PrepU Teaching/Learning Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse teaches a client with angina pectoris 3 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets at 5-minute intervals should be taken, and ot immediately notify provider if chest pain doesn’t subside within 15 minutes. What symptoms may the client experience after taking nitroglycerin?
A. Nausea, vomiting, depression, fatigue, impotence
B. Flushing, dizziness, headache, and pedal edema
C. Sedation, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and resp. depression
D. Headache, hypotension, dizziness and flushing

A

D. nitroglycerin is a vasodilator. Vasodilators, beta-adrenergic blockers, and calcium channel blockers are 3 major classes of drugs used to treat angina pectoris.
-Nausea, vomiting, depression, fatigue, and impotence are adverse effects of propranolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker.
-Sedation, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and resp. depression are common adverse effects of morphine, an opioid analgesic that relieves pain associated with acute myocardial infarction.
-Flushing, dizziness, headache, and pedal edema are common adverse effects of nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker.

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2
Q

The nurse is administering a new medication to an elderly male client and begins instruction about the medication. The client states, “Tell my wife. She takes care of all this kind of stuff.” The nurse replies:
A. It is necessary that you learn about this medication.
B. I will print out some information for you to give to your wife.
C. When your wife comes to visit, I will return and provide the information to both of you.

A

C. Family members should be involved in teaching session when possible/appropriate. The client is giving permission with his statement to include his spouse.

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3
Q

A nurse caring for a veteran with musculoskeletal pain (MSP) is assisting the family to understand the requirements and demands placed on our military service members and veterans. Which statement acknowledges a truth about this population?
A. Ongoing physical tasks and strength bearing demands pain endurance.
B. Service members who require analgesic are discharged.
C. Military members are expected to be fit, strong, and healthy.

A

A. MSP is caused by injuries/disorders of the joints, muscles, tendons, or ligaments to the bones, muscles, nerves, and/or connective tissue. Combat injuries (polytrauma, blast injuries) and noncombat injuries (muscle strain, overuse) can lead to chronic MSP.
-Reviews of incidence, prevalence, and risk factors for MSP and headaches in active duty showed that inflammation and pain from overuse comprised the largest proportion of injury (82% of all nondeployed military personnel). Risk was highest among active duty, female, Army, enlisted personnel, and those with greater time in a motor vehicle. For veterans who sustained a TBI, 92% reported headaches.
-Ongoing physical tasks, activities, and strength bearing demands require service members to coalesce and serve their unit to accomplish the mission, often done under duress that cannot be avoided and mandates enduring pain.
-“Apparently” surgeries, procedures, and medications of all types are prescribed as needed and do not necessitate a medical discharge from the military because of this need. (?)

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4
Q

The nurse is teaching an elderly client about heart failure. What action with the nurse take to enhance learning?
A. Sit in a chair a few feet away from the client.
B. Look at notes to make sure all important information has been covered.
C. Frequently repeat the provided information
D. Cover all information in one session.

A

C. Effective teaching strategies for older adults includes frequent repetition of information.
-Giving small amounts of information in multiples session is most effective for learning.
-The nurse needs to look at the client rather than notes to assist the client with speech reading.

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5
Q

Which statement, if made y an adolescent preparing for abdominal surgery, would indicate to the nurse that the client requires additional instruction?
A. The better I eat before surgery, the more likely I will heal.
B. Eating a lot of vitamin C and Protein will help me to heal.
C. The surgery may make me feel nauseas
D. After this fasting, I am looking forward to a hamburger and fries once I wake up.

A

D. Progressive dietary intake is ordered after surgery depending on the client’s recovery. In most cases, this progresses from clear fluids to full fluids to diet as tolerated. For this reason, a burger and fries would be contraindicated immediately after surgery. All other statements are accurate.

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6
Q

When the nurse gives a client and family instructions after laryngeal surgery, which does the nurse indicate should be avoided?
A. Wearing a scarf over the stoma
B. coughing
C. Taking handheld showers
D. Swimming

A

D. Water should never enter the stoma because it will flow from the trachea to the lungs. The client can wear a scarf over the stoma and encourages the client to cough every 2 hours to promote effective gas exchange.

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7
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with Raynaud’s disease. What are important instructions for a client who is diagnosed with this disease to prevent an attack?
A. Avoid fatty foods and exercise
B. Avoid situations that contribute to ischemic episodes
C. Report any changes in pain other than the usual pain patterns
D. Take over-the-counter decongestants

A

B.
-Reporting changes in pain patterns and avoiding fatty foods and exercise does not help attack avoidance, rather more relative for a client with CAD. Clients with Raynaud’s disease should avoid over-the-counter decongestants.

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8
Q

The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old child new to insulin therapy. Which intervention(s) is appropriate to use with a 7-year-old child? SATA
A. Use concise and concrete terms when instructing
B. Allow clients to make choices in relation to care
C. Have a parent do a return demonstration of insulin administration.
D. Provide a doll for the client to give a shot with a needleless syringe
E. Encourage the client to stop extracurricular activities at school for the first few months.

A

All but E. Participation is encouraged so the child should be given choices as much as possible. Practicing on a doll may give the client confidence before giving themselves injections. The parent will need to supervise the child so the parent must know what to do. Keep routine as normal as possible to encourage a normal life and better adjustment.

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9
Q

Example of community-oriented nurse?

A

Nurse working a booth at a health fair performing blood pressure and glucose screenings.
-Community-oriented nursing targets improving the health status of groups of clients or individuals in the community.
-Community-based nursing is directed towards individuals and families with needs related to illness, injury or disability.

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10
Q

The nurse is working with a mother whose unborn child was diagnosed with Down syndrome. The nurse explains to the mother that Down syndrome occurs as a result of which genetic issue?

A

Chromosome nondisjunction: when a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely (nondisjunction), the resulting sperm or oocyte contains two copies or no copy of a particular chromosome. This can result in a fertilized egg having trisomy 21, or Down syndrome.

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11
Q

Postoperatively, a client with a radical neck dissection should be placed in which position?
A. Side-lying
B. Fowler
C. Prone
D. Supine

A

B. Facilitates breathing and promotes comfort. Expands the lungs because the diaphragm is pulled downward and the abdominal viscera are pulled away from the lungs.

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12
Q

A client with an IUD is at increased risk of systemic infection, which would present with?

A

declining vital signs, high fever, chills, and weakness.

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13
Q

Vaginal discharge and lower abdominal tenderness suggest what disease?

A

pelvic inflammatory disease.

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14
Q

A nurse is teaching the client about the causes of fast heart rates. What client statement indicates the client requires more teaching?
A. I will take my levothyroxine daily.
B. I will drink coffee with only two of my meals.
C. Taking metoprolol will help me regulate my heart rate.

A

B.

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15
Q

Which may occur if a client experiences compartment syndrom in an upper extremity?
A. subluxation
B. callus
C. volkmann’s contracture
D. whiplash injury

A

C. Volkmann’s contracture, a claw-like deformity of the hand resulting from obstructed arterial blood flow to the forearm and hand.
-Whiplash injury is a cervical spine sprain.
Callus refers to healing mass that occurs with true bone formation after a fracture.
-Subluxation refers to a partial dislocation.

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16
Q

Donepezil hydrochloride prescribed for Alheimer’s disease should include what statement in teaching?

A

The drug helps to control the symptoms of the disease. It is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to control symptoms. It does not cure or slow progression.
Cognitive ability typically improves within 6-12 months of therapy, but if stopped, cognitive progression occurs. It is recommended that treatment continue at least through the moderate stage of illness. However, it is usually not prescribed as life-long therapy.

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17
Q

The Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) for a hemorrhoidectomy. What would the nurse discuss in the discharge plan?

A

The client should expect pain with bowel movements and begin stool softeners in the post-operative period.

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18
Q

What is the key clinical manifestation of internal hemorrhoids?

A

bleeding.

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19
Q

What is a key characteristic of extern hemorrhoids?

A

Itching, difficult to clean rectal area

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20
Q

When is pain experienced after a hemorrhoidectomy?

A

The first bowel movement is the most difficult and painful. Pain can persist for up to 3 weeks post surgery as the area heals. Opiates may be prescribed for the first couple of days after surgery, then over-the-counter medications should suffice.

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21
Q

What teachings can aid the client in bowel movement ease after hemorrhoidectomy

A

-High fiber diet, low carbohydrate, and increase fluid intake. Laxatives and stool softeners are commonly prescribed. Incompetence may occur while healing, however, diarrhea may indicate too much laxatives than recommended.

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22
Q

A client reports after a back massage that his lower back pain has decreased from 8 to 3 on the pain scale. What opioid neuromodulator may be responsible for this increased level of comfort?

A

Release of endorphins and enkephalins- have prolonged analgesic effects and produces euphoria.

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23
Q

What symptom is a common symptom associated with a diagnosis of mild cognitive impairment and later, dementia, with a gradual loss or inability to use coordinated and purposeful movement to complete tasks? Tasks that have been done repeatedly throughout the client’s life such as tying shoes, getting dressed, or feeding themselves?

A

Apraxia

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24
Q

What actions can be used to help someone with apraxia?

A

Using verbal cues to assist the pt. in being able to complete the task independently (example: the laces cross over and under” . Patience is key.
-Teach about the symptom and what to look for with progression to other areas of actions (showering, cooking, etc), in which the pt. may be encouraged to wear slip-on shoes without laces.

25
Q

What symptom is characterized by mistaking objects for other objects, such as a toothbrush for a hairbrush?

A

Agnosia

26
Q

What symptom is characterized by a mood state in which a person no longer finds previously enjoyed activities pleasurable, such as previous hobbies?

A

Anhedonia

27
Q

What symptom is characterized by an inability to recall words to describe a thought?

A

Aphasia

28
Q

A school nurse is providing a class on sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which statement is correct regarding STIs?
A. STIs disproportionately affect people with lower socioeconomic status and education.
B. STIs are decreasing due to limited partners
C. STI symptoms are obvious
D. STIs are most prevalent among adolescents and young adults.

A

D. Nearly 2/3 occur in people younger than 25 y.o.
-STIs are increasing due to multiple sex partners and sexual activity at a younger age.

29
Q

A young female client has received chemotherapeutic medications and asks about any effects the treatment will have related to her sexual health. The most appropriate statement by the nurse is:
A. You will continue having your menses every month.
B. You will no longer be able to have children.
C. You will need to practice birth control measures.
D. You will begin menopause now.

A

C. Clients may experience normal ovulation, early menopause, or permanent sterility. Birth control is important until the medication is not longer being taken and reproductivity is known.

30
Q

A group of students are reviewing the various antianginal agents. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they identify what as a beta blocker?
A. Metoprolol
B. Nadolol
C. Isosorbide
D. Propanolol

A

C. This is a nitrate

31
Q

When planning discharge education with an 81-year-old cl. with mild short-term memory, what education techniques would be most effective?

A

-Keep teaching periods short
-set short-term goals
-provide glare-free lighting
-link new information with familiar information
-use visual and auditory cues

32
Q

A client should administer 1 unit of insulin for every —- g of carbohydrates

A

15

33
Q

What instructions can be give to the parents of a 7-y.o. girl discharged after treatment for nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Meet with a dietitian to plan meals
  • finding meal replacement with less sodium (restriction of sodium unnecessary unless edematous)
    -Protein-rich snack encouraged.
    -simple written instructions
34
Q

What causes caput succedaneum of a newborn?

A

Pressure from the uterus or vaginal wall during a head-first delivery.

35
Q

What condition during delivery is associated with the use of forceps?

A

Cephalohematoma.

36
Q

The critical care nurse is giving a report on a client they are caring for. The nurse uses the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to assess the level of consciousness (LOC) of a female client and reports to the on-coming nurse that the client has an LOC of 6. What does this indicate?
A. Stupor
B. Comatose
C. Normal
D. Somnolence

A

B. The scale consists of three parts: eye opening response, best verbal response, and best motor response.
Normal = 15
7 or less = comatose.

37
Q

The nurse if reviewing cellular structure in preparation for admitting a client with a genetic disorder. The nurse should be aware of what element that is found within the cytoplasm of the cell?
A. free ribosomes
B. channels
C. cholesterol
D. receptor protein

A

A

38
Q

A nurse is planning an educational program for families with a mentally ill relative. Which goal is consistent with the current objectives of family education?
A. Improved medication compliance
B. Fewer hospital admissions
C. Increased independence with ADLs
D. Improved family quality of life

A

D.

39
Q

Which is the most common tumor of the eyelid?

A

Basal cell carcinoma, followed by squamous cell.

40
Q

What is Rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

A malignant primary orbital tumor.

41
Q

A group of students is reviewing material about endocrine system function. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as secreted by the adrenal medulla?
A. mineralcorticoids
B. glucagon
C. epinephrine
D. glucocorticoids

A

C. Adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Adrenal cortex manufactures and secretes glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids, and small amounts of androgenic sex hormones.
Glucagon is released by the pancreas

42
Q

A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is admitted to the metabolic unit. The primary goal for this admission is education. Which goal should the nurse incorporate into her teaching?
A. maintenance of blood glucose levels between 180 and 200 mg/dl
B. weight reduction through diet and exercise
C. smoking reduction but not complete cessation
D. An eye exam every 2 years until age 50

A

B

43
Q

After an acute muscle strain injury, should ice or heat be applied, and for how long?

A

Ice for the first 24-48 hours to reduce swelling, then apply heat to promote reabsorption of blood and fluid, and speed healing.

44
Q

The nurse provides drug teaching to the client prescribed captopril. What statement made by the client does the nurse interpret to mean teaching has been effective?
A. I’ll take the drug in the morning so that I don’t have to go to the bathroom often at night.
B. I’ll increase my intake of potassium and bananas
C. I will call my doctor if I bruise easily or become extremely tired.
D. I will monitor for orthostatic hypotension.

A

C. Captopril has been associated with sometimes-fatal pancytopenia, cough, and unpleasant GI distress. Client should be alert for symptoms related to anemia, reduction in platelets, or infection.
A rise in potassium levels is already associated with this drug.

45
Q

The mental health nurse should focus on preventative efforts including educational interventions related to the abuse of prescription drugs on which client age group?

A

12-17 (both genders). Prescription drug abuse among you has been increasing at an alarming rate.

46
Q

A client has been diagnosed with a concussion and is to be released from the emergency department. The nurse teaches the family or friends who will be caring for the client to contact the physician or return to the ED if the client does what?

A

Vomits. This is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately. Headaches with a concussion is an expected abnormal observation, however, severe headache, weakness of one side of the body and difficulty in waking the client should be reported immediately.

47
Q

When may nausea or vomiting occur after a child is treated with chemotherapy?

A

24 hours or more after completion.

48
Q

What is the name of sores in the mouth that may develop following chemo treatment, which may contribute to anorexia?

A

Stomatitis (a common side effect of chemotherapy)

49
Q

Because chemotherapy makes one prone to bruising easily, what care must be taken?

A

To take extra care to protect the child from injury.

50
Q

Signs of sepsis or septic shock?

A

flushed/blue-looking skin, rapid/shallow breathing

51
Q

What is a complementary therapy that may be beneficial to pt. following chemotherapy that helps to rebuild healthy white blood cells?

A

Astragalus membranous therapy

52
Q

During client ed., the nurse is explaining to the newborn’s parent some physical characteristics of the newborn that are dif. from a full term newborn. Which physical characteristic(s) is expected from this preterm newborn? SATA
A. Newborn thin and bony in appearance
B. Upper and lower extremities have poor muscle tone
C. The clitoris and labia minora are less prominent
D. Fine, soft hair is abundant over the face and the back
E. The newborn has none to few creases in the soles and palms
F. The skull bones along the suture lines are soft and spongy.

A

All but C.
Poor muscle tone due to immature CNS and limited muscle mass.
-Bony and thin due to minimal subcutaneous fat.
-Lanugo still present
-Skin thin and transparent
*Preterm female infants have swollen clitoris and labia minora = prominent in appearance.

53
Q

What is the name of terrorism that involves using bombs or explosives to inflict injury on numerous ppl and cause multiple fatalities?

A

Mass trauma terrorism

54
Q

Which type of terrorism involves deliberate spread of pathogenic organisms into the community?

A

Bioterrorism

55
Q

Which type of terrorism involves deliberate release of a chemical compound for the purpose of causing mass destruction?

A

Chemical terrorism

56
Q

Which type of terrorism involves the dispersal of radioactive materials into the environment for the purpose of causing injury and death?

A

Nuclear terrorism

57
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant who states “I help my elderly parent with taking their medication, which is dutasteride.” The nurse should instruct the client to take which action?

A

Avoid touching any crushed / broken tablets.
Dutasteride contains androgenic hormone blockers that could be absorbed through the skin if tablets are crushed/broken. This could have negative effects on the fetus.

58
Q

At what age is Parkinson’s disease usually diagnosed?

A

60

59
Q
A