Oxygenation & Gas Exchange Flashcards

1
Q

A 4-m.o. infant has been admitted for moderate to severe resp. distress secondary to bronchiolitis. The infant has been suctioned, placed on oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 liters per minute, and is receiving IV fluid at 20 mL per hour via pump. After an hour, the infant’s O2 saturation has increased from 86% to 92%. What actions should the nurse take based on this assessment?
A. Decrease IV fluid rate and decrease the oxygen to 2 liters per hour
B. Notify the health care provider and anticipate weaning the infant from O2
C. Document assessment findings and continue to monitor infant
D. Increase the oxygen to 4 L per hour and suction infant as needed.

A

C. 92% is the minimum acceptable level. The infant should be monitored to make sure the level can be maintained. No changes are necessary at this time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What would be the physiologic bases for a placenta previa?
A. a uterus with a midseptum
B. a loose placental implantation
C. low placental implantation
D. a placenta with multiple lobes.

A

C.
cause unknown but is usually implanted low within uterus rather than higher up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which nursing diagnosis would BEST apply to a child with allergic rhinitis?
A. Pain related to sinus edema and headache
B. Risk for infection related to blocked eustachian tubes
C. Irritation from multiple nose bleeds
D. Low self-esteem due to inherited proneness to illness

A

A.
Many children with allergic rhinitis develop sinus headaches from edema of the upper airway.
Younger children= maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are involved.
Children 10 years and older = frontal sinuses involved.
Allergic rhinitis nor sinusitis are inherited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fetal circulation differs from the circulatory path of the newborn infant. In utero, the fetus has a hold connecting the right and left atria of the heart. This allows oxygenated blood to quickly pass to the major organs of the body. What is this hole called?

A

Foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In which position should the client be placed for a thoracentesis?
A. prone
B. supine
C. lateral recumbent
D. sitting on the edge of the bed

A

D: Place client upright or sitting on the edge of bed with feet supported and arms and head on a padded over-the-bed-table.
Other positions include straddling a chair with arms and head resting on the back of the chair, or lying on the unaffected side with the head of the bed elevated 30-45 degrees (if the client is unable to assume a sitting a position).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A nurse in the operating room has a client who just underwent gastric bypass surgery and weighs 243 kilograms (534.6 pounds). Upon extubation, the client’s oxygen saturation drops to 84% and the client has difficulty catching her breath. What could be causing these problems?
A. Anesthesia, which is causing the client to be more sleepy than usual
B. Progressive loss of muscle function
C. Pain is causing the pt. to have difficulty breathing
D. Obesity, which can limit chest wall expansion and compromise breathing

A

D. Extreme obesity can limit chest wall expansion (and thus compromise breathing).
-progressive loss of muscle function is related to muscular dystrophy
-pain and anesthesia would not cause decreased oxygen saturation and breathing difficulty???????

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The nurse if providing education to a 65-y.o. female client with pneumococcal pneumonia being discharged from the health clinic on oral antibiotics. The client is a nonsmoker, takes levothyroxine for Hashimoto disease, and is otherwise in good health.
For each client statement, click to specify if the findings indicates understanding or need for reinforcement of teaching.
A. I should get the PPSV23 this year because I got the PCV13 last year.
B. I will drink 1 liter of fluid each day.
C. I will perform deep breathing exercises once a day.

A

A: understanding
B. requires reinforcement (drink 2-3 liters of fluid per day)
C. requires reinforcement (not enough to inflate alveoli and prevent atelectasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A nurse is caring for a 9-y.o. child experiencing a severe asthma exacerbation with a dry hacking cough and wheezing. The child’s pulse oximeter reading is 88% (o.88). What is the nurse’s PRIORITY in caring for the child?
A. Administer oxygen as prescribed
B. Suction the nasopharynx
C. Auscultate the lungs
D. Educate the family on prevention methods.

A

A.
Think airway, breathing, and circulation. “ABC” = top priorities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A client reports recent onset of chest pain that occurs sporadically with exertion. The client also has fatigue and mild ankle swelling, which is most pronounced at the end of the day. The nurse suspects a cardiovascular disorder. What other client report increases the likelihood of a cardiovascular disorder?
A. insomnia
B. shortness of breath
C. Lower substernal pain
D. irritability

A

B.
Classic signs of cardiovascular dysfunction - shortness of breath, chest pain, palpitations, fainting, fatigue, and peripheral edema.
- Irritability can occur if cardiovascular dysfunction leads to cerebral oxygen deprivation (usually represents respiratory or neurologic dysfunction)
- lower substernal pain = some GI disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A critical care nurse is caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube who is on a ventilator. The nurse knows that meticulous management of this patient’s needs is necessary. What is the rationale for this?
A. Maintaining a patent airway
B. Preventing the need for suctioning
C. Decreasing the patient’s time on the ventilator
D. Increasing the patient’s lung compliance

A

A: Achieved through meticulous airway management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A school-age child with asthma has had an inhaled corticosteroid added to their treatment. Which instruction should the nurse ensure is included in the teaching session?
A. Use this medication with a metered-dose inhaler
B. This medication is to be used no more than twice in one week.
C. Take when feeling short of breath

A

A. Should be used on a daily basis, as they are “controller” or “maintenance” medications. Should be used via a meter-dosed inhaler, even if no symptoms are present.
Short-acting beta-agonists should not be used more than twice a week. (SABAs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False: Mucolytics are often used for patients with cystic fibrosis, COPD, or tuberculosis.

A

True. Mucolytics increase/liquefy respiratory secretions to aid the clearing of the airways in high-risk respiratory patients who are coughing up thick, tenacious secretions.
- Best used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cystic fibrosis, pneumonia, or tuberculosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The nurse is caring for a client status post adenoidectomy. The nurse finds the client in severe respiratory distress when entering the room. What does the nurse suspect?
A. Edema of the upper airway
B. infection
C. plugged tracheostomy tube
D. postoperative bleeding

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is a ventricular septal defect typically diagnosed?

A

4-8 weeks (not always evident at birth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Depending on the size of the defect, ventricular septal defect (VSD) symptoms can include:

A

tachypnea; tiring easily with feeding; presence of a left sternal murmur; failure to thrive; pulmonary circulatory overload ; rales or wheezing; grunting; (congestion, and frequent respiratory infections).; mild subcostal retractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should be checked first when suspected ventricular septal defect?

A

-electrocardiogram
-electrolyte levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is prescribed after ventricular septal defect is suspected (IV)?

A

Digoxin: assess vital signs every 15 minutes to evaluate response, update care plans, and implement additional interventions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why would a nurse need to monitor capillary refill time?

A

Refill time less than 3 seconds indicates adequacy of perfusion. Which factor is most likely to precipitate an asthmatic attack in a child with extrinsic, or atopic, asthma?
-Pallor and prolonged refill time suggests heart failure or reduced blood pressure with reactive vasoconstriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Best oxygen supply mechanism for an infant?

A

Simple mask (only if under normal %)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most atrial septal defects are asymptomatic. A very large defect can lead to what?

A

Heart failure; poor feeding; inability to keep up with peers; and difficulty growing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close with the first weeks of life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How might a ductus arteriosus be identified?

A

May be identified at birth with a systolic murmur located at the second intercostal space, left clavicular area.
If large = rales, difficulty feeding, or failure to thrive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Atrioventricular septal defect is comprised of several defects. What may one see with this condition?

A

increased pulmonary blood flow = symptoms of significant heart failure (can present early). May also have rales and loud murmur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Digoxin dosage rules:

A

Initial dosage = 20 mcg/kg (approximately 50% of total dose for an infant initially)
EX: Infant weight = 4.54 kg
(4.54 kg x 20 mcg/kg = 90.8 mcg)
90.8 mcg x 0.50 = 45.4 mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Differences between
-ventricular septal defect;
-atrial septal defects;
-patent ductus arteriosus;
-atrioventricular septal defect

A

-Ventricular septal defect: hole in the wall that separates the heart’s two lower chambers (ventricles) *congenital
-Atrial septal defect: hole in the wall separating heart’s two upper chambers (atria) *congenital
-patent ductus arteriosus: ductus arteriosus hole (a hole in between the pulmonary artery and the aorta) does not close within first week of life.
-atrioventricular septal defect: all four heart chambers are not distinctly formed and separated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If ventricular septal defect is large enough, it can present with what?

A

Heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What must happen to the workload when congestive heart failure is present?

A

Workload MUST be decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is workload on the heart decreased in the case of heart failure?

A

-Removing excess sodium & fluids
-slowing heart rate
-decreasing demands on the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Normal urine output

A

2 ml/kg/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Edema of the extremities are seen in heart failure, but also which organ impairment?

A

Renal impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The student nurse reports that the breath sounds of an infant are loud and harsh. How should the nurse best respond?
A. This is an indication of respiratory distress in infants
B. Administer oxygen
C. Request physician approval for a short course of antibiotics
D. Consider the report normal due to infants having a thinner chest wall.

A

D: breath sounds are typically louder and more bronchial in infants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The client with cardiac failure is taught to report which symptom to the health care provider or clinic immediately?
A. Increased appetite
B. Insomnia
C. persistent cough

A

C. = may indicate onset of left-sided heart failure.
-loss of appetite. - weight gain -interrupted sleep - unusual shortness of breath -increased swelling
ALL need immediate report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What two procedures can e done to improve the overall quality of life of a client with COPD?

A

-lung transplant (also for treating end-stage emphysema)
-bullectomy (for treating pt. with bullous emphysema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which organism most commonly causes community-acquired pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which bacterial organism is gram-positive, resides in the upper respiratory tract, colonizes the upper resp. tract and can cause disseminated invasive infections, pneumonia, and other lower respiratory tract infections, as well as upper respiratory tract infections such as otitis media and rhinosinusitis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The nurse is caring for a 5-y.o. client and notes respiratory rate of 45 breaths per minute, blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg, heart rate 115, temperature 101 F (38.3 C) and oxygen saturation 86%. Which diagnostic test is priority for the nurse to complete?
A. Pulmonary function test
B. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
C. CBC blood test
D. EEG

A

B: most useful diagnostic test in respiratory distress = allows for evaluation and proper treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A CBC blood test is used to test for disorders including:

A

anemia, infection, leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What condition can be found in a child with sickle cell anemia and can be caused by infection?

A

Acute chest syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A child with sickle cell anemia experiencing acute chest syndrome should have what interventions?

A

IV fluids admin to help with the sickling process and prevent hypovolemia (when body loses too much fluid such as water or blood)
-pain medication as needed (monitor vitals after admin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

An x-ray would show what if one has splenic sequestration (when sickled red blood cells get trapped in the spleen)

A

Enlargement of the spleen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dactylitis is:

A

swelling of the hands and fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When is tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) administered?

A

If pt presents with signs of a stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What client empowerment education can assist in reducing symptoms of orthostatic hypertension?

A

Eat 5-6 small meals a day. Hypotension can occur after large meals.
Avoid straining when having a bowel movement; take stool softener if needed
Avoid hot showers and whirlpools (could pass out and cause dehydration)

44
Q

A newborn does not breathe spontaneously at birth. The nurse administers oxygen by bag and mask. If oxygen is entering the lungs, the nurse should notice that the:
A. chest rises with each bag compression
B. abdomen rises while the chest falls with bag compressions.

A

A. newborns have very elastic chest muscles

45
Q

Which medication reverses severe respiratory depression and coma?
A. Naloxone hydrochloride
B. N-acetylcysteine
C. Diazepam
D. Flumazenil

A

A: Narcotic antagonist
-Diazepam - benzodiazepine
-Flumazenil - benzodiazepine antagonist
-N-acetylcysteine - acetaminophen toxicity

46
Q

Which genetic disorder causes thickened tenacious secretions of the sweat glands, gastrointestinal tract, pancreas, respiratory tract and exocrine tissues?

A

Cystic fibrosis (CF)
I.E. most complications occur within the resp. sys., gastrointestinal system, and infectious disorders.

47
Q

The nurse is providing education to a client newly diagnosed with asthma. Which statement by the parents indicates additional teaching is needed?
A. Our family dog will need to go live with a grandparent
B. It is okay for our child to do chores such as sweeping the floor.

A

B. All allergens should be avoided.

48
Q

The nurse is present for the birth of a newborn 33 weeks’ gestation. The newborn is grunting with nasal flaring and retractions, and has a weak cry. Which intervention will the nurse implement first?
A. blow-by oxygen
B. continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
C. bag and mask support
D. intubation and mechanical ventilation

A

B:
*intubation with mechanical ventilation and bag and mask support are used for newborns with no ventilatory activity (no spontaneous chest movement or cry)
-since the newborn has ventilatory effort, a CPAP would support efforts without overriding.

49
Q

A client is admitted to the hospital with systolic left-sided heart failure. The nurse knows to look for which assessment finding for this client?
A. Lower extremity edema
B. jugular venous distention
C. pulmonary congestion

A

C: when left ventricle cannot effectively pump blood out of the ventricle into the aorta, blood backs up into the pulmonary system = congestion, dyspnea, and shortness of breath.
All other choices are symptoms of right-sided heart failure/ systolic failure.

50
Q

The nurse is assessing a client who, after an extensive surgical procedure, is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The nurse assesses for which most common early sign of ARDS?
A. Wheezing
B. Rapid onset of severe dyspnea
C. Inspiratory crackles

A

B: Acute phase of ARDS = rapid onset of severe dyspnea occurring within less than 72 hours after the precipitating event.

51
Q

The nurse is caring for the client in the intensive care unit immediately after removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following nursing actions is most important to complete every hour to ensure that the resp. sys. is not compromised?
A. Obtain vital signs
B. auscultate lung sounds

A

B: Essential in confirming that air is reaching the lung fields for gas exchange.

52
Q

Major goals of intubation?

A

-improve respirations
-maintain patent airway for gas exchange

53
Q

Tidal volume:

A

Amount of air inspired and expired with each breath

54
Q

What is the priority intervention for fentanyl overdose?

A

-oxygenation: drug causes resp. depression which can then affect perfusion (circulation) and cognition (neurologic function)
-hydration should also be included but O2 is priority

55
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is 48 hours postop from the repair of a fractured hip. She has a sudden onset of dyspnea without pain. What disease process would the nurse suspect?
A. Asthma
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Heart Failure

A

Pulmonary embolism

56
Q

What are the risk factors for pulmonary embolism

A
  • postpartum/postoperative periods
    -prolonged bed rest
    -congestive heart failure
    -chronic lung disease
    -fractures of hip or leg
    -deep venous thrombosis
57
Q

Orthopnea is:

A

shortness of breath when lying down

58
Q

A mother asks the nurse if the reason the infant has a congenital heart defect is because of something she did while pregnant. What is the best response?
A. Congenital heart defects are hereditary.
B. The studies shows it is impossible to know what causes heart defects
C. There are several reasons an infant can have a heart defect; let’s talk about those causes.

A

C.

59
Q

The nurse if performing an initial assessment on a client admitted to rule out Guillain-Barre syndrome. On which area will the nurse focus most heavily?

A

Resp.
Condition may present with rapid progression and neuromuscular resp. failure. Guillain-Barre syndrome is a med. emergency.

60
Q

Action taken for pt. with Guillain-Barre syndrome after admission

A
  1. baseline values identified
  2. assessment of changes in muscle strength and resp. function
61
Q

pneumothorax is:

A

Collection of air outside the lung within pleural cavity.

62
Q

Signs of pneumothorax?

A

Sudden shortness of breath, absence of lung sounds, and diminished lung sounds above absence, slight tracheal shift.

63
Q

Who is at high risk for spontaneous pneumothorax and why?

A

Tall, young males due to length of lung fields that may cause stretching, creating blebs that may burst.

64
Q

What is first line interventions for pneumothorax?

A

supplemental oxygen if % is low.
chest tube inserted to restore negative pressure.

65
Q

Fever, adventitious lung sounds (crackles or rhonchi), productive cough, shortness of breath, and decreased oxygen saturation are symptoms of what condition?

A

Pneumonia

66
Q

Atelectasis impairs gas exchange and can lead to what condition?

A

pneumonia

67
Q

Where can atelectasis be auscultated for?

A

Base of the lungs = decreased lung sounds

68
Q

Chest pain, shortness of breath, sense of impending doom, hemoptysis (coughing up blood), sudden shortness of breath, and hypoxemia are all symptoms of what condition?

A

pulmonary emboli

69
Q

What scan would be ordered for a pt. experiencing pulmonary embolism?

A

computed tomography angiogram (CTA)

70
Q

What scan would reveal pneumothorax?

A

X-ray.

71
Q

When is a D-dimer test performed?

A

If a clot is suspected.

72
Q

What symptom would indicate aspiration pneumonia?

A

Absent lung sound unilateral base; productive cough with tannish-yellow sputum; upper airway congestion; decreased o2%

73
Q

Can fever cause increase in heart rate and decrease in blood pressure?

A

Yes

74
Q

What condition presents symptoms such as high fever, body aches, increased lethargy and sore throat?

A

influenza

75
Q

To obtain an accurate heart rate in an infant, what would be MOST important for the nurse to do? (Where would should take the infants pulse)?

A

Apical pulse (armpit): full minute.
radial pulse = 2 years and older

76
Q

As status asthmaticus worsens, the nurse would expect which acid-base imbalance?

A

Respiratory acidosis: PaCO2 increases = pH decreases

77
Q

A nurse is caring for a 49-y.o. client who has been taking bethanechol for treatment of neurogenic bladder. After one week, the client develops sweating, heavy salivation, and bronchospasm. What would the nurse suspect is happening with this client?
A. Anaphylactic reaction
B. cholinergic crisis

A

B: overdose can lead to cholinergic crisis. = excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system, including increased sweating, salivation, gastric secretions, and resp. secretions.

78
Q

If not treated quickly, cholinergic crisis can lead to what?

A

Respiratory failure.

79
Q

The nurse is preparing to auscultate the client’s thorax. What action is the priority during this component of assessment?
A. Hold breath in between each auscultation
B. Have the client breathe deeply through his or her nose
C. Listen at each site for at least one complete resp. cycle.
D. Have the client cough during each auscultation

A

C.
Client should breath deeply through the mouth. Listen for one complete cycle.

79
Q

After undergoing surgery how often should a pt. practice deep breathing and coughing?

A

Every 2 hours. (prevents atelectasis and effective gas exchange).

80
Q

neuromuscular weakness from debilitating disorders such as cerebral palsy and muscular dystrophy due to muscle weakness and cystic fibrosis as a result of increased secretions; severe asthma; obesity; hypertrophied (enlarged) tonsils; abnormal airway structure; and sleep position are risk factors for which condition?

A

Obstructive sleep apnea

81
Q

BMI of 30 or greater is considered to be:

A

obese

82
Q

CPAP stands for

A

continual positive airway pressure

83
Q

What must the mask have on a CPAP to be successful?

A

A tight seal.

84
Q

What can parents do for a child who panics when a CPAP mask is placed on them?

A

Have the child hold it in their hand so they can pull it off if they begin to panic. Once accustomed, straps should be applied snugly.

85
Q

What is the purpose of the CPAP?

A

Provides continuous airway pressure to keep the airway open from the oral cavity to the alveoli
Keeps alveoli open longer for better gas exchange.

86
Q

What makes CPAP different from other oxygen delivery mechanisms?

A

Continuous pressure: i.e. keeps airway open

87
Q

Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels outside the normal range may indicate what insufficiency?

A

Iron
(normal hemoglobin levels: 11-12.5 g/dl)

88
Q

The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old client who suffered extensive burns from a house fire. Which finding in the client’s history MOST concerns the nurse?
A. The child appears withdrawn and frightened.
B. The child was home alone when the fire started.
C. The child was trapped in a burning bedroom
D. The child’s clothes burned on the way out of the house

A

C. Closed spaces when in a fire increases amount of inhaled smoke = resp. tract burns/irritations.

89
Q

The ICU nurse caring for a 2-y.o. near drowning victim monitors for what possible complication?

A

ARDS (acute resp. distress syndrome): aspiration of water (near-drowing) or vomit, drug ingestion/overdose, hematologic disorders such as intravascular coagulation or massive transfusions, direct damage through prolonged smoke inhalation or corrosive substances, localized lung infection, metabolic disorders such as pancreatitis or uremia, shock, trauma to the chest, major surgery, embolism and septicemia are risk factors.

90
Q

Ms. Harbor received parenteral opioid analgesics during labor and delivery of her first child. The nurse observes that the neonate is experiencing resp. depression. What is the drug of choice in this case?
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Terbutaline
C. Morphine sulfate
D. Naloxone

A

D. Parenteral opioid analgesics (IV or IM meperidine, morphine, or fentanyl) are commonly used to control pain during labor and delivery. May prolong labor and cause sedation/resp. depression in mother and neonate.
-Meperidine may cause less neonatal depression than other opioid analgesics. Butorphanol is widely used.
*If neonatal respiratory depression occurs, it can be reversed by naloxone (Narcan)

91
Q

The clinic nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with emphysema and who has just had a pulmonary function test (PFT) ordered. The client asks, “What exactly is this test for?” What would the nurse’s response be?

A

A PFT measures how much air moves in and out of your lungs when you breathe (tidal volume).
PFTs = routinely used in clients with chronic resp. disorders.

92
Q

What does a pulmonary function test include in it’s assessment?

A

measurements of lung volumes, ventilatory function, and the mechanics of breathing, diffusion, and gas exchange.

93
Q

A 3-y.o. child with asthma and a resp. tract infection is prescribed an antibiotic and a bronchodilator. The nurse notes the following during assessment: oral temp = 100.2 F (37.9 C); resp = 52 breaths/minute; 02 sat. 95% on room air. Which action will the nurse take first?
A. Administer antibiotic
B. Assist with ECG
C. Administer bronchodilator via a nebulizer
D. Administer O2 at 2L per minute

A

C. Saturation is normal, so monitoring would be needed, however, O2 admin. not needed at this time.
Answer A would be the next step after helping with respiratory rate via opening the airways with bronchodilator.

94
Q

Normal range of heart rate for a 3 y.o.?

A

65-110 b/m.

95
Q

The nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 32 weeks’ gestation. Which action should the nurse PRIORITIZE after noting resp. rate of 55 breaths/minute, grunting, nasal flaring, and cyanosis on the assessment of this newborn?
A. Start o2 at 2 L/min via nonrebreather mask.
B. Notify the health care provider immediately
C. Reassess infant in 30 minutes.
D. Suction the infants airways as needed.

A

B. Newborn showing RDS symptoms: tachypnea (resp over 60 b/m.), nasal flaring, grunting, cyanosis, retractions with inspiration.
*o2 will be delivered via CPAP NOT a nonrebreather mask.

96
Q

The nursing instructor is teaching a pre-nursing pathophysiology class. The class is covering the resp. system. The instructor explains that the respiratory system is composed of both the upper and lower resp. system. The nose is part of the upper resp. sys. The nasal cavities have a vascular and ciliated mucous lining. What is their purpose?
A. Move mucus to the back of the throat
B. Warm and humidify inspired air

A

B. The cilia alone is responsible for answer A.

97
Q

The caregiver of a child being treated at home for acute glomerulonephritis calls the nurse reporting that her daughter has just had a convulsion. The child is resting comfortably but the caregiver would like to know what to do. The nurse would instruct the caregiver to do what?

A

Take the child’s blood pressure and report the findings to the nurse while the nurse is still on the phone.
-BP should be monitored regularly using the same arm and same cuff. A diuretic may reduce blood pressure to normal levels if hypertension had developed.
-The nurse would stay on the phone to make sure the child is safe and okay.

98
Q

Hypertensive drugs may be added to one’s medication requirements if their diastolic pressure is above?

A

90 mm Hg

99
Q

A hospitalized child has a pule oximeter attached to his finger. What interventions would the nurse implement in caring for this client?
A. Change probe site location every 8 hours
B. Check pulse oximetry alarms at end of shift
C. If left on indefinitely, check every 4 hours to ensure that the probe is secure
D. Check skin under probe every 2 hours for tissue perfusion

A

D.
-probe sites changed every 4 hours.
-Alarms checked at beginning of shift, not the end.
-Check probe security every 2 hours and check skin every 2 hours

100
Q

The nurse cares for a client with history of sickle cell anemia. The nurse understands that this predisposes the client to which renal urologic disorder?
A. Proteinuria
B. Kidney stone formation
C. Neurogenic bladder
D. Chronic kidney disease

A

D.
Also associated with splenomegaly and sickle cell anemia.

101
Q

Coarse lung crackles in lungs bilaterally reveals what?

A

Sputum is within the client’s airways.

102
Q

Atelectasis is the term used to designate incomplete expansion of a portion of the lung. Depending on size of collapsed area and type of atelectasis occurring, nurse may see a shift of mediastinum and trachea. Which way does the mediastinum and trachea shift in compression atelectasis?
A. Toward the affected lung
B. Toward the mediastinum
C. Away from the affected lung
D. Away from the trachea.

A

C.
Only if collapsed area is large will the mediastinum and trachea shift to the affected side.

103
Q

Which is a potential complication of a low pressure endotracheal cuff?
A. pressure necrosis
B. tracheal bleeding
C. aspiration pneumonia
D. tracheal ischemia

A

C.
HIGH pressure endotracheal cuffs can cause tracheal bleeding, ischemia, and pressure necrosis.

104
Q

When cells lack an adequate blood supply and are deprived of oxygen/nutrients, what condition can occur?

A

Shock

105
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who complains of headache and blurred vision. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms, accompanied by increased plasma partial pressure carbon dioxide (PCO2) level and decreased pH level, are consistent with which diagnosis?

A

Respiratory acidosis = reflected in ABG as increased PCO2; decreased pH level; headache; blurred vision; irritability; muscle twitching; psychological disturbances.