Prep Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the five categories of hazard does poor exhaust fall into?
a) People
b) Equipment
c) Environment
d) Materials
A
C
2
Q
Which of the following is a Class A fire?
a) Grease fire
b) Electrical wiring fire
c) Waste paper basket fire
d) Gasoline fire
A
C
3
Q
Which of the following questions would be asked to identify a situational factor leading to an accident or incident?
a) Was the work being performed according to procedures?
b) Was the machine operating in a satisfactory manner?
c) Did the loud noise of the machinery drown out the warning bell?
d) Did some unsafe act contribute to the event?
A
B
4
Q
What workplace hazard causes Raynaud’s phenomenon, also known as whiteknuckle or white finger disease?
a) Chemical exposure
b) Stress
c) Vibration
d) Airborne biohazards
A
C
5
Q
Which instrument assesses vibration in the workplace?
a) Accelerometer
b) Dosimeter
c) Octave band analyzer
d) Audiometer
A
A
6
Q
Which characteristic makes solvents more hazardous and toxic?
a) Low surface tension
b) Low vapour pressure
c) High boiling point
d) High heat of vaporization
A
A
7
Q
According to the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System, which typeof hazard is represented by a symbol depicting a cylinder inside a circle?
a) Class A – Compressed gas
b) Class C – Oxidizing material
c) Class D – Poisonous and infectious material
d) Class E – Corrosive material
A
A
8
Q
Which of the following is true regarding an employer’s liability for an employee’sinjuries?
a) The employer is liable for any injuries sustained by an employee.
b) The injury must occur in the course of employment for the employer to be liable.
c) The employee must prove that the injury was not his or her fault for the employer to be liable.
d) The employer and employee have joint liability when the employee is found to be accident-prone.
A
B
9
Q
Which of the following is a type of ionizing radiation?
a) Ultraviolet radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Microwave radiation
d) X-radiation
A
D
10
Q
When assessing occupational health and safety risks, what is a key factor toconsider?
a) The probability of an incident or accident and the severity of its consequences.
b) The frequency of incidents or accidents and the lost time they cause.
c) The monetary and non-monetary costs of an incident or accident.
d) The direct and indirect costs of an incident or accident.
A
A
11
Q
In the acronym related to workplace aggression, SAV-T, what does the “T” stand for?
a) Take care of others.
b) Toxic environment.
c) Tension within team.
d) Type of members.
A
A
12
Q
What concept relates to fitting a workstation and work tools to an individual?
a) Workplace accommodation
b) Due diligence
c) Ergonomics
d) Retooling
A
C
13
Q
A worker believes her employer has reduced her work hours after she refused to continue with what she believed was unsafe work. If proven true, docking her hours would be a contravention of the Occupational Health and Safety Act. In this situation, who has the burden of proof?
a) The employee
b) The employer
c) The Ministry of Labour health inspector
d) The organization’s joint health and safety committee
A
B
14
Q
What is the purpose of a medical surveillance program?
a) To conduct pre-employment medical examinations.
b) To provide an employee’s medical information to the Workplace Safety and Insurance Board in response to a claim.
c) To facilitate a return-to-work plan for a disabled worker.
d) To establish a baseline for an employee’s health and chemical exposure in previous workplaces.
A
D
15
Q
What are the 3 prime types of health and safety interventions?
a) Engineering, psychological, and cultural.
b) Behavioural, cultural, and physical.
c) Engineering, administrative, and behavioural.
d) Physical, psychological, and behavioural.
A
C
16
Q
To comply with the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System, what 2 types of labels must appear on products?
a) Toxic ingredient labels and exposure treatment labels.
b) Supplier labels and workplace labels.
c) Manufacturer labels and hazard labels.
d) Workplace labels and manufacturer labels.
A
B
17
Q
Which type of conflict involves a customer, patient, or client?
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3
d) Type 4
A
B
18
Q
Which of the following statements is true of harassment in the workplace?
a) Harassment cannot be investigated without the complainant’s consent.
b) Employers must report complaints of harassment to the police.
c) Harassment is typically a sustained pattern of aggressive behaviour.
d) Employers are liable for the harassing conduct of their employees.
A
D
19
Q
An HR professional is developing an employee survey for his HR department. Toensure consistency, the survey asks the same question in 2 different ways. Whattype of test reliability does this help ensure?
a) Test and retest
b) Split-half
c) Inter-rater
d) Duplicate assessment
A
B
20
Q
Which of the following is an indirect cost of a training program?
a) The trainer’s salary.
b) The cost of rental equipment.
c) The cost of marketing the training.
d) The cost of refreshments provided during the training.
A
C
21
Q
When using concurrent validity to assess the predictive value of a candidateselection assessment, what type of error can occur?
a) Measurement error
b) Range restriction
c) Validity generalization
d) Internal consistency
A
B
22
Q
Which 2 statistical metrics should be used to interpret the central tendencies ofmarket data in salary surveys?
a) Mean and mode.
b) Mode and median.
c) Compa-ratio and mean.
d) Median and mean.
A
D
23
Q
When analyzing the data in a compensation survey, what is the interquartile range?
a) The difference between the 75th and 25th percentiles, divided by the 25th percentile.
b) The difference between the successive quartiles, divided by the lower quartile.
c) The difference between the median and mean.
d) The difference between the highest and lowest pay reported, divided by 4.
A
A
24
Q
is an individual employee’s compa-ratio calculated?
a) Divide the midpoint of the pay range by the employee’s pay rate.
b) Divide the employee’s pay rate by the average external market rate.
c) Divide the employee’s pay rate by the midpoint of the pay range.
d) Divide the employee’s pay rate by the maximum of the pay range.
A
C
25
Which of the following is a fixed cost?
a) Materials
b) Wages
c) Commissions
d) Rent
D
26
Which human capital metric evaluates the impact of HR practices on anorganization?
a) Average employee absentee hours.
b) Average overtime hours.
c) Average employee age.
d) Average cost per hire
C
27
An organization’s sales revenue increased by $100,000 following sales training that cost the organization $10,000 to deliver. What is the return on investment of the training?
a) $90,000
b) 0.1
c) 0.9
d) 9
D
28
An organization’s target for the average performance rating of new employees after 8 months was 4 on a 5-point Likert scale. The actual average performance rating was 3. What is the organization’s performance achievement against target for this metric?
a) 0.5
b) 0.6
c) 0.75
d) 0.8
C
29
What is the primary purpose of a budget?
a) To plan and control financial activities.
b) To assess the bottom line performance of an organization.
c) To manage accounts receivable.
d) To identify variances in expenditures.
A
30
What is the purpose of a balanced scorecard?
a) To report on an organization’s assets and liabilities.
b) To measure contributions to an organization’s performance.
c) To measure individual performance against competencies and results.
d) To combine team and individual performance when determining bonuses.
B
31
Which of the following is an HR efficiency metric?
a) Employee performance scores
b) Employee engagement survey results.
c) Average number of days to fill a position.
d) Exit interview data.
C
32
The salary data reported in a third-party survey indicates that the inter-quartile range for a position is very large. What does this mean?
a) The organization is using a broad banding salary strategy.
b) The organization is using a pay-for-performance salary strategy.
c) The market for the job is very competitive.
d) There may be problems with job matching.
D
33
When drawing conclusions about an employee survey, what does an analysis ofvariance measure?
a) Correlations among groups.
b) Meaningful differences between groups.
c) Relationships among variables.
d) Central tendency of the data.
B
34
Which of the following is an HR business outcome metric?
a) Speed to hire.
b) Cost per hire.
c)Profitability per full-time equivalent.
d) Number of vacancies at the executive level.
C
35
What type of statistics use mean, standard deviation, and frequency distribution for an employee survey?
a) Descriptive
b) Inferential
c) Predictive
d) Qualitative
A
36
What is the strongest desired correlation between an organization’s employee engagement scores and its turnover?
a) -2.00
b) -0.92
c) 0.95
d) 1.1
B
37
What is the purpose of an escalator clause in a collective agreement?
a) To provide for annual cost of living increases.
b) To expedite the grievance process.
c) To include seniority as a criterion for promotion.
d) To allow for annual increases in union dues
A
38
What strategy is an employer adopting when it provides non-union employeeswith all the advantages of unionization?
a) Union suppression
b) Union substitution
c) Union alignment
d) Union duplication
B
39
When terminating an employee without cause, what should the employer providethe employee?
a) Reason for dismissal
b) Reasonable notice
c) disciplinary letter
d) Termination pay
B
40
When can employees legally go on strike?
a) When a clause in the collective agreement has been violated.
b) When management has engaged in unfair labour practices.
c) When a rights mediation process has broken down.
d) When the collective agreement has expired.
D
41
During a collective bargaining process, the parties are reluctant to makeconcessions during negotiations for fear of reducing the arbitrated outcome.What has occurred in this situation?
a) Deadlock
b) Chilling effect
c) Narcotic effect
d) Bad faith bargaining
B
42
Striking employees are handing out information pamphlets about their disputeoutside a retail store that sells the products they produce. Which of the followingdescribes their action?
a) Wildcat strike
b) Boycott
c) Secondary picketing
d) Social disobedience
C
43
When does intra-organizational bargaining occur?
a) When special interest groups within the same bargaining team negotiate with each other to determine their position.
b) When industry representatives come together to establish a common bargaining position across multiple organizations.
c) When management and union representatives come together to bargain the interests for each party.
d) When third parties such as arbitrators or mediators get involved in union and management negotiations.
A
44
Which of the following management actions is allowed during a union certificationdrive?
a) Advising employees that unionization may result in layoffs.
b) Advising employees that they have the right to not join a union.
c) Promising to improve working conditions in the future.
d) Supporting employees who opposed unionization.
B
45
What is a shop steward?
a) Someone employed by the union who represents union matters.
b) Someone employed by the union who negotiates the collective agreement.
c) Someone employed by management who represents union employees.
d) Someone employed by management who collects dues on behalf of the union.
C
46
Which of the following is a binding process used to settle a policy grievance filed by a union against an employer?
a) Interest arbitration
b) Rights arbitration
c) Final offer arbitration
d) Mediation
B
47
Which of the following is true of the union certification application process?
a) Employees can file for certification with the Labour Relations Board at anytime.
b) Employers can file for certification after voluntarily recognizing the union.
c) The Labour Relations Board can file for certification if the employees vote in favour of the union.
d) The union can file for certification after receiving a sufficient number of signed authorization cards.
D
48
Which of the following is an unfair labour practice during a union organizingcampaign?
a) The employer issues a statement referring to the disadvantages of unionization.
b) The employer bans union campaigning activity during working hours.
c) The employer expresses a preference that employees not join a union.
d) The employer issues a statement referring to a wage increase if the union is defeated.
D
49
In the event of a strike, which of the following statements is true?
a) Striking employees can set up a picket only at their place of employment.
b) Striking employees can set up a picket to prohibit replacement workers from entering the workplace.
c) The use of replacement workers during a legal strike is prohibited in British Columbia and Quebec.
d) Striking employees cannot work for another employer during a strike.
C
50
Which party determines the composition of the bargaining unit?
a) Union
b) Labour Relations Board
c) Employer
d) Union and employer jointly
B
51
What process determines whether a union can become the representative for theemployees at a workplace?
a) Arbitration
b) Ratification vote
c) Collective bargaining
d) Certification
D
52
Which of the following determines the grievance procedures for collectiveagreements?
a) Standard industry practices
b) Employer and union jointly
c) Labour relations legislation
d) Labour Relations Board
B
53
When determining whether a position is managerial, what is the most importantfactor for the Labour Relations Board?
a) The position’s authority over bargaining unit members.
b) The preferences of the employer.
c) The preferences of the employee in the position.
d) The community of interest the employee shares with bargaining unit members.
A
54
Which of the following is true of policy grievances in unionized settings?
a) They are brought forward by employees who believe a policy has detrimentally affected them.
b) They are brought forward by employees who believe a policy set out in the collective agreement has been violated.
c) They are brought forward by the union if it believes a new policy violates the collective agreement.
d) They are brought forward by management if it believes the union has violated policies on fair labour practices.
C
55
What type of evaluation tests a training participant’s knowledge following the training session?
a) Reaction
b) Behaviour
c) Learning
d) Results
C
56
An in-class lecture is followed by a short story highlighting the specific conceptbeing covered for discussion. What training method is this an example of?
a) Case study
b) Case incident
c) Focus group discussion
d) Behaviour modelling
B
57
What interactive training technique illustrates both good and bad examples ofskill application?
a) Mixed modelling
b) Role play
c) Reverse role play
d) Best behaviour modelling
A
58
According to the Adaptive Character of Thought Theory, what is the first stage oflearning, involving the collection of facts and information?
a) Explicit knowledge
b) Tacit knowledge
c) Procedural knowledge
d) Declarative knowledge
D
59
An employee is trained on a new software program and her productivitytemporarily decreases until she becomes more proficient at using the newprogram. What is this situation called?
a) Zero transfer
b) Positive transfer
c) Negative transfer
d) Reverse transfer
C
60
What selection tool identifies employees who could learn from, and perform, the exercises to be delivered in a training program?
a) Cognitive ability test
b) Trainability test
c) Screening interview
d) Past performance evaluation
B
61
Which of the following is a category in R.M. Gagné’s classification system for learning outcomes?
a) Motivational skills
b) Recall skills
c) Compilation skills
d) Intellectual skills
D
62
Which of the following is a key activity for the trainer during the preparationphase of job instruction training?
a) Demonstrating the correct procedure for the trainee.
b) Explaining why the training is important.
c) Developing a communication strategy that fits the trainee.
d) Providing feedback to the trainee on their progress.
C
63
What is the purpose of a lesson plan for a training program?
a) It outlines the sequence of activities that will take place during the training.
b) It provides a summary of the course content, subdivided into learning units.
c) It outlines the job-specific knowledge and skills to be learned during training.
d) It links the learning objectives of the training to on-the-job performance.
A
64
What is the primary purpose of train-the-trainer programs?
a) To teach subject matter experts how to be effective trainers.
b) To help professional trainers upgrade their training skills.
c) To educate managers about the complexities of training and development.
d) To teach trainees how to be self-directed learners.
A
65
Which of the following describes a distributed learning experience?
a) Delivering training to a cross-functional group of employees.
b) Delivering an 8-hour in-class training session that can be accessed simultaneously through video conferencing.
c) Delivering a specific employee training program in 1-hour segments over8 days.
d) Blending in-class training with on-the-job instruction
C
66
What are the 3 major steps that form the instructional systems design model oftraining?
a) Budget approval, training objectives, and design and delivery.
b) Management approval, design and delivery, and evaluation.
c) Cost-benefit analysis, learner assessment, and design and delivery.
d) Needs analysis, design and delivery, and evaluation.
D
67
Which of the following statements is true of a learning organization?
a) It has a culture that discourages debate.
b) It is open to all forms of learning except risk-taking experiments.
c) It frequently implements changes to encourage learning among its employees.
d) It considers formal and informal learning to be a regular part of each employee’s job.
D
68
Which of the following sequences demonstrates conditioning theory?
a) Stimulus–consequence–behaviour
b) Stimulus–behaviour–consequence
c) Consequence–stimulus–behaviour
d) Behaviour–stimulus–consequence
B
69
Which of the following statements is true of training motivation?
a) Employees with high job involvement have higher training motivation.
b) Employees with an internal locus of control have lower training motivation.
c) Employees with high self-efficacy have lower training motivation.
d) Employees with higher anxiety have higher training motivation.
A
70
What type of evaluation should be conducted to assess whether the skillslearned during a training session were being successfully transferred to the job?
a) Reaction evaluation
b) Learning evaluation
c) Behaviour evaluation
d) Results evaluation
C
71
What is another name for programmed instruction?
a) E-learning
b) Simulation learning
c) Apprenticeship
d) Self-paced learning
D
72
What training approach typically results in faster learning and longer retention?
a) Distributed learning
b) Massed learning
c) Experiential learning
d) Simulation learning
A
73
Which of the following is a foundational principle of Six Sigma?
a) Efficiency is key.
b) Drive for perfecting quality
c) Maximize profitability.
d) Decrease the need for change
B
74
Which of the following can lead to job burnout?
a) Increased task variety.
b) Increased task identity.
c) Increased job enlargement.
d) Increased job autonomy.
C
75
An organization allows its employees to work 4 10-hour days instead of 40 hoursover 5 days. What type of work schedule is this?
a) Flexible work schedule
b) Compressed work week schedule
c) Job sharing schedule
d) Open schedule
B
76
Which motivation theory identifies job satisfiers and dis-satisfiers?
a) Two-factor theory
b) Hierarchy of needs theory
c) Equity theory
d) Expectancy theory
A
77
When a team member is assigned 2 roles that are in conflict with one another,what type of role conflict will occur?
a) Role ambiguity
b) Interrole conflict
c) Role confusion
d) Role polarization
B
78
Which of the following statements is true of employee socialization?
a) It is the responsibility of the social committee.
b) It can lead to inappropriate relationships in the workplace.
c) It establishes and reinforces reporting hierarchies.
d) It helps employees connect with the organization’s strategy.
D
79
When is individual decision-making preferable?
a) When a higher-quality decision is desired.
b) When a higher decision commitment is desired.
c) When a better decision evaluation is desired.
d) When there is a high probability of groupthink.
D
80
Which 4 leadership behaviours does the path-goal leadership theory highlight?
a) Telling, selling, delegating, and developing.
b) Directive, supportive, participative, and achievement oriented.
c) Relationship focused, task focused, productivity focused, and quality focused.
d) Clear visioning, communicating, empowering, and rewarding.
B
81
In expectancy motivation theory, what does the term “instrumentality” refer to?
a) The perceived value of the reward received for performance achievement.
b) The belief in one’s ability to meet performance objectives.
c) The perceived likelihood that performance achievement will lead to are ward.
d) The equitable measurement and distribution of rewards.
C
82
Which organizational structure promotes dual reporting relationships?
a) Matrix
b) Modular
c) Organic
d) Mechanistic
A
83
When a manager routinely belittles employees who make mistakes, what type of workplace injustice is occurring?
a) Distributive
b) Procedural
c) Organizational
d) Interactional
D
84
Which of the following statements is true of job analysis?
a) It obtains information about jobs by identifying duties, tasks, and activities associated with the job.
b) It records the variance between a job’s description and specification, and the employee’s actual duties and skills.
c) It evaluates jobs using predetermined compensable factors.
d) It reflects a scientific management approach for improving productivity metrics
A
85
What type of organization has only a few layers of management from top tobottom?
a) Flat organization
b) Lean organization
c) Vertically integrated organization
d) Tall organization
A
86
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, when does a need stop being amotivating factor?
a) When a higher-level need takes priority.
b) When too many other needs come into focus.
c) When the need is substantially satisfied.
d) When a lower-level need returns.
C
87
What theory includes the concept of negative reinforcement?
a) Expectancy theory
b) Needs theory
c) Social learning theory
d) Conditioning theory
D
88
What is the term for the degree to which a job enables an employee to completeall tasks related to the job output?
a) Task identity
b) Whole job evaluation
c) Whole job learning
d) Task breadth
A
89
An organization’s core values, beliefs, and shared assumptions are reflected inwhat?
a) The organization’s value proposition.
b) The organization’s code of conduct.
c) The organization’s culture.
d) The organization’s environment.
C
90
What type of power originates from a person’s position in an organization?
a) Legitimate power
b) Coercive power
c) Referent power
d) Expert power
A
91
Which of the following is an example of constructive dismissal?
a) An employee is terminated for justifiable reasons.
b) The employer significantly breaches the employment contract.
c) A terminated employee does not receive sufficient notice or pay in lieu of notice.
d) The employer wrongfully terminates an employee.
B
92
What type of discrimination can intentionally or unintentionally disadvantagemembers of groups that are protected under human rights legislation?
a) Direct discrimination
b) Adverse effect discrimination
c) Adverse impact discrimination
d) Systemic discrimination
D
93
Which of the following is a designated group under employment equitylegislation?
a) Persons 60 years of age and older.
b) Persons between 18 and 25 years of age.
c) Refugees.
d) Aboriginal people.
D
94
Bounded rationality leads to what decision-making behaviour?
a) Satisficing
b) Risk avoidance
c) Uninformed decision-making
d) Hasty decision-making
A
95
What asset consists of an organization’s policies, procedures, routines, andinformation systems?
a) Human capital
b) Structural capital
c) Renewal capital
d) Relationship capital
B
96
An HR manager advises the other department managers of the protocols theyneed to follow regarding HR policies and practices. What kind of authority is theHR manager exercising?
a) Line authority
b) Functional authority
c) Staff authority
d) Expert authority
C
97
A worker continues to make unwanted advances toward his female co-workers, despite repeated written warnings from his supervisor. What is the next step the supervisor should recommend?
a) Mediation
b) Counselling
c) Summary dismissal
d) Termination with notice
C
98
In Ontario, what legislation outlines the process a union must follow to obtain the right to represent employees?
a) Labour Relations Act, 1995
b) Human Rights Code
c) Employment Standards Act, 2000
d) Employment Equity Act
A
99
Which of the following establishes the relationship and timing between project tasks to help identify whether a delay in one task could delay the entire project?
a) Critical path
b) Gantt chart
c) PERT chart
d) Project plan
A
100
One week after starting her new job after accepting a verbal offer, a newemployee receives a written contract. The contract includes the terms agreedupon verbally, but also includes a termination clause limiting notice to theminimum required under the
Employment Standards Act, 2000
. The employeesees no problem with the additional clause and signs the contract. Which of thefollowing statements is true?
a) The verbal contract becomes null and void.
b) The termination clause is unenforceable unless the employee receives something else of value.
c) The employment relationship restarts on the date the employee signs the written contract.
d) The new clause in the employer’s favour could trigger a constructive dismissal claim.
B
101
Non-union employees who are terminated without cause or notice areimmediately eligible for which of the following?
a) Unemployment pay
b) Exit pay
c) Pay in lieu of notice
d) Wrongful dismissal pay
C
102
Which of the following statements is true of the
Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act?
a) It prohibits employers from monitoring their employees’ social media activities.
b) It gives individuals the right to access information collected about them.
c) It allows employers to use personal information collected about employees for any reason.
d) It controls the collection and disclosure of personal information by public sector organizations.
B
103
An organization has male and female employees doing essentially the samework. The male employees are classified as administrators and the femaleemployees are classified as clerks and receive a lower wage rate. Which of thefollowing has the organization breached?
a) Employment equity legislation
b) Pay equity legislation
c) Psychological contract
d) Expectancy theory
B
104
A unionized employee has access to which of the following legal remedies?
a) Civil law damages for constructive dismissal.
b) Common law damages for wrongful dismissal.
c) Reinstatement by an arbitrator.
d) Statutory lump sum severance pay.
C
105
Which of the following statements is true of employment equity legislation?
a) The legislation is intended to correct the historic inequity between men and women.
b) Organizations must meet minimum hiring quotas to demonstrate unbiased employment practices.
c) Target groups are identified by provincial employment equity programs.
d) The legislation addresses employment and promotion opportunities, not pay.
D
106
According to recent surveys on HR trends, which of the following is true?
a) HR-related costs are growing and need to be managed aggressively.
b) Small organizations do not consider employees to be an important competitive advantage.
c) Organizations continue to focus on minimizing the number of employees as a growth strategy.
d) More business leaders believe human capital affects customer service and profitability.
D
107
In the 5 Forces framework that analyzes competition in the business world,what is a substitute?
a) An alternative business approach.
b) A new entrant into the marketplace.
c) A different product that also satisfies a customer’s needs.
d) A customer who resells the business’s product.
C
108
Which of the following is a situation in which people are a competitiveadvantage for an organization?
a) The employees follow procedures and instructions.
b) The employees apply job-related skills efficiently.
c) Employees are readily available and able to fulfil an organization’s need for labour.
d) Employees are rare and an organization is able to secure them for its own labour needs.
D
109
A large multinational department store wants to provide its customers withproducts at lower prices than its competitors. What competitive strategy shouldthe company use?
a) Broad differentiation strategy.
b) Market niche strategy based on lower cost.
c) Low cost strategy.
d) Best cost strategy.
C
110
Which of the following is a social factor affecting HR strategy?
a) Labour market
b) Diversity
c) Work-life balance
d) Generational differences
C
111
What measure will be used to assess alignment of HR practices of anorganization?
a) Horizontal fit
b) Balanced scorecard
c) Strategy mapping
d) HR dashboard
A
112
When an organization chooses a differentiation strategy, what competitive advantage does it gain?
a) Low cost
b) Efficiency
c) Productivity
d) Value added
D
113
What tool should be used to assess the frequency of occurrence of promotionwithin an organization?
a) Staffing tables
b) Trend analysis
c) Markov analysis
d) Replacement charts
D
114
In addition to being valuable, rare, and organized, what is the fourth criterion for human capital to become an organization’s competitive advantage?
a) Difficult to imitate
b) Engaged
c) Dedicated
d) Creative
A
115
What type of pension plan allows both employers and employees to makecontributions?
a) Defined benefit
b) Defined contribution
c) Contributory
d) Registered
C
116
When an HR manager is making recommendations about an organization’scompensation mix, what is being discussed?
a) The mix of compensations the surveyed organizations offer.
b) The compensations paid to the mix of jobs covered by the organization’s compensation structure.
c) The mix of competitive compensation targets used for different job families.
d) The mix of base pay, performance pay, and indirect pay in the organization’s compensation structure
D
117
Which of the following is a hybrid compensation strategy?
a) Blending direct and indirect rewards to create the total rewards package.
b) Adopting an above-average compensation scheme for some jobs and a below-average scheme for others.
c) Adopting a seniority-based range up to the midpoint and a pay-for-performance range beyond the midpoint.
d) Targeting multiple industries when conducting market pricing matches.
B
118
An HR professional is asked to evaluate 10 jobs in the quickest and mosteffective way possible. What job evaluation methodology should she use?
a) Paired comparison
b) Point factor
c) Factor comparison
d) Classification
A
119
What does it mean if an organization’s overall compa-ratio is 110%?
a) The salary structure is above market target.
b) The difference between the minimum and maximum of the pay range is110%.
c) Salary expenses are 10% above budget.
d) Average salaries are 10% above the pay range’s midpoint.
D
120
What kind of benefit plan provides a standard set of benefits to all employees?
a) Uniform
b) Hybrid
c) Defined
d) Fixed
D
121
Which of the following represents an organization’s pay policy line on its wagestructure?
a) Minimum pay rate
b) Maximum pay rate
c) Midpoint pay rate
d) Median pay rate
C
122
What type of wage structure enables greater flexibility but can also lead to inconsistency?
a) Lock-step
b) Hybrid
c) Pay-for-skill
d) Broadband
D
123
What is the purpose of identifying benchmark jobs?
a) To establish compensation comparisons in the marketplace.
b) To establish core competencies.
c) To establish performance qualifications and criteria.
d) To establish selection standards.
A
124
What is an advantage of third-party market compensation surveys?
a) They include both aggregate data and comparator data.
b) They cover all jobs for which an organization may require data.
c) They offer a cost-effective way to access market data.
d) They offer organizational control over data quality and appropriateness.
C
125
What is the purpose of aging compensation survey data before applying it?
a) To account for pay compression in the marketplace.
b) To address changes in the unemployment rate.
c) To reflect annual adjustments made by an organization.
d) To account for the wage movement between data collection and data usage
D
126
What type of pension plan considers an employee’s service in its calculations?
a) Defined contribution plan
b) Deferred profit-sharing plan
c) Defined benefit plan
d) Registered Retirement Savings Plan
C
127
Which of the following is characteristic of a market survey benchmark job?
a) It has relatively stable responsibilities over time.
b) It is a specialized job for which data is hard to find.
c) It is rarely found in the particular industry.
d) It requires a special career path.
A
128
Which of the following describes total rewards?
a) All cash compensation provided.
b) The mix of base pay and variable pay provided.
c) Rewards that include everything an employer may offer to employees.
d) The total base pay, performance pay, and employee benefits provided.
C
129
What type of compensation approach risks providing a long-term future reward for short-term past performance?
a) Merit bonus
b) Merit raise
c) Piece rates
d) Commissions
B
130
Which of the following offers a cash reward to employees for reasons unrelatedto established performance measures?
a) Team bonus
b) Profit-sharing program
c) Spot bonus
d) Standard hour plan
C
131
What type of pay strategy would conflict with employee perceptions ofdistributive justice?
a) Lock-step design
b) Pay for performance
c) Broadbanding
d) Hybrid pay-level plan
D
132
When establishing pay ranges, which pay rate is set first?
a) Minimum rate
b) Midpoint rate
c) Maximum rate
d) Median rate
B
133
An employee has reached the top of his career path and does not have the qualifications to be promoted further. What type of career plateau is he experiencing?
a) Structural plateau
b) Job plateau
c) Content plateau
d) Compensation plateau
A
134
A manufacturer has a product packaging problem. What type of group should the organization convene to solve this problem?
a) Task force
b) Focus group
c) Project team
d) Process improvement team
A
135
A job specification includes a qualification that is not actually required toperform the job. What type of performance evaluation error is likely to occur inthis situation?
a) Composite criteria
b) Criterion contamination
c) Multiple criteria
d) Criterion deficiency
B
136
For employee performance evaluations, which of the following methods is atype of relative rating system?
a) Paired comparisons
b) Graphic rating scales
c) Management by objectives
d) Behavioural observation scales
A
137
What selection approach is the most cost-effective when the assessmentprocess is very lengthy?
a) Multiple cutoff model
b) Clinical approach
c) Multiple hurdle model
d) Compensatory model
C
138
A manager is uncomfortable confronting his employees about their shortcomings and simply rates them all as being successful. What kind of rating error does this create?
a) Contrast error
b) Leniency error
c) Central tendency error
d) Attribution error
B
139
What selection approach requires job candidates to go through a multi-stageevaluation process?
a) Clinical approach
b) Statistical approach
c) Multiple cutoff model
d) Multiple hurdle model
D
140
To provide candidates with a better understanding of the job they are applyingfor, an organization provides a facility tour during the interview process socandidates can observe employees performing the job. What kind of recruitingtool is the organization using?
a) Walk-through survey
b) 2-way job screening
c) Participative assessment process
d) Realistic job preview
D
141
Which of the following should be used to collect information for the purpose ofconducting a job analysis?
a) Interviews
b) Job evaluation committee
c) Market surveys
d) Personality trait tests
A
142
Which of the following actions would be best to help an employee get past acontent plateau?
a) Promote the employee to a higher position.
b) Transfer the employee to another department.
c) Suggest the employee resign.
d) Offer the employee a sabbatical.
D
143
How can an organization solve the problem of the internal demand for labour exceeding the internal supply?
a) Implement an early retirement program.
b) Institute a hiring freeze.
c) Introduce job sharing.
d) Hire temporary workers.
D
144
Which of the following is true of a 360º feedback system?
a) It is comprehensive and includes multiple perspectives.
b) Collusion between employees is impossible.
c) It uses statistical measures to limit subjective evaluation.
d) The raters’ identities are disclosed to ensure transparency.
A
145
What strategy could an organization use to address an HR shortage?
a) Work-sharing agreements
b) Job sharing agreements
c) Outsourcing
d) Hiring freeze
C
146
Which of the following is a result of a high horizontal division of labour?
a) Job specialization
b) Production inefficiencies
c) Job enlargement
d) Job enrichment
A
147
Which of the following is used when developing a behaviourally anchored ratingscale?
a) Critical incident job analysis.
b) Graphic rating scales.
c) Mixed-standard rating scales.
d) Performance standards identified using management by objectives.
A
148
A worker with average performance received a high performance ratingbecause of her colleague’s poor performance. What error has occurred in herperformance appraisal?
a) Central tendency error
b) Leniency error
c) Contrast error
d) Strictness error
C
149
What systematic process gathers, documents, and analyzes information todescribe an executive-level job?
a) Succession planning
b) Job evaluation
c) Responsibility matrix
d) Job analysis
D
150
An organization has an opening for an entry level, low-skilled job. The jobposting indicates a college diploma is preferred, but a high score in typing couldmake up for a lower education level. What assessment approach is theorganization using?
a) Compensatory model
b) Multiple cutoff model
c) Multiple hurdle model
d) Competency model
A
