Previous Exams Flashcards
1
Q
Which types hemoglobin incorporates 2,3 DPG
A
Reduced hemoglobin
Deoxyhemoglobin
Tense
2
Q
What cell line is not a product of the CFU-GEMM
A
Lymphocyte
3
Q
2,3 DPG is important to
A
oxygen affinity
4
Q
The deformability of RBC is a result of _____ in the cytoskeleton
A
actin and spectrin
5
Q
What cellular element is not in plasma?
A
Platelets
6
Q
What is not a formed element of the blood
A
Fibrinogen
7
Q
A cell that is NOT found in the normal peripheral blood smear is a/an
A
orthochromatic normoblast
8
Q
Blasts (secondary stem cells) usually have
A
deeply basophilic cytoplasm and nucleoli
9
Q
Iron exists in the normal hemoglobin molecule (in the oxygen carrying state) as
A
Ferrous 2+
10
Q
What are the three types of hemoglobin in a normal adult
A
A1
F
A2
11
Q
RBC are capable of mitosis through the following stage
A
polychromatophilic normoblast
12
Q
The mature RBC has
A
pink cytoplasm
13
Q
ATP is generated by the
A
Embden-Meyerhoff pathway
14
Q
In looking at a bone marrow preparation, you see a cell like the one at the arrow with deeply blue cytoplasm, a large nucleus in relation to the rest of the cell, and the chromatin is finely reticular with nucleoli present. This is probably a/an
A
pronormoblast
15
Q
In response to hypoxia, a hormone is produced to stimulate the production of RBC. This is produced by the
A
kidney
16
Q
The initial precursors in heme synthesis are
A
Succinyl CoA, Glycine, and delta ALA
17
Q
The liquid component of the blood is approximately ____% of whole blood.
A
55
18
Q
Globin synthesis occurs in the
A
ribosome
19
Q
Erythropoiesis is the formation of
A
red blood cells
20
Q
What single feature of normal RBC’s is most responsible for limiting their life span?
A
loss of nucleus
21
Q
Hemoglobin A1 (aka Hb A) consists of two types of globin chains
A
alpha and beta
22
Q
In response to hypoxia, a hormone is produced to stimulate the production of RBC. This is called
A
erythropoietin
23
Q
Hemoglobin molecule that does not carry oxygen is called
A
reduced hemoglobin
24
Q
HbF is comprised of
A
2 alpha and 2 gamma chains
25
Hepcidin (from the liver)
rises when transferrin saturation is high
26
Primitive RBC's are being formed ___________of fetal development
within 2 weeks of conception
27
Hemoglobin contains
an iron containing portion called heme and a protein portion called globin
28
When you performed the hemoglobin and hematocrit assays in lab, you
checked the rule of three before resulting your values
29
Reticulocytes are cells seen immediately following the loss of the _____ .
nucleus
30
Protein synthesis occurs in the
ribosome
31
You are looking at a bone marrow preparation and you see a cell like this with a relatively small nucleus; coarse clumped, pyknotic (dense) nucleus; with a cytoplasm that is predominantly red-pink with very little basophilia. This is probably a/an
orthochromatic normoblast
32
Anisocytosis is a variation in the _____ of erythrocytes.
size
33
RBC's exhibiting macrocytes and microcytes would be termed
anisocytes
34
The report "RBC's appear hypochromic" indicates which of the following
the color of the cells is decreased
35
A cell not normally present in peripheral blood is a
pronormoblast
36
Cytokines, in hematopoiesis, are
hormones which stimulate cell production
37
As RBC age or die, their
size decreases
38
Cells are identified according to
cell size, nuclear characteristics, and cytoplasmic characteristics
39
RBC's that exhibit a variety of shapes are called
poikilocytes
40
The cyanmethemoglobin method requires a spectrophotometer set to
540 nm
41
The term that generally refers to the formation of blood is
hematopoiesis
42
Which of the following are embryonic hemoglobins
Gowers I and II
43
The initial blood forming organ is the
yolk sac
44
The enzyme within the hexose monophosphate pathway that, when deficient, leaves cells vulnerable to oxidative damage and possible hemolysis is
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
45
Transferrin functions in transporting ________________ to the developing RBC
iron
46
Methemoglobin is hemoglobin that
contains iron in the 3+ state
47
In infectious mononucleosis, lymphocytes tend to be:
enlarged and indented by surrounding structures
48
What cell does not have a WBC line
megakaryocytic
49
Bands
have a sausage shaped nucleus
50
An increase in neutrophilic bands (and earlier cells) would be considered
a shift to the left
51
basophils: _____%
0-1
52
The cell seen under the microscope that has a round to oval nucleus with 'robins egg blue ' cytoplasm is a/an
lymphocyte
53
The normal WBC count is approximately
5.0-10.0 X 103/mm3
54
Promyelocytes
have nonspecific granules
55
Reactive lymphocytes may best be distinguished from blasts by which of the following morphologic characteristics?
basophilic cytoplasm
56
Cells that arise in response to viral infections are
lymphocytes
57
Is the presence of band neutrophils normal in the differential? If so, how many would be considered normal?
yes, 0 to 5
58
Metamyelocytes
have a kidney shaped nucleus
59
Bands
have a sausage shaped nucleus (think links)
60
A cell not normally found in the peripheral blood might be
metamyelocyte
61
The least commonly seen WBC in a normal adult smear is
basophil
62
Granulocytes are characterized SOLELY by the presence of
specific granules in the cytoplasm
63
The following cells are granulocytes
myelocytes, metamyelocytes, bands
64
Myeloblasts
have no granules in their cytoplasm
65
lymphocytes: ____%
20-30
66
The earliest differentiated cell of the lymphocytic series is the
lymphoblast
67
The cell/s that contain rose-violet granules with standard staining techniques are called
neutrophils
68
According to an Arneth count, a decrease in the number of multi-segmented neutrophils is
shift to the left
69
monocytes: ____%
4-8
70
Neutrophils are associated with
infections
71
The granules in a basophil contain
histamine and heparin
72
The cell most usually seen in an adult with a bacterial urinary tract infection is a/an
neutrophil
73
segmented neutrophil: _____%
50-65
74
Myelocytes
can be either neutrophilic, eosinophilic, or basophilic
75
The mature neutrophil normally exhibits ______ lobe/s
3-5
76
eosinophils: ____%
2-4
77
Leukopoiesis is the formation of
white blood cells
78
Differentiation of the granules in the WBC takes place at which stage
myelocyte
79
Blasts (secondary stem cells) usually have
deeply basophilic cytoplasm and nucleoli
80
The process whereby blood is ready and able to become a solid in a needed area; and remain flowing as a liquid elsewhere is
hemostasis
81
The function of factor XIII is
stabilize fibrin monomers
82
A patient presents with deep bleeding and possible hemearthroses. There is no evidence of a wound. Which of the following is likely responsible?
primary hemostasis
83
Which factors are involved in activating the intrinsic system and require contact with a negatively charged surface for their activation?
factors XII, XI, kallikrein, HMWK
84
The average life span of a platelet in the peripheral blood is approximately ________ days.
10
85
The soluble pieces formed during fibrinolysis are called
fibrin split products
86
As part of clot initiation, platelets release
All of these
87
Platelet production is regulated by
Thrombopoietin
88
The average platelet count ranges from __________ of whole blood.
150 - 400 x 103/µl
89
A patient is placed on heparin therapy. The dosage is monitored using the following test:
partial thromboplastin time
90
A patient is placed on Plavix therapy. The dosage is monitored using the following test:
none of these
91
In the extrinsic pathway, which of the following is NOT a part of the activation of factor X
HMWK
92
Which coagulation factor can activate plasminogen
XII
93
Match the coagulation factors to their customary name:
| I
Fibrinogen
94
Match the coagulation factors to their customary name
| II
Prothrombin
95
Match the coagulation factors to their customary name
| IV
Ionic calcium
96
Match the coagulation factors to their customary name
| VIII
antihemophilic factor
97
Match the coagulation factors to their customary name
| IX
Christmas factor
98
Match the coagulation factors to their customary name
| XII
Hageman factor
99
Match the coagulation factors to their customary name
| XIII
Fibrin stabilizing factor
100
Platelets begin to be separated by ______________ within the megakaryocyte.
demarcation membrane system
101
The "cascade" theories state that most of the activated coagulation factors function as
enzymes
102
Thrombocytosis is classified as
Platelet count more than 500 x 103/µl
103
A patient presents with purpura and epistaxis. Which of the following tests might be abnormal?
platelets
104
Following repair of the tissue, when the clot is no longer needed it is removed by
fibrinolysis
105
Each of the following is involved in hemostasis except
regulation of blood pressure
106
What is it called when platelets bind to the blood vessel surface?
platelet adhesion
107
Which describes the events involved in secondary hemostasis?
lead to the formation of a chemically stable fibrin clot
108
Which of the following is NOT a function of platelet
carry nutrients
109
The antihemophilic factor is
VIII
110
What activates the intrinsic pathway
exposure to negatively charged surfaces
111
Approximately what portion of the platelets released into the circulating bloodstream are sequestered in the spleen
1/3
112
What bone marrow cell is the precursor of platelets?
megakaryocyte
113
The process of breaking down a clot is called
fibrinolysis
114
The proteolytic enzyme that is responsible for fibrinolysis
plasmin
