Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing Obstetrics & Pediatrics > prep for quiz 1 > Flashcards

prep for quiz 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

Guiding principles of Family-Centered Maternity and Newborn Care

A
  1. birth is a normal, healthy process
  2. every pregnancy and birth experience is unique
  3. maximize probability of a healthy woman giving birth to a healthy baby
  4. based on research evidence
  5. family-focused, culturally sensitive
  6. relationship between woman, family, and caregivers is one of mutual trust/respect
  7. language is important - avoid language like must, allowed, or permission (these are limiting phrases)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When does obstetrical care start?

A

ideally, when a women reaches child bearing age

hopefully before conception (about 3 months)

often when a women finds out she is pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

preconception phase

A
  • before conception
  • women of child bearing age (15-40+)
  • preconception care ideally includes counselling for the couple
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what percentage of pregnancies are unplanned?

A

50-75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

preconception care

A
  • an opportunity to positively impact health of women and decrease risk factors impacting future pregnancy and fetus
  • optimizing weight and nutrition, exercise
  • decreasing modifiable risk factors like smoking, alcohol/drug use
  • oral health (risk of preterm or small infant increases with peridontal disease)
  • immunizations
  • screening for communicable diseases/STIs
  • controlling medical conditions
  • genetic counselling
  • spacing of childbearing and family planning
  • screening for social risk factors, reducing stress, optimizing mental health
  • folic acid and multivitamin with iron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ideally, how long should a woman wait between pregnancies?

A

1 year (which means 2 years between deliveries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how long after discontinuing birth control should a woman wait before getting pregnant?

A

~ 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how much folic acid should a woman intake daily during pregnancy?

A

0.4mg (400mcg) of folate daily

if pregnancy is high risk, may be advised to take up to 5mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How much iron should a woman intake daily during pregnancy?

A

16-20mg of iron daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many more calories does a woman require daily during pregnancy?

A

200-300 calories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

serious discomforts during pregnancy which warrant contacting health professional

A
  • dizziness
  • bleeding
  • edema (some in legs not necessarily serious, but when all over, serious)
  • abdominal pain
  • severe headache
  • severe nausea and vomiting
  • UTI
  • decreased fetal movement
  • sudden gush of fluid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are presumptive signs of pregnancy?

A
  • they are SUBJECTIVE changes reported by a woman
  • least reliable
  • missed period (amenorrhea)
  • hyperpigmentation of skin
  • nausea
  • weight gain
  • breast enlargement/tenderness
  • fatigue
  • urinary frequency
  • fetal movement felt by woman
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are probable signs of pregnancy?

A
  • objective findings documented by an examiner
  • strong indicator of pregnancy
  • abdominal enlargement
  • cervical changes (colour, softening)
  • examiner feeling Braxton Hicks
  • pregnancy test
  • Hegar’s sign
  • Chadwick’s sign
  • Goodell’s sign
  • Ballottement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are positive signs of pregnancy?

A
  • caused ONLY by pregnancy
  • auscultation of the fetal heart rate using a Doppler
  • palpation of fetal movement by a trained practitioner
  • ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Hegar’s sign?

A

softening and compressibility of the lower uterine segment resulting in exaggerated uterine anteflexion during early months

  • adds to urinary frequency
  • occurs at 6-12 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is Chadwick’s sign?

A
  • bluish colouration of cervix, vagina and labia as result of increased bloodflow
  • occurs at 6-8 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is ballottement?

A

when examiner pushes against the cervix during an examination and feels rebound from the floating fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Goodell’s sign?

A
  • softening of vaginal portion of cervix due to increased vasculation
  • occurs at 5 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Naegele’s rule?

A
  • estimates expected date of confinement
  • take 1st day of last menstral period
  • add 1 year
  • subtract 3 months
  • add 7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When taking obstetrical history, what does G stand for?

A

Gravida

-the number of pregnancies (no matter how long)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When taking obstetrical history, what does P stand for?

A

1st P is para
-the number of pregnancies of viable age (>20weeks)

2nd P is preterm
-number of preterm births >20 weeks and <37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When taking obstetrical history, what does T stand for?

A

Term

-number of term births (>37 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When taking obstetrical history, what does A stand for?

A

Abortus

  • number of births <20 weeks
  • induced or spontaneous abortion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When taking obstetrical history, what does L stand for?

A

Living

  • number of living children
  • **this is confusing as it doesn’t only refer to live births so if a child passes later in life, still would decrease number of L - not really obstetrical hx in some ways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When taking obstetrical history, how are twins or multiples accounted for?

A

count as a single pregnancy, but as 2 infants!

G or P is a single pregnancy while T/P/A/L for each infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does primipara, primigravida, primip or nullip refer to?

A

a woman who is pregnant but has never given birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what does multigravida, multipara or multip mean refer to?

A

when a woman has had multiple pregnancies and deliveries (at least one)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the most accurate way to estimate expected date of confinement?

A

an early ultrasound - generally befor 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many trimesters are there?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the duration of the 1st trimester?

A

0-13 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the duration (week number to week number) of the 2nd trimester?

A

14-27 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the duration week # to week #) of the 3rd trimester?

A

28-40 weeks (+/- 2 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how long is the post-partum period?

A

6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how long is the preconception period?

A

12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how long after delivery do hormones return to normal?

A

6 weeks

though in breastfeeding women may still be altered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the cardiovascular changes that accompany pregnancy?

A
  • blood volume increases 1500mL
  • cardiac output increases 40-50%
  • peripheral vasodilation occurs to maintain normal blood pressure
  • physiological anemia may occur as RBC increase but hemoglobin does not always rise as well
  • increase in clotting factors and fibrinogen (hypercoagulable state increases risk for thrombus formation)
  • supine hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is supine hypotension syndrome?

A

also called aortic cable syndrome

  • occurs when inferior vena cava is compressed by weight of fetus keeping blood from returning to heart
  • the decrease in venous return can cause bradycardia
  • symptoms mimic hypovolemic shock
  • reduced blood flow to placenta causes fetal hypoxia and distress as well as bradycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what kind of lying position should be avoided by pregnant women and why?

A

supine position should be avoided because of supine hypotension syndrome which affects 10% of pregnancies
-compression of the inferior vena cava reduces blood flow to placenta and fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the optimal lying position during pregnancy and why?

A

left lateral is optimal as it optimizes blood flow to placenta, fetus and kindeys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are respiratory changes that occur during pregnancy?

A
  • increased oxygen consumption (15-20%)
  • increased tidal volume
  • minimal change to respiratory rate
  • displacement of diaphragm as pregnancy progressing leading thoracic breathing and mild shortness of breath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does the uterus change during pregnancy?

A
  • enlarges to hold a volume of 15-20 litres
  • around 12 weeks rises out of pelvis
  • wall thin, but strengthened with fibrous tissue
  • 20-25% of CO goes to uterous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how does the cervix change during pregnancy?

A
  • softens and becomes bluish in colour

- mucus plug forms to protect the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what changes occur in the ovaries during pregnancy?

A
  • normal function ceases (no eggs released)
  • corpus luteum secretes progesterone
  • placenta produces progesterone by 6-7th week and corpus luteum regresses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what changes occur in breasts during pregnancy?

A
  • enlarge and become tender
  • areola darkens
  • tubercles of Montgomery enlarge and secrete a substance to maintain areolar suppleness
  • colostrum may leak from nipples
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what hematological changes occur in pregnancy?

A
  • blood volume increases by 40-50%
  • plasma volume increases by 1200-1600mL
  • RBCs increase by 450mL (25-33%)
  • Physiologic anemia results as hemoglobin concentration drops up to 2mg/dL
  • iron deficiency anemia considered when hemoglobin drops to 10.5mg/Dl or less
  • increase in clotting factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What GI changes occur during pregnancy?

A
  • increased hCG causes altered carbohydrate metabolism
  • changes in taste/smell
  • progesterone causes decreased muscle tone in smooth muscles (like intestines and uterus) decreasing peristalsis and delaying stomach emptying
  • morning sickness may occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what changes to musculoskeletal system occur during pregnancy?

A
  • increase in abdominal size and decrease in muscle tone
  • exaggerated lumbosacral cure
  • compression of lumbar nerve roots may cause low back pain
  • increased mobility of pelvic joints
  • stretching of rectus abdominis
  • muscle cramps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is diastasis recti?

A

when abdominal muscles separate, which can be caused by pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what examination technique is used before auscultation of the fetal heart rate?

A

Leopold’s maneuvers

-allows location of baby to be identified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what does the 1st leopold’s maneuver identify?

A

the part of the fetus in the upper-pole of the fundus (place hand at top of fundus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what does the 2nd leopold’s maneuver identify?

A

to location of the fetal back and extremities (place one hand on side of women’s abdomen, and stabilized, then use other to palpate on opposite side - the switch - trying to identify where back and extremities are)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what does the 3rd leopold’s maneuver identify?

A

the presenting part in the pelvis and engagement (use hand just above pelvic bone to palpate - trying to identify what is presenting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what does the 4th leopold’s maneuver identify

A

the attitude or degree of flexion of the presenting part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

why are ultrasounds routinely recommended?

A
  • they confirm pregnancy and EDC
  • can identify the number of fetuses
  • show size for gestational age
  • show how fetus’s internal organs are developing
  • show placental position and size
  • allow inspection of ovaries, uterus, and fallopian tubes
  • check for signs of possible genetic problems
55
Q

What is a biophysical profile?

A
  • an examination done via ultrasound that examines: fetal movement, respirations, heart rate, muscle tone, movement, and the amount of fluid around the baby
  • basically gives insight into fetal well-being and if baby is better off inside or outside of the uterus
56
Q

what is prenatal serum screening?

A

-blood test women can take to determine the risk of carrying an infant with trisomy (down syndrome, edwards syndrome) or an open neural tube defect

57
Q

What is nuchal translucency?

A
  • a collection of fluid under the skin at the back of a fetus’ neck
  • can be checked by ultrasound during 11-14 weeks by measuring thickness of nuchal translucency combined with maternal age risk of chromosomal abnormality can be calculated
58
Q

Why and when is amniocentesis used for testing

A
  • in 2nd trimester to test genetics around 15-16 weeks
  • in 3rd trimester around 35 weeks to measure fetal maturity by testing lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio and phosphatidylglycerol (present if baby is close to term)
59
Q

what are the risks of amniocentesis?

A

-it is an invasive procedure that can cause pre-term labour and infection

60
Q

what is the L/S ratio?

A
  • lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
  • these are 2 components of surficant which line alveoli of lungs and reduce surface tension when infant exhales
  • should be in 2:1 ratio around 35 weeks and indicate baby is close to term
61
Q

what is PG?

A
  • phosphatidylglycerol
  • appears around 35 weeks
  • can be measured by amniocentesis and indicates baby is close to term
62
Q

what is GBS screening for?

A

for group B streptococcus

  • done in 3rd trimester between 35-37 weeks
  • it is a common bacteria found in vagina, rectum, or urinary bladder of 15-40% of women
63
Q

what is GBS disease?

A
  • caused by fetus being exposed to group b streptococcus
  • can cause respiratory issues
  • later on can cause meningitis-type symptoms
64
Q

what are the risks for GBS infection in baby?

A
  • preterm labour before 37 weeks gestation
  • term rupture of membranes greater than 18 hours
  • unexplained, mild fever during labour
  • previous baby with GBS infection
  • previous or present GBS bacteriuria
65
Q

what is fetal fibronectin?

A
  • glycoprotein released in response to inflammation or separation of amniotic membranes
  • found in cervico-vagina secretions untill 22 weeks gestations and then again near time of labour
66
Q

what is fetal fibronectin test used for?

A
  • a negative result after 22 weeks indicates pregnancy is 98% likely to continue for another 2 week
  • positive test between 24 and 34 weeks indicates increased risk of preterm delivery
67
Q

what is a simple way to assess fetal well-being?

A

fetal movement

68
Q

what are the 6 Ps?

A 
passage
passenger
powers
position
psychology
people
69
Q

what is meant by the p - passage?

A

it is the ability of the pelvis and cervix to accommodate passage of fetus

70
Q

what shapes of pelvis are optimal for vaginal delivery?

A

gynecoid and anthropod

71
Q

what are the four classic pelvis shapes?

A
  • gynecoid
  • android
  • anthropod
  • platypelloid
72
Q

what is meant by the p - passenger

A

the fetus, membrane and placenta are all “passengers”

73
Q

what is moulding?

A

when the cranial bones overlap under pressure of the powers of labour and demands of unyielding pelvis

74
Q

what are the fontanels?

A

the soft spots on an infants head

there is an anterior and posterior fontanel

75
Q

what is meant by the p - position

A

-the position of the fetus and the maternal position(s)

76
Q

what are the attributes that make up fetal position?

A 
Lie
Attitude
Presentation
Position
Station
Engagement
77
Q

what does lie refer to when discussing fetal position?

A
  • the relationship of the fetal cephalocaudal axis (spine) to maternal cephalocaudal axis
  • longitudinal means the spines line up, transverse means right to left lie, oblique is angled
78
Q

what is the optimal fetal lie for delivery?

A

longitudinal

79
Q

what does attitude refer to when discussing fetal position?

A
  • the relationship of fetal parts to one another

- includes degree of flexion of the head (can be extended, brow, or flexed)

80
Q

what does presentation refer to when discussing fetal position?

A
  • is a combination of lie, attitude, and what body part enters passage first
  • can be cephalic, breech, shoulder, or compound
81
Q

what types of cephalic presentations are there?

A
  • vertex, brow, face, chin

- cephalic is head down

82
Q

what kinds of breech presentations are there?

A
  • breech is buttocks down
  • complete (bum down)
  • frank (bum down but legs straight up with feet by face)
  • incomplete - footling, meaning a foot or both feet down first
83
Q

what is position related to fetal position discussing?

A

-the position of the fetus relative to the pelvis
-refers to direction facing
R - right
L - left
O - occiput
S - sacral (bum)
M - mentum (face first)
A - anterior
P - posterior
T- Traverse

84
Q

what is meant when discussion station?

A
  • it is the relationship of the presenting part of the fetus to the imaginary line drawn between ischial spines of maternal pelvis
  • 0 is engaged
  • positive mens baby is further through pelvis
85
Q

what is meant by engagement?

A

the largest portion of the presenting part reaches the pelvic inlet

86
Q

what is meant by the P - powers?

A
  • the powers that lead to delivery
  • primary power is uterine muscular contractions
  • secondary power is abdominal muscles pushing during second stage of labour
87
Q

How are contractions assessed?

A 
frequency (interval)
duration (length)
intensity (strength)
resting tone (the breaks - should be 20mmHg)
88
Q

how is frequency of a contraction measured?

A

from the onset of one to the onset of the next contraction

89
Q

how is the duration of a contraction measured?

A

from start to end of one contraction

90
Q

how can intensity of a contraction be assessed?

A
  • by palpation
  • by interuterine pressure catheter

(Contraction can be assessed with to competed, but not intensity)

91
Q

what does progesterone cause?

A

-relaxation of smooth muscle

92
Q

what does estrogen cause?

A

-stimulation of uterine muscle contraction

93
Q

what do prostaglandins cause?

A

-cervical ripening and dilation

94
Q

what is meant by the p - psychosocial

A

-psychosocial considerations like understanding/prep for childbirth, history, experiences, present emotional status, beliefs, values, age, general wellness

95
Q

what is meant by the p - people?

A

-the support people, the healthcare providers, the type of support

96
Q

what are premonitory signs of labour?

A
  • lightening
  • braxton hicks contractions
  • increase in vaginal mucus
  • cervical ripening
  • bloody show
  • rupture of membrane
  • sudden burst of energy/nesting
  • diarrhea, indigestion, nausea, vomiting
97
Q

what is meant by lightening?

A

-the fetus descends into the pelvic inlet

98
Q

what are the stages of labour?

A 
there are four:
1st- zero to 10cm dilation
2nd- from full dilation to delivery
3rd- delivery of placenta
4th- recovery and stabilization
99
Q

what are the phases in the first stage of labour?

A

phase 1: early or latent (0-3cm dilation)
phase 2: active phase (4-7cm dilation)
phase 3: transition (8-10cm)

100
Q

what happens in the early or latent phase of labour?

A

dilation from 0-3cm

  • regular, mild contractions start and increase in intensity (5-10min apart)
  • cervical effacement and dilation begins
101
Q

what happens in the active phase of labour?

A
  • cervix dilates from 4-7cm
  • contractions increase in intensity, duration, and frequency (2-3 min apart)
  • fetus begins to descend into pelvis
102
Q

what happens in the transition phase of labour?

A
  • cervix dilates from 8-10cm
  • contractions increase in intensity, duration, and frequency (1.5-2min apart)
  • cervix thins and stretches
  • fetus descends rapidly into birth passage
  • may experience rectal pressure
  • nausea and vomiting
  • diaphoresis
  • increased bloody show
103
Q

what is a uterotonic and when is it given?

A
  • causes uterus to contract

- given after shoulder is delivered to prevent post-partum hemmorhage

104
Q

What kind of standard questions should be asked when a woman arrives on a delivery unit?

A
  • when are you due?
  • any contractions?
  • any rupture of membranes or bleeding
  • allergies
  • what pregnancy is this for you?
  • is the baby active
  • any complications in pregnancy?
  • anything else to know?
105
Q

when a woman arrives in active labour to the labour unit, when should fetal assessment be done?

A

before admission is done - can usually be done simply with a doppler

106
Q

what should be assessed during the baseline assessment after admission of a labouring woman?

A
  • FHR
  • BP
  • temp, RR, pulse
  • contractions
  • cervix
  • membranes
  • any anomalies
  • assess urine
  • LMP and EDC
107
Q

how can contractions be assess electronically?

A
  • tocometer

- intrauterine pressure catheter

108
Q

what is dilation?

A

-opening of the cervix

109
Q

what is effacement?

A

the thinning of the cervix

-may occur before labour in primi or multinip or during labour in multi

110
Q

when assessing rupturing of membranes, what possible findings are there?

A 
intact
ruptured (ROM)
-spontaneous
-artificial
-premature
-preterm premature
111
Q

what should be assessed with amniotic membranes?

A 
if it is ruptured or not
fluid
FHR
check for cord prolapse
infection
112
Q

what should be assessed about amniotic fluid?

A

time (want to know the 18-24 window after rupture)
amount (normally between 800-1000mL at term)
colour - normally clear. Green may indicate meconium. Fresh bright red blood is NOT normal but some streaks or brownish/pinkish is normal
Odor - distinct earthy smell

113
Q

what is meant by “ferning positive”

A

when a sample of cervical mucus is examined under a microscope a ferning shape/image is evidence of amniotic fluid

114
Q

what is a nitrazine swab?

A

checks for amniotic fluid
yellow is negative
blue is positive

115
Q

what are the two major methods of fetal heart monitoring?

A

intermittent auscultation

electronic fetal monitoring

116
Q

what is a normal fetal heart rate?

A

110-160

117
Q

are accelerations of FHR normal?

A

yes

118
Q

are decelerations of FHR normal?

A

no. if noted, monitor should be put on for further examination

119
Q

how often should a fetal heart rate be taken during the first stage of labour?

A

Q15min if things are normal

120
Q

how often should fetal heart rate be taken during the second stage of labour?

A

Q5min during pushing

121
Q

how can the fetal heart rate be assessed for accelerations/decelerations?

A

take FHR for 1 minute in 15 second intervals. compare the intervals

122
Q

what is happening when early decelerations occur?

A

early decelerations are associated with uterine contractions and are caused by head compression
-these aren’t abnormal and dont usually require an intervention

123
Q

what is happening when variable decelerations occur?

A

usually caused by cord compression

  • visually apparent, abrupt
  • not associated with a contraction
  • drops more than 15 below baseline, generally more than 15 seconds
124
Q

what is happening when prolonged decelerations occur?

A
  • indicate a profound change in fetal environment

- more than 2 but less than 10 minutes

125
Q

what is happening when late decelerations occur?

A

-uteroplacental insufficiency
-gradual drop in fetal HR
OMINUS & always atypical
-associated with a contraction, but happening after. It shows fetus isn’t mounting good response to contractions

126
Q

What may affect fetal heart rate in short term?

A

Sleeping

20min or less

127
Q

What are ideal position of fetus to deliver?

A

LOA or ROA

128
Q

when does the anterior fontanelle typically close?

A

18 months

129
Q

when does the posterior fontanelle typically close?

A

2-3 months

130
Q

When an abnormal fetal heart rate is seen on a monitoring strip, what should the nurse do?

A 
	Maternal repositioning (repeated)
	Decrease or discontinue oxytocin
	Correct hypotension, if present
	Oxygen 
	Administer IV fluids as needed
	Nitroglycerine if uterine hyperstimulation and bradycardia(Sublingual. Relaxes smooth muscle – uterus and cardia are smooth)
	Vaginal exam – assess progress and rule out prolapse
	Support/explain
	Notify
document
131
Q

what are normal newborn vital signs?

A

temperature: 36.5-37.5
HR 110-160
RR 30-60
BP 50-75/30-46

132
Q

what are symptoms of neonatal respiratory distress?

A
  • tachypnea
  • apnea
  • cyanosis
  • grunting/cooing
  • nasal flaring
  • retractions or indrawing
  • poor feeding
  • accessory muscle use
133
Q

what is the first breath of a newborn triggered by?

A
  • it is an inspiratory gasp

- triggered by pressure changes and increased PCO2, decrease in pH and PO2

Nursing Obstetrics & Pediatrics (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions