103
Q

what type of resp is pseudonomas?

A

strict aerobe

104
Q

what antibiotic is first line for gm negative bacilli?

A

gentamicin

105
Q

d: anueploidy

A

whole/extra/missing chomosome

106
Q

d: translocation

A

rearrangement of chromosomes

107
Q

trisomy 21 aka?

A

downs syndrome

108
Q

trisomy 14 aka?

A

miscarriage

109
Q

trisomy 18 aka?

A

edwards syndrome

110
Q

missing one chromosome aka?

A

turner syndrome

111
Q

extra chromosome x or y 47 XXY?

A

kleinfelter

112
Q

what is the 1st line genetic test to detect any missing chromosomes?

A

CGH Microarray

113
Q

when is FISH used?

A

to check for cancerous genes

114
Q

what is the rsik in autosomal dominant of child being affected?

A

50%

115
Q

what is the rsik in autosomal recesssive of child being affected?

A

25% if parent carries

116
Q

x-linked disease is passed on by whom to who and is it dominant or recessive?

A

mom-son

recessive

117
Q

what chromosome is affected in angelman syndrome?

A

15

118
Q

what is x inactivation?

A

a cell only requires 1 x chromosome to work, so one becomes inactivated, if the activated one is mutation may give rise to colorblindness for eg

119
Q

is the penetrance high or low for mendilian disorders

A

high

120
Q

what protein normally stops cell division and what does it bind to instead so E2F can start cell division?

A

pRB and CDK2/4 binds instead

121
Q

what cyclin binds to what CDK?

A

d-4
e and A -2
B and 1

122
Q

where are the 3 checkpoints in the cell cycle?

A

cell size and damage at the end of G1
p53 at the end of G2
at the end of mitosis- check if chromosomes have correctly attatched

123
Q

d:stage

A

how far tumour has grown

124
Q

d: grade

A

how far differentiated the tumour is

125
Q

what forms urea?

A

ammonia

126
Q

in ETC what complex does not use the proton pump gradient?

A

complex II

127
Q

what is the only part of the krebs cycle to be integrated into inner mitochondrial membrane?

A

succinate dehydrogenase

128
Q

what enzyme forma the peptide bond?

A

peptidyl transferase enzyme

129
Q

what polymerae synthesises all DNA?

A

II

130
Q

what is the definition of pka

A

equal to the pH value at which equal concentrations of the acid and conjugate base forms of a substance (often a buffer) are present.

131
Q

what cells involved in humoral response?

A

b cells

132
Q

where are complement proteins produced?

A

liver

133
Q

what region are igM and IgG activated by?

A

Fc receptor

134
Q

what enzyme coverts C3 to C3a and b and via what?

A

C3 convertase and via MBL binding to mannose on pathogen

135
Q

purpose of C3b?

A

binds to other complement proteins to activated C5 covertase and hence produce C5b

136
Q

purpose of C5b?

A

forms MAC inducing pathogen killing

137
Q

name the 2 initial cells in the earl;y immune response?

A

mast cell and macrophage

138
Q

how does macrophage kill?

A

phagocytosis

139
Q

how does mast cell kill?

A

degranulation

140
Q

what is present of macrophages and mast cells that allow pathogens to bing?

A

PRRs bind to PAMPs on pathogen

141
Q

what cells produce antibodies?

A

b cells

142
Q

what is a germinal centre?

A

b cells proliferate and dofferentiate

143
Q

what do b cells differentiate into?

A

plasma cells and memory cells

144
Q

what is the composition of antibodies?

A

2 light chains, 2 heavy chains and an unique variable region

145
Q

when is the embryonic period between?

A

3-8wks

146
Q

what does ectoderm lead to?

A

nervous system and skin

147
Q

what derm forms cardio layer?

A

LATERAL PLATE MESODERM

148
Q

what derm forms resp tract and lining of gut tube?

A

endo

149
Q

what is the neurotransmitter for postgangilionic sympathetic nerves?

A

noradrenaline

150
Q

where is noradrenaline produced?

A

adrena glands in kidney

151
Q

what is the flow of sympathetic nerves?

A

throacolumbar

152
Q

what is flow of prarasympathetic?

A

brainstem

153
Q

what part of ABCDE are glucose sats checked?

A

d disability

154
Q

what is the out bone in the lower limb?

A

fibia

155
Q

what function does CRP have?

A

oponisation

156
Q

which one are the tarsels hand/foot?

A

feet

157
Q

f: flagella

A

locomotion of cells,

158
Q

what is malaria an infection of?

A

protozoa

159
Q

do parasympathetic nerves affect BV?

A

non

160
Q

what happens to end translation once stop codon is reached?

A

A termination protein binds to the codon, and
blocks access to the ribosome’s A site.
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthesase cleaves the protein
from the ribosome

161
Q

what percentage of steady state does 1 half life equal?

A

50%

162
Q

how many cervical spinal nerves are there in total?

A

8

163
Q

how many cervical spinal vertebrae are there?

A

7

164
Q

what comes from the ectoderm?

A

nervous system

165
Q

what comes from the mesoderm?

A

axial skeleton and voluntary muscles and cardiovascular system

166
Q

where does the lining of the respiratory tract come from? derm?

A

endoderm

167
Q

what type of absorption is this: rapid absorption bypassing portal system and avoiding 1st pass metabolism? eg oral, iv, im buccal, sublingual, inhaled

A

buccal

168
Q

does levofloxacin cause c diff?

A

yes

169
Q

what is the only cranial nerve to connect at CNS to the pons?

A

trigeminal

170
Q

how are GLUT 4 and insulin transported through the cell membrane?

A

exocytosis

171
Q

how can pseudonomas be treated?

A

ciprofloxacin

revision year 1 (7 decks)

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