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MDL 125 Hematology > Previous Exams > Flashcards

Previous Exams Flashcards

1
Q

Which types hemoglobin incorporates 2,3 DPG

A

Reduced hemoglobin
Deoxyhemoglobin
Tense

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2
Q

What cell line is not a product of the CFU-GEMM

A

Lymphocyte

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3
Q

2,3 DPG is important to

A

oxygen affinity

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4
Q

The deformability of RBC is a result of _____ in the cytoskeleton

A

actin and spectrin

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5
Q

What cellular element is not in plasma?

A

Platelets

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6
Q

What is not a formed element of the blood

A

Fibrinogen

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7
Q

A cell that is NOT found in the normal peripheral blood smear is a/an

A

orthochromatic normoblast

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8
Q

Blasts (secondary stem cells) usually have

A

deeply basophilic cytoplasm and nucleoli

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9
Q

Iron exists in the normal hemoglobin molecule (in the oxygen carrying state) as

A

Ferrous 2+

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10
Q

What are the three types of hemoglobin in a normal adult

A

A1
F
A2

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11
Q

RBC are capable of mitosis through the following stage

A

polychromatophilic normoblast

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12
Q

The mature RBC has

A

pink cytoplasm

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13
Q

ATP is generated by the

A

Embden-Meyerhoff pathway

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14
Q

In looking at a bone marrow preparation, you see a cell like the one at the arrow with deeply blue cytoplasm, a large nucleus in relation to the rest of the cell, and the chromatin is finely reticular with nucleoli present. This is probably a/an

A

pronormoblast

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15
Q

In response to hypoxia, a hormone is produced to stimulate the production of RBC. This is produced by the

A

kidney

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16
Q

The initial precursors in heme synthesis are

A

Succinyl CoA, Glycine, and delta ALA

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17
Q

The liquid component of the blood is approximately ____% of whole blood.

A

55

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18
Q

Globin synthesis occurs in the

A

ribosome

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19
Q

Erythropoiesis is the formation of

A

red blood cells

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20
Q

What single feature of normal RBC’s is most responsible for limiting their life span?

A

loss of nucleus

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21
Q

Hemoglobin A1 (aka Hb A) consists of two types of globin chains

A

alpha and beta

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22
Q

In response to hypoxia, a hormone is produced to stimulate the production of RBC. This is called

A

erythropoietin

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23
Q

Hemoglobin molecule that does not carry oxygen is called

A

reduced hemoglobin

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24
Q

HbF is comprised of

A

2 alpha and 2 gamma chains

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25
Q

Hepcidin (from the liver)

A

rises when transferrin saturation is high

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26
Q

Primitive RBC’s are being formed ___________of fetal development

A

within 2 weeks of conception

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27
Q

Hemoglobin contains

A

an iron containing portion called heme and a protein portion called globin

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28
Q

When you performed the hemoglobin and hematocrit assays in lab, you

A

checked the rule of three before resulting your values

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29
Q

Reticulocytes are cells seen immediately following the loss of the _____ .

A

nucleus

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30
Q

Protein synthesis occurs in the

A

ribosome

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31
Q

You are looking at a bone marrow preparation and you see a cell like this with a relatively small nucleus; coarse clumped, pyknotic (dense) nucleus; with a cytoplasm that is predominantly red-pink with very little basophilia. This is probably a/an

A

orthochromatic normoblast

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32
Q

Anisocytosis is a variation in the _____ of erythrocytes.

A

size

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33
Q

RBC’s exhibiting macrocytes and microcytes would be termed

A

anisocytes

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34
Q

The report “RBC’s appear hypochromic” indicates which of the following

A

the color of the cells is decreased

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35
Q

A cell not normally present in peripheral blood is a

A

pronormoblast

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36
Q

Cytokines, in hematopoiesis, are

A

hormones which stimulate cell production

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37
Q

As RBC age or die, their

A

size decreases

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38
Q

Cells are identified according to

A

cell size, nuclear characteristics, and cytoplasmic characteristics

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39
Q

RBC’s that exhibit a variety of shapes are called

A

poikilocytes

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40
Q

The cyanmethemoglobin method requires a spectrophotometer set to

A

540 nm

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41
Q

The term that generally refers to the formation of blood is

A

hematopoiesis

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42
Q

Which of the following are embryonic hemoglobins

A

Gowers I and II

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43
Q

The initial blood forming organ is the

A

yolk sac

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44
Q

The enzyme within the hexose monophosphate pathway that, when deficient, leaves cells vulnerable to oxidative damage and possible hemolysis is

A

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

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45
Q

Transferrin functions in transporting ________________ to the developing RBC

A

iron

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46
Q

Methemoglobin is hemoglobin that

A

contains iron in the 3+ state

47
Q

In infectious mononucleosis, lymphocytes tend to be:

A

enlarged and indented by surrounding structures

48
Q

What cell does not have a WBC line

A

megakaryocytic

49
Q

Bands

A

have a sausage shaped nucleus

50
Q

An increase in neutrophilic bands (and earlier cells) would be considered

A

a shift to the left

51
Q

basophils: _____%

A

0-1

52
Q

The cell seen under the microscope that has a round to oval nucleus with ‘robins egg blue ‘ cytoplasm is a/an

A

lymphocyte

53
Q

The normal WBC count is approximately

A

5.0-10.0 X 103/mm3

54
Q

Promyelocytes

A

have nonspecific granules

55
Q

Reactive lymphocytes may best be distinguished from blasts by which of the following morphologic characteristics?

A

basophilic cytoplasm

56
Q

Cells that arise in response to viral infections are

A

lymphocytes

57
Q

Is the presence of band neutrophils normal in the differential? If so, how many would be considered normal?

A

yes, 0 to 5

58
Q

Metamyelocytes

A

have a kidney shaped nucleus

59
Q

Bands

A

have a sausage shaped nucleus (think links)

60
Q

A cell not normally found in the peripheral blood might be

A

metamyelocyte

61
Q

The least commonly seen WBC in a normal adult smear is

A

basophil

62
Q

Granulocytes are characterized SOLELY by the presence of

A

specific granules in the cytoplasm

63
Q

The following cells are granulocytes

A

myelocytes, metamyelocytes, bands

64
Q

Myeloblasts

A

have no granules in their cytoplasm

65
Q

lymphocytes: ____%

A

20-30

66
Q

The earliest differentiated cell of the lymphocytic series is the

A

lymphoblast

67
Q

The cell/s that contain rose-violet granules with standard staining techniques are called

A

neutrophils

68
Q

According to an Arneth count, a decrease in the number of multi-segmented neutrophils is

A

shift to the left

69
Q

monocytes: ____%

A

4-8

70
Q

Neutrophils are associated with

A

infections

71
Q

The granules in a basophil contain

A

histamine and heparin

72
Q

The cell most usually seen in an adult with a bacterial urinary tract infection is a/an

A

neutrophil

73
Q

segmented neutrophil: _____%

A

50-65

74
Q

Myelocytes

A

can be either neutrophilic, eosinophilic, or basophilic

75
Q

The mature neutrophil normally exhibits ______ lobe/s

A

3-5

76
Q

eosinophils: ____%

A

2-4

77
Q

Leukopoiesis is the formation of

A

white blood cells

78
Q

Differentiation of the granules in the WBC takes place at which stage

A

myelocyte

79
Q

Blasts (secondary stem cells) usually have

A

deeply basophilic cytoplasm and nucleoli

80
Q

The process whereby blood is ready and able to become a solid in a needed area; and remain flowing as a liquid elsewhere is

A

hemostasis

81
Q

The function of factor XIII is

A

stabilize fibrin monomers

82
Q

A patient presents with deep bleeding and possible hemearthroses. There is no evidence of a wound. Which of the following is likely responsible?

A

primary hemostasis

83
Q

Which factors are involved in activating the intrinsic system and require contact with a negatively charged surface for their activation?

A

factors XII, XI, kallikrein, HMWK

84
Q

The average life span of a platelet in the peripheral blood is approximately ________ days.

A

10

85
Q

The soluble pieces formed during fibrinolysis are called

A

fibrin split products

86
Q

As part of clot initiation, platelets release

A

All of these

87
Q

Platelet production is regulated by

A

Thrombopoietin

88
Q

The average platelet count ranges from __________ of whole blood.

A

150 - 400 x 103/µl

89
Q

A patient is placed on heparin therapy. The dosage is monitored using the following test:

A

partial thromboplastin time

90
Q

A patient is placed on Plavix therapy. The dosage is monitored using the following test:

A

none of these

91
Q

In the extrinsic pathway, which of the following is NOT a part of the activation of factor X

A

HMWK

92
Q

Which coagulation factor can activate plasminogen

A

XII

93
Q

Match the coagulation factors to their customary name:

I

A

Fibrinogen

94
Q

Match the coagulation factors to their customary name

II

A

Prothrombin

95
Q

Match the coagulation factors to their customary name

IV

A

Ionic calcium

96
Q

Match the coagulation factors to their customary name

VIII

A

antihemophilic factor

97
Q

Match the coagulation factors to their customary name

IX

A

Christmas factor

98
Q

Match the coagulation factors to their customary name

XII

A

Hageman factor

99
Q

Match the coagulation factors to their customary name

XIII

A

Fibrin stabilizing factor

100
Q

Platelets begin to be separated by ______________ within the megakaryocyte.

A

demarcation membrane system

101
Q

The “cascade” theories state that most of the activated coagulation factors function as

A

enzymes

102
Q

Thrombocytosis is classified as

A

Platelet count more than 500 x 103/µl

103
Q

A patient presents with purpura and epistaxis. Which of the following tests might be abnormal?

A

platelets

104
Q

Following repair of the tissue, when the clot is no longer needed it is removed by

A

fibrinolysis

105
Q

Each of the following is involved in hemostasis except

A

regulation of blood pressure

106
Q

What is it called when platelets bind to the blood vessel surface?

A

platelet adhesion

107
Q

Which describes the events involved in secondary hemostasis?

A

lead to the formation of a chemically stable fibrin clot

108
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of platelet

A

carry nutrients

109
Q

The antihemophilic factor is

A

VIII

110
Q

What activates the intrinsic pathway

A

exposure to negatively charged surfaces

111
Q

Approximately what portion of the platelets released into the circulating bloodstream are sequestered in the spleen

A

1/3

112
Q

What bone marrow cell is the precursor of platelets?

A

megakaryocyte

113
Q

The process of breaking down a clot is called

A

fibrinolysis

114
Q

The proteolytic enzyme that is responsible for fibrinolysis

A

plasmin

MDL 125 Hematology (4 decks)

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