Prep Exam 2 Flashcards
Which of the five categories of hazard does poor exhaust fall into?
a) People
b) Equipment
c) Environment
d) Materials
C
Which of the following is a Class A fire?
a) Grease fire
b) Electrical wiring fire
c) Waste paper basket fire
d) Gasoline fire
C
Which of the following questions would be asked to identify a situational factor leading to an accident or incident?
a) Was the work being performed according to procedures?
b) Was the machine operating in a satisfactory manner?
c) Did the loud noise of the machinery drown out the warning bell?
d) Did some unsafe act contribute to the event?
B
What workplace hazard causes Raynaud’s phenomenon, also known as whiteknuckle or white finger disease?
a) Chemical exposure
b) Stress
c) Vibration
d) Airborne biohazards
C
Which instrument assesses vibration in the workplace?
a) Accelerometer
b) Dosimeter
c) Octave band analyzer
d) Audiometer
A
Which characteristic makes solvents more hazardous and toxic?
a) Low surface tension
b) Low vapour pressure
c) High boiling point
d) High heat of vaporization
A
According to the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System, which typeof hazard is represented by a symbol depicting a cylinder inside a circle?
a) Class A – Compressed gas
b) Class C – Oxidizing material
c) Class D – Poisonous and infectious material
d) Class E – Corrosive material
A
Which of the following is true regarding an employer’s liability for an employee’sinjuries?
a) The employer is liable for any injuries sustained by an employee.
b) The injury must occur in the course of employment for the employer to be liable.
c) The employee must prove that the injury was not his or her fault for the employer to be liable.
d) The employer and employee have joint liability when the employee is found to be accident-prone.
B
Which of the following is a type of ionizing radiation?
a) Ultraviolet radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Microwave radiation
d) X-radiation
D
When assessing occupational health and safety risks, what is a key factor toconsider?
a) The probability of an incident or accident and the severity of its consequences.
b) The frequency of incidents or accidents and the lost time they cause.
c) The monetary and non-monetary costs of an incident or accident.
d) The direct and indirect costs of an incident or accident.
A
In the acronym related to workplace aggression, SAV-T, what does the “T” stand for?
a) Take care of others.
b) Toxic environment.
c) Tension within team.
d) Type of members.
A
What concept relates to fitting a workstation and work tools to an individual?
a) Workplace accommodation
b) Due diligence
c) Ergonomics
d) Retooling
C
A worker believes her employer has reduced her work hours after she refused to continue with what she believed was unsafe work. If proven true, docking her hours would be a contravention of the Occupational Health and Safety Act. In this situation, who has the burden of proof?
a) The employee
b) The employer
c) The Ministry of Labour health inspector
d) The organization’s joint health and safety committee
B
What is the purpose of a medical surveillance program?
a) To conduct pre-employment medical examinations.
b) To provide an employee’s medical information to the Workplace Safety and Insurance Board in response to a claim.
c) To facilitate a return-to-work plan for a disabled worker.
d) To establish a baseline for an employee’s health and chemical exposure in previous workplaces.
D
What are the 3 prime types of health and safety interventions?
a) Engineering, psychological, and cultural.
b) Behavioural, cultural, and physical.
c) Engineering, administrative, and behavioural.
d) Physical, psychological, and behavioural.
C
To comply with the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System, what 2 types of labels must appear on products?
a) Toxic ingredient labels and exposure treatment labels.
b) Supplier labels and workplace labels.
c) Manufacturer labels and hazard labels.
d) Workplace labels and manufacturer labels.
B
Which type of conflict involves a customer, patient, or client?
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3
d) Type 4
B
Which of the following statements is true of harassment in the workplace?
a) Harassment cannot be investigated without the complainant’s consent.
b) Employers must report complaints of harassment to the police.
c) Harassment is typically a sustained pattern of aggressive behaviour.
d) Employers are liable for the harassing conduct of their employees.
D
An HR professional is developing an employee survey for his HR department. Toensure consistency, the survey asks the same question in 2 different ways. Whattype of test reliability does this help ensure?
a) Test and retest
b) Split-half
c) Inter-rater
d) Duplicate assessment
B
Which of the following is an indirect cost of a training program?
a) The trainer’s salary.
b) The cost of rental equipment.
c) The cost of marketing the training.
d) The cost of refreshments provided during the training.
C
When using concurrent validity to assess the predictive value of a candidateselection assessment, what type of error can occur?
a) Measurement error
b) Range restriction
c) Validity generalization
d) Internal consistency
B
Which 2 statistical metrics should be used to interpret the central tendencies ofmarket data in salary surveys?
a) Mean and mode.
b) Mode and median.
c) Compa-ratio and mean.
d) Median and mean.
D
When analyzing the data in a compensation survey, what is the interquartile range?
a) The difference between the 75th and 25th percentiles, divided by the 25th percentile.
b) The difference between the successive quartiles, divided by the lower quartile.
c) The difference between the median and mean.
d) The difference between the highest and lowest pay reported, divided by 4.
A
is an individual employee’s compa-ratio calculated?
a) Divide the midpoint of the pay range by the employee’s pay rate.
b) Divide the employee’s pay rate by the average external market rate.
c) Divide the employee’s pay rate by the midpoint of the pay range.
d) Divide the employee’s pay rate by the maximum of the pay range.
C
Which of the following is a fixed cost?
a) Materials
b) Wages
c) Commissions
d) Rent
D
Which human capital metric evaluates the impact of HR practices on anorganization?
a) Average employee absentee hours.
b) Average overtime hours.
c) Average employee age.
d) Average cost per hire
C
An organization’s sales revenue increased by $100,000 following sales training that cost the organization $10,000 to deliver. What is the return on investment of the training?
a) $90,000
b) 0.1
c) 0.9
d) 9
D
An organization’s target for the average performance rating of new employees after 8 months was 4 on a 5-point Likert scale. The actual average performance rating was 3. What is the organization’s performance achievement against target for this metric?
a) 0.5
b) 0.6
c) 0.75
d) 0.8
C
What is the primary purpose of a budget?
a) To plan and control financial activities.
b) To assess the bottom line performance of an organization.
c) To manage accounts receivable.
d) To identify variances in expenditures.
A
What is the purpose of a balanced scorecard?
a) To report on an organization’s assets and liabilities.
b) To measure contributions to an organization’s performance.
c) To measure individual performance against competencies and results.
d) To combine team and individual performance when determining bonuses.
B
Which of the following is an HR efficiency metric?
a) Employee performance scores
b) Employee engagement survey results.
c) Average number of days to fill a position.
d) Exit interview data.
C
The salary data reported in a third-party survey indicates that the inter-quartile range for a position is very large. What does this mean?
a) The organization is using a broad banding salary strategy.
b) The organization is using a pay-for-performance salary strategy.
c) The market for the job is very competitive.
d) There may be problems with job matching.
D
When drawing conclusions about an employee survey, what does an analysis ofvariance measure?
a) Correlations among groups.
b) Meaningful differences between groups.
c) Relationships among variables.
d) Central tendency of the data.
B
Which of the following is an HR business outcome metric?
a) Speed to hire.
b) Cost per hire.
c)Profitability per full-time equivalent.
d) Number of vacancies at the executive level.
C
What type of statistics use mean, standard deviation, and frequency distribution for an employee survey?
a) Descriptive
b) Inferential
c) Predictive
d) Qualitative
A
What is the strongest desired correlation between an organization’s employee engagement scores and its turnover?
a) -2.00
b) -0.92
c) 0.95
d) 1.1
B
What is the purpose of an escalator clause in a collective agreement?
a) To provide for annual cost of living increases.
b) To expedite the grievance process.
c) To include seniority as a criterion for promotion.
d) To allow for annual increases in union dues
A
What strategy is an employer adopting when it provides non-union employeeswith all the advantages of unionization?
a) Union suppression
b) Union substitution
c) Union alignment
d) Union duplication
B
When terminating an employee without cause, what should the employer providethe employee?
a) Reason for dismissal
b) Reasonable notice
c) disciplinary letter
d) Termination pay
B
When can employees legally go on strike?
a) When a clause in the collective agreement has been violated.
b) When management has engaged in unfair labour practices.
c) When a rights mediation process has broken down.
d) When the collective agreement has expired.
D
During a collective bargaining process, the parties are reluctant to makeconcessions during negotiations for fear of reducing the arbitrated outcome.What has occurred in this situation?
a) Deadlock
b) Chilling effect
c) Narcotic effect
d) Bad faith bargaining
B
Striking employees are handing out information pamphlets about their disputeoutside a retail store that sells the products they produce. Which of the followingdescribes their action?
a) Wildcat strike
b) Boycott
c) Secondary picketing
d) Social disobedience
C
When does intra-organizational bargaining occur?
a) When special interest groups within the same bargaining team negotiate with each other to determine their position.
b) When industry representatives come together to establish a common bargaining position across multiple organizations.
c) When management and union representatives come together to bargain the interests for each party.
d) When third parties such as arbitrators or mediators get involved in union and management negotiations.
A
Which of the following management actions is allowed during a union certificationdrive?
a) Advising employees that unionization may result in layoffs.
b) Advising employees that they have the right to not join a union.
c) Promising to improve working conditions in the future.
d) Supporting employees who opposed unionization.
B
What is a shop steward?
a) Someone employed by the union who represents union matters.
b) Someone employed by the union who negotiates the collective agreement.
c) Someone employed by management who represents union employees.
d) Someone employed by management who collects dues on behalf of the union.
C
Which of the following is a binding process used to settle a policy grievance filed by a union against an employer?
a) Interest arbitration
b) Rights arbitration
c) Final offer arbitration
d) Mediation
B
Which of the following is true of the union certification application process?
a) Employees can file for certification with the Labour Relations Board at anytime.
b) Employers can file for certification after voluntarily recognizing the union.
c) The Labour Relations Board can file for certification if the employees vote in favour of the union.
d) The union can file for certification after receiving a sufficient number of signed authorization cards.
D
Which of the following is an unfair labour practice during a union organizingcampaign?
a) The employer issues a statement referring to the disadvantages of unionization.
b) The employer bans union campaigning activity during working hours.
c) The employer expresses a preference that employees not join a union.
d) The employer issues a statement referring to a wage increase if the union is defeated.
D
In the event of a strike, which of the following statements is true?
a) Striking employees can set up a picket only at their place of employment.
b) Striking employees can set up a picket to prohibit replacement workers from entering the workplace.
c) The use of replacement workers during a legal strike is prohibited in British Columbia and Quebec.
d) Striking employees cannot work for another employer during a strike.
C
Which party determines the composition of the bargaining unit?
a) Union
b) Labour Relations Board
c) Employer
d) Union and employer jointly
B
What process determines whether a union can become the representative for theemployees at a workplace?
a) Arbitration
b) Ratification vote
c) Collective bargaining
d) Certification
D
Which of the following determines the grievance procedures for collectiveagreements?
a) Standard industry practices
b) Employer and union jointly
c) Labour relations legislation
d) Labour Relations Board
B
When determining whether a position is managerial, what is the most importantfactor for the Labour Relations Board?
a) The position’s authority over bargaining unit members.
b) The preferences of the employer.
c) The preferences of the employee in the position.
d) The community of interest the employee shares with bargaining unit members.
A
Which of the following is true of policy grievances in unionized settings?
a) They are brought forward by employees who believe a policy has detrimentally affected them.
b) They are brought forward by employees who believe a policy set out in the collective agreement has been violated.
c) They are brought forward by the union if it believes a new policy violates the collective agreement.
d) They are brought forward by management if it believes the union has violated policies on fair labour practices.
C
What type of evaluation tests a training participant’s knowledge following the training session?
a) Reaction
b) Behaviour
c) Learning
d) Results
C
An in-class lecture is followed by a short story highlighting the specific conceptbeing covered for discussion. What training method is this an example of?
a) Case study
b) Case incident
c) Focus group discussion
d) Behaviour modelling
B
What interactive training technique illustrates both good and bad examples ofskill application?
a) Mixed modelling
b) Role play
c) Reverse role play
d) Best behaviour modelling
A
According to the Adaptive Character of Thought Theory, what is the first stage oflearning, involving the collection of facts and information?
a) Explicit knowledge
b) Tacit knowledge
c) Procedural knowledge
d) Declarative knowledge
D
An employee is trained on a new software program and her productivitytemporarily decreases until she becomes more proficient at using the newprogram. What is this situation called?
a) Zero transfer
b) Positive transfer
c) Negative transfer
d) Reverse transfer
C
What selection tool identifies employees who could learn from, and perform, the exercises to be delivered in a training program?
a) Cognitive ability test
b) Trainability test
c) Screening interview
d) Past performance evaluation
B