Principles Corrrections Flashcards
1
Q
Do macrophages and B cells exhibit MHC 1/2 molecules?
A
MHC 2
2
Q
Which of the following is an important mediator of opsonization of bacteria by phagocytes? CD8 Membrane attack complex (MAC) Leucocyte adhesion molecule Tumour necrosis factor C-reactive protein
A
CRP
An opsonin promotes recognition of pathogens/antigens by phagocytes. CRP is a typical opsonin.
3
Q
Which of the following is a component of the strain of MRSA (Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus)which causes severe skin infection such as necrotising fasciitis? hyaluronidase coagulase protein A panton valentine leukocidin fibrinolysin
A
Answer: D
Panton Valentine Leukocidin is a cytotoxin associated with highly virulent strains of Staph. aureus causing necrolytic skin infection
4
Q
Which of these virus can stay in the body in a latent state and reactivate to cause disease? herpes simplex virus hepatitis C virus rabies virus HPV
A
Herpes Simplex Virus) – Latency is characteristic of a herpetic viral infection. HSV is responsible for recurrent cold sores and genital herpes.
5
Q
Most common bacterial cause of UTI?
A
E.coli
6
Q
cause of food poisoning from cakes egtc?
A
staph aureus
7
Q
cause of food poisoning in BBQ and Beef?
A
e. coli
8
Q
name the antibiotics NOT allowed in pregnancy?
A
metronizadole
chloramphicol
aminoglycoside
tetracycline
9
Q
SE gentamicin?
A
renal damage
deaf amnd dizziness, cranial nerve VIII
10
Q
caustive agent in endocarditis?
A
strep viridians
11
Q
What general antibiotic is used on gm +ve aerobes?
A
amoxicillin
12
Q
What type of bacteria is vancomycin only used on?
A
gm +ve
13
Q
what type of bacteria is gentamicin only used on?
A
gm -ve
14
Q
What antibiotic is used on anaerobes?
A
metronidazole
15
Q
How do GLUT-4 and insulin travel across cell membrane?
A
exocytosis
16
Q
what plasia/trophy is a developmental disorder?
A
hyperplasia
17
Q
What is acid fast?
A
resists the stain
18
Q
what contorls vasomotor tone?
A
Discharge of sympathetic nerves resulting in continuous release of noradrenaline
19
Q
what is the rate limiting enzyme in the TCA cycle?
A
isocitrate dehydrogenase
20
Q
is the vital capacity increased or decreased in Guillain barre syndrome and why?
A
decreased due to paralysis or weakness of the respiratory muscles
21
Q
what antibody crosses the placenta?
A
IgG
22
Q
what antibiotic is used for gram positive cover?
A
vancomycin
23
Q
erection is sympathetoc or parasympathetic?
A
para
24
Q
ejaculation is sympathetic or parasympathetic?
A
sympathetic
25
what are the insulating material in the PNS?
schwann cells
26
what is the insulating material in the CNS?
oligodendrocytes
27
what do the astrocytes do in yhe CNS?
homeostasis
28
what do the microglia do in the CNS ?
immune surveillance
29
where are ribosomes made?
nucleolus
30
d: ionotropic
caused by binding of neurotransmitter
31
d: metabotropic
caused by binding of secondary protein etc
32
name an adrenergic type of receptor?
ligand gated ion channels
| adrenaline/noradrenaline
33
what is a nicotinic receptor?
one reactive to acetyl choline
34
if something has a large Ka what type of acid is it?
strong acid
35
name enteral routes of admin?
oral, sublingual and rectal
36
name some paraeneteral routes of admin?
IV, IM, SC, Inhalation, topical
37
what is EC50 value in agonist response curve?
concentration that agonist elicits half max response
38
what type of drugs often have 1st pass effect?
oral
39
what shows 0 order kinectic?
alcohol metabolism
40
what is an example of drug oxidation in liver?
CYP450 system
41
what phase does CYP450 take place in?
phase 1
42
what side of the liver does phase 1 drug metabolism take place?
RHS
43
is phase 1 catabolic/anabolic?
catabolic
44
is phase 2 catabolic/anabolic?
anabolic
45
what cell has a kidney bean shaped nucleus?
macrophage
46
Which cell is most likely to deal with large parasites that cannot be phagocytosed?
mast cells
47
what type of hypersensitivoty reaction is sarcoid?
hypersensitivty 4
48
can you carry an autosomal dominant condition?
no
49
which cell has a multilobed nucleus?
neutrophil
50
which cell has a bilobed nucleus and is purple?
basophil
51
is a basophil acidic/alkaline?
acidic
52
name the two cells a monocyte can differentiate into?
macrophage and dendritic cell
53
where does the production of blood cells and platelets occur?
in the bone marrow
54
where can you find fenestrated capillaries?
gut and kidneys
55
what makes up endothelium?
simple squamous epithelium
56
what is the stain called for tissue?
H and E
57
name the 4 types of tissue?
nervous
muscle
connective
epithelium
58
SM is voluntary/non voluntary and striated/non striated?
non voluntary and non striated
59
skeletal muscle is voluntary/non voluntary and striated/non striated?
voluntary and striated
60
cardiac muscle is SM is voluntary/non voluntary and striated/non striated?
involuntary and striated
61
f: oligodendrocytes
produce myelin
62
f:astrocytes?
support ion transport in nervous cells
63
f: schwann cells
produce myeline and support axons
64
where does ATP synthesis occur?
mitochondria
65
function of RER?
transport proteins formed in vesicles
66
where do ribosomes bind to?
RER
67
F: SER
continues protein synthesis and site of lipid formation
68
f: golgi apparatus?
recieves proteins from SER and REER, packages them and adds something to them
69
f: lyosome?
bin men, contain enzymes to break stuff down
70
what connects an anchoring junction?
desosome
71
alpha haemolysis is what colour?
green
72
beta haemolysis is what colour?
yella
73
Rapidly contracting human muscle cells start producing lactic acid. Which of the following best explains this finding?
The cells have to convert NADH into NAD+
74
During DNA replication, one strand of the DNA molecule is replicated in the form of short Okazaki fragments. Which of the following statements best explains this observation?
Nucleic acids are always synthesised in a 5’ to 3’ direction
75
what lab test for measuring primary humoral response:
a: IgM antibody detection F: Cytogenic analysis
B: Light microscopy G: Cytochemistry
C: IgG antibody detection H: MRI
D: PCR I: CT
E: Immunophenotyping J: Scintigraphy
IgM antibody detection
76
what lab test for The measurement of T-lymphocyte subsets in blood.
a: IgM antibody detection F: Cytogenic analysis
B: Light microscopy G: Cytochemistry
C: IgG antibody detection H: MRI
D: PCR I: CT
E: Immunophenotyping J: Scintigraphy
immunophenotyping
77
what lab test for The analysis of cells based on their physical form & structure.
a: IgM antibody detection F: Cytogenic analysis
B: Light microscopy G: Cytochemistry
C: IgG antibody detection H: MRI
D: PCR I: CT
E: Immunophenotyping J: Scintigraphy
light microscopy
78
Which of the following protein components of the inner mitochondrial membrane transfers energy associated with the proton motive from high energy phosphate bonds found in ATP?
FiFoATPase
79
What is the reducing agent in the following reaction?Pyruvate + NADH + H+ -> Lactate + NAD+
NADH
80
```
Which organ is retroperitoneal?
kidneys
liver
whole pancrease
brian
```
kidneys
81
what type of joint is a bone joined by hyaline cartlidge eg long bone epiphyseal growth plate?
primary cartilaginous joints
82
what type of joint is intervertebral discs?
secondary cartilaginous
83
what type of joint is a coronal suture an example of?
fibrous
84
interosseous membrane between tibia and fibia is an example of whaat type of joint?
fibrous
85
metacarpophalangeal and acromioclavicular joint is what type of joints?
synovial
86
what 2 structures form the diencephalon?
hypothalamus and thalamus
87
what heart chamber is most anterioir?
right ventricle
88
definition of Km
michaelus menten constant- the substrate concentration where the initial rate of reaction is 0.5 the max
89
as km increases what happens to the affinity?
decreases
90
is the substrate has a low Km what does it mean?
substrate only requires a little amount of substrate to work at 0.5 v max
91
is a competative inhibitor reversible?
yes
92
is a non-competative inhibitor reversible?
yes and no
93
is the 1/2 vmax same/different for competative inhibition?
same
94
is km same/different for competative inhibitor?
diff its higher
95
is the 1/2 vmax same/different for non-competative inhibition?
diff and lower
96
is km same/different for non-competative inhibitor?
km same
97
what is y intercept on lineweaver burkwood plot?
Vmax
98
what is the x intercept on lineweaver burkwood plot?
km
99
diagnostic test for virus?
PCR diagnosis
100
diagnostic test for bacteria?
cell culture
101
what type of respiration is clostridium?
strict anaerobe
102
what type of resp is legionella?
strict aerobe
103
what type of resp is pseudonomas?
strict aerobe
104
what antibiotic is first line for gm negative bacilli?
gentamicin
105
d: anueploidy
whole/extra/missing chomosome
106
d: translocation
rearrangement of chromosomes
107
trisomy 21 aka?
downs syndrome
108
trisomy 14 aka?
miscarriage
109
trisomy 18 aka?
edwards syndrome
110
missing one chromosome aka?
turner syndrome
111
extra chromosome x or y 47 XXY?
kleinfelter
112
what is the 1st line genetic test to detect any missing chromosomes?
CGH Microarray
113
when is FISH used?
to check for cancerous genes
114
what is the rsik in autosomal dominant of child being affected?
50%
115
what is the rsik in autosomal recesssive of child being affected?
25% if parent carries
116
x-linked disease is passed on by whom to who and is it dominant or recessive?
mom-son
| recessive
117
what chromosome is affected in angelman syndrome?
15
118
what is x inactivation?
a cell only requires 1 x chromosome to work, so one becomes inactivated, if the activated one is mutation may give rise to colorblindness for eg
119
is the penetrance high or low for mendilian disorders
high
120
what protein normally stops cell division and what does it bind to instead so E2F can start cell division?
pRB and CDK2/4 binds instead
121
what cyclin binds to what CDK?
d-4
e and A -2
B and 1
122
where are the 3 checkpoints in the cell cycle?
cell size and damage at the end of G1
p53 at the end of G2
at the end of mitosis- check if chromosomes have correctly attatched
123
d:stage
how far tumour has grown
124
d: grade
how far differentiated the tumour is
125
what forms urea?
ammonia
126
in ETC what complex does not use the proton pump gradient?
complex II
127
what is the only part of the krebs cycle to be integrated into inner mitochondrial membrane?
succinate dehydrogenase
128
what enzyme forma the peptide bond?
peptidyl transferase enzyme
129
what polymerae synthesises all DNA?
II
130
what is the definition of pka
equal to the pH value at which equal concentrations of the acid and conjugate base forms of a substance (often a buffer) are present.
131
what cells involved in humoral response?
b cells
132
where are complement proteins produced?
liver
133
what region are igM and IgG activated by?
Fc receptor
134
what enzyme coverts C3 to C3a and b and via what?
C3 convertase and via MBL binding to mannose on pathogen
135
purpose of C3b?
binds to other complement proteins to activated C5 covertase and hence produce C5b
136
purpose of C5b?
forms MAC inducing pathogen killing
137
name the 2 initial cells in the earl;y immune response?
mast cell and macrophage
138
how does macrophage kill?
phagocytosis
139
how does mast cell kill?
degranulation
140
what is present of macrophages and mast cells that allow pathogens to bing?
PRRs bind to PAMPs on pathogen
141
what cells produce antibodies?
b cells
142
what is a germinal centre?
b cells proliferate and dofferentiate
143
what do b cells differentiate into?
plasma cells and memory cells
144
what is the composition of antibodies?
2 light chains, 2 heavy chains and an unique variable region
145
when is the embryonic period between?
3-8wks
146
what does ectoderm lead to?
nervous system and skin
147
what derm forms cardio layer?
LATERAL PLATE MESODERM
148
what derm forms resp tract and lining of gut tube?
endo
149
what is the neurotransmitter for postgangilionic sympathetic nerves?
noradrenaline
150
where is noradrenaline produced?
adrena glands in kidney
151
what is the flow of sympathetic nerves?
throacolumbar
152
what is flow of prarasympathetic?
brainstem
153
what part of ABCDE are glucose sats checked?
d disability
154
what is the out bone in the lower limb?
fibia
155
what function does CRP have?
oponisation
156
which one are the tarsels hand/foot?
feet
157
f: flagella
locomotion of cells,
158
what is malaria an infection of?
protozoa
159
do parasympathetic nerves affect BV?
non
160
what happens to end translation once stop codon is reached?
A termination protein binds to the codon, and
blocks access to the ribosome's A site.
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthesase cleaves the protein
from the ribosome
161
what percentage of steady state does 1 half life equal?
50%
162
how many cervical spinal nerves are there in total?
8
163
how many cervical spinal vertebrae are there?
7
164
what comes from the ectoderm?
nervous system
165
what comes from the mesoderm?
axial skeleton and voluntary muscles and cardiovascular system
166
where does the lining of the respiratory tract come from? derm?
endoderm
167
what type of absorption is this: rapid absorption bypassing portal system and avoiding 1st pass metabolism? eg oral, iv, im buccal, sublingual, inhaled
buccal
168
does levofloxacin cause c diff?
yes
169
what is the only cranial nerve to connect at CNS to the pons?
trigeminal
170
how are GLUT 4 and insulin transported through the cell membrane?
exocytosis
171
how can pseudonomas be treated?
ciprofloxacin
