Diagnostic Test Flashcards
1
Q
A hazard analysis identifies:
a) The probability and consequences of safety risks in the workplace
b) The hazardous materials present in the workplace
c) The accidents that have occurred in the workplace
d) The severity and frequency of lost-time injuries
A
A
2
Q
The regulation that addresses “corporate homicide” by allowing for the criminal prosecution of organizations charged with health and safety negligence is:
a) Bill C-45
b) WHMIS
c) Occupational Health and Safety
d) Workers Compensation Act
A
A
3
Q
Which of the following factors is used when assessing and comparing organizasafety performance across an industry?
a) Workers’ compensation premiums
b) Frequency and severity statistics
c) Industry safety rating
d) Safety training statistics
A
B
4
Q
If the total number of hours worked in an organization is 600,000, and the company had 6 injuries with no lost time, and 15 injuries with 5 days lost, and 3 major injuries with 55 days lost, what would be their accident severity rating?
a) 60
b) 20
c) 24
d) 8
A
B
5
Q
Providing regular medical surveillance in order to protect workers from injury is anexample of what type of control?
a) Engineering control
b) Personal protective equipment
c) Administrative control
d) Legislated control
A
C
6
Q
If you wanted to measure gross noise levels in decibels, what meter would you use?
a) Sound pressure level meter
b) Octave band analyzer
c) Dosimeter
d) Audiometer
A
A
7
Q
Which of the following is NOT included as part of a WHMIS program?
a) Labels
b) Training
c) Safety data sheets
d) Policy
A
D
8
Q
What hazardous materials are represented by a ‘skull and cross-bones’ symbol?
a) Combustible materials
b) Biohazardous material
c) Corrosive materials
d) Poisonous material
A
D
9
Q
There are four categories of workplace violence. What type of violent act falls underType IV?
a) Violence committed by a co-worker
b) Violence committed by a family member
c) Violence committed by a customer
d) Random violence committed by a criminal
A
B
10
Q
Which of the following would result in Chronic Stress?
a) A tight but achievable deadline
b) Type A personality
c) Death of a co-worker
d) A public speaking assignment
A
B
11
Q
All of the following support an injured employee’s safe return to work EXCEPT:
a) Light duties
b) Work trial
c) Sheltered work
d) Performance incentives
A
D
12
Q
A workplace hazard that can cause decalcification is:
a) Vibration
b) Noise
c) Thermal Stress
d) Asbestos
A
A
13
Q
Who must participate in an incident investigation?
a) The supervisor
b) Technical advisors
c) Safety Officer
d) Safety Committee Representative
A
D
14
Q
Which of the following is NOT an employee right under Health and Safety legislation?
a) Right to know
b) Right to revise processes
c) Right to participate
d) Right to refuse
A
B
15
Q
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for identifying hazards?
a) Risk assessment
b) Task inventory
c) Walk-through survey
d) Safety sampling
A
A
16
Q
fault tree is used for what purpose?
a) To identify safety hazards
b) To assign responsibility
c) To justify disciplinary action
d) To classify stress in the workplace
A
A
17
Q
Conduction can lead to:
a) Noise exposure
b) Thermal stress
c) Vibration
d) Violence
A
B
18
Q
In the field of health and safety, what constitutes a lock-out procedure?
a) Restricting the entrance of untrained employees into hazardous areas
b) Securing the workplace after hours
c) Removing electrical fuses prior to repairing machinery
d) Installing a barrier to separate a taxi driver from his/her customers
A
C
19
Q
Which of the following does NOT necessarily require an internet or intranet connection?
a) Employee portals
b) Cloud computing
c) Social media
d) HRIS
A
D
20
Q
Which of the following initiatives facilitates the identification of best practices?
a) Setting baselines
b) Conducting benchmarking
c) Establishing balanced scorecards
d) Creating dashboards
A
B
21
Q
Which two types of metrics are captured in an HR dashboard?
a) HR metrics and human capital metrics
b) Process metrics and results metrics
c) Monetary metrics and non-monetary metrics
d) Short-term and long-term metrics
A
A
22
Q
When assessing HR practices, measuring horizontal fit will ensure:
a) Alignment with the organization’s strategic plan
b) Alignment between HR programs
c) Alignment with other departments’ priorities
d) Alignment with employee value proposition
A
B
23
Q
What federal legislation governs the collection and distribution of employee information?
a) PIPEDA
b) Human Rights Code
c) Employment Standards Act
d) Labour Relations Act
A
A
24
Q
The 5C Model of HR Impact includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Client satisfaction
b) Consistency of practice
c) Compliance
d) Culture management
A
B
25
Compa-ratio is a metric that measures:
a) Compensation effectiveness
b) Salary distribution
c) Company performance curve
d) Compliance with legal requirements
B
26
If an interview question accurately predicts high performance on the job, this is anexample of:
a) Criterion-related validity
b) Construct validity
c) Concurrent validity
d) Reliable validity
A
27
Inter-rater reliability occurs when:
a) Multiple candidates give the same answer to an interview question
b) Multiple candidate assessments yield the same result
c) Multiple interviewers give a candidate a similar rating
d) Multiple applications of the same measurement results in the same outcome
C
28
What forecasting methodology involves a group of experts in face-to-face meetings?
a) Nominal Group Technique
b) Delphi Technique
c) Regression Analysis
d) Markov Analysis
A
29
Measures of central tendency include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Median
b) Mode
c) Mean
d) Quartile
D
30
There are a number of data collection designs for evaluating HR initiatives. Which type of design is necessary in order to assess causal relationships?
a) Qualitative designs
b) Quantitative designs
c) Experimental designs
d) Time series designs
C
31
Which of the following is used to evaluate the performance of different selection systems by comparing the net gains that accrue to the organization through their use?
a) Selection efficiency
b) Predictive validity
c) Utility analysis
d) Candidate acceptance rates
C
32
How do you calculate the return on investment of a training program?
a) Divide the net benefit of the program by the program cost
b) Subtract the program's cost from the program's benefit
c) Divide the benefits of the program by the cost of the program
d) Compare the monetary cost of the program to its non-monetary benefits
A
33
The quantitative plan that distributes funds to various functional areas is referred toas:
a) A balance sheet
b) A critical path
c) A budget
d) A cash flow statement
C
34
Which of the following would be an example of a criterion-referenced assessment?
a) Measuring an employee's performance against specific performance standards
b) Measuring an employee's performance against the performance of team members
c) Measuring an employee's performance relative to a normal curve
d) Measuring an employee's performance against the employee's own previous performance
A
35
Which of the following is false about time-series analysis?
a) Past data are used to predict future situations.
b) Ratio/trend analysis is a form of time-series analysis.
c) It is used to calculate the correlation coefficient between a dependent variable and an independent variable.
d) It is a forecasting tool used to predict future demand for resources.
C
36
Which of the following describes the Six Sigma doctrine?
a) Continuous improvement initiative
b) Personality assessment tool
c) Training evaluation methodology
d) Motivation theory
A
37
The relationship between a bargaining agent and an employer is described as:
a) Stakeholder relations
b) Employee relations
c) Industrial relations
d) Labour relations
D
38
Which of the following is false about the Employment Standards Act?
a) Terms that are lower than the minimum standards set out in the Act can be negotiated through collective bargaining.
b) The Act stipulates overtime payments for non-management employees.
c) Some occupations are excluded from the Act.
d) Employment Standards Act is a provincial legislation.
A
39
Which of the following Acts protects individuals from harassment?
a) Employment Equity Act
b) Pay Equity Act
c) Employment Standards Act
d) Human Rights Code
D
40
Which of the following individuals is NOT a focus of employment equity legislation?
a) Women
b) Immigrants
c) Visible minorities
d) Aboriginals
B
41
What strategy is an organization using when it adopts superior working conditions in an effort to remain non-union?
a) Union substitution
b) Union resistance
c) Union acceptance
d) Union busting
A
42
In order for a union to represent a group of employees, it has to engage in:
a) An arbitration process
b) A mediation process
c) A grievance process
d) A certification process
A
43
The legal oversight of labour relations comes from:
a) The courts
b) Common law
c) Contract law
d) Labour boards
D
44
A bargaining style that engages an adversarial approach is known as:
a) Integrative bargaining
b) Distributive bargaining
c) Mutual gains bargaining
d) Interest-based bargaining
B
45
What union security clause requires employees of a bargaining unit to pay dues but allows them to opt out of the union?
a) Closed shop
b) Open shop
c) Union shop
d) Rand Formula
D
46
Under the principle of "management rights", management retains all the rights itheld before unionization except those changed by the collective agreement. What isanother term for "management rights"?
a) Acquired rights
b) Residual rights
c) Inherent rights
d) Bargaining rights
B
47
In labour relations, the purpose of an authorization card is to:
a)Approve the deduction of union dues from employee wages
b)Indicate an employee's willingness to be represented by the union
c) File a grievance against management by a union member
d)Vote in a secret ballot for or against a renewed collective agreement
B
48
The new management of a company insists that it has the right to embark on adownsizing program; however, the union is challenging them on the grounds thatdownsizing is not addressed in the collective agreement. The basis formanagement's position is:
a) Business rights
b) Collective rights
c) Defined rights
d) Residual rights
D
49
In the field of labour relations, what is conciliation?
a) One side agreeing to give up previously negotiated collective agreement terms
b) A union/management agreement to follow bargaining precedents set by industry negotiations
c) A cooling-off period during collective bargaining
d) Engaging a third-party to facilitate a dispute resolution
D
50
The practice of allowing more senior level employees whose positions are being eliminated to accept alternative positions for which they may be qualified and which are currently occupied by other employees with less seniority is called:
a) Discretionary staffing
b) Priority rights
c) Bumping
d) Transfer
C
51
What is constructive dismissal?
a) Employee termination with cause
b) A fundamental breach of the employment contract by the employer
c) Just cause dismissal
d) A temporary layoff of a group of employees
B
52
Compulsory and binding interest arbitration is used:
a) When collective bargaining breaks down
b) To settle grievances
c) During the certification process
d) To settle wrongful dismissal claims
A
53
Which of the following is NOT an unfair labour practice?
a) Promising to improve benefits during a union certification drive
b) Providing union employees with a Christmas bonus that was not negotiated
c) Engaging in pattern bargaining
d) Hiring professional strike breakers
C
54
What does super seniority mean?
a) Union representatives have the highest seniority in the bargaining unit.
b) Minimum level of seniority is needed before one has bumping right.
c) Employees of the parent company are given additional seniority in the event of a merger.
d) Employees with high seniority cannot be terminated.
A
55
Which of the following is NOT one of the five disciplines of "the learning organization"?
a) Mental models
b) Strategic thinking
c) Personal mastery
d) Team learning
B
56
Knowing the steps to take when creating an Excel spreadsheet is an example ofwhat kind of knowledge?
a) Explicit knowledge
b) Tacit knowledge
c) Intellectual knowledge
d) Functional knowledge
A
57
Which of the following is NOT a principle of andragogy?
a) Learners are dependent on the teacher.
b) Learners are motivated intrinsically.
c) Learners want to participate in the learning.
d) Negative self-concept can be a barrier to learning.
A
58
Adaptive Character of Thought theory highlights three stages of learning. Which ofthe following is NOT one of them?
a) Procedural knowledge
b) Declarative knowledge
c) Knowledge compilation
d) Experiential knowledge
D
59
At what stage in the Instructional Systems Design Process would the unit quizzes of a training program be developed?
a) Needs analysis stage
b) Evaluation stage
c) Delivery stage
d) Design stage
D
60
Which of the following is NOT considered when conducting a training needs analysis?
a) The performance needs of the employee
b) The task requirements of the job
c) The return on investment of the training
d) The organization's strategic priorities
C
61
For a training objective to be complete, it includes a statement that describes the learning outcome in terms of:
a) Performance, condition, criterion
b) Knowledge, behaviour, impact
c) Content, schedule, audience
d) Budget, location, evaluation
A
62
When delivering a workshop designed to update one's Excel spreadsheet skills, how would you set up the room?
a) U-shape
b) Round tables
c) Classroom
d) Team seating
C
63
When training employees on complex machinery requiring a number of sequential steps, which of the following learning methods should be used?
a) A whole-learning approach involving massed practice
b) A part-learning approach involving distributed practice
c) A part-learning approach involving massed practice
d) A whole-learning approach involving distributed practice
B
64
According to Kirkpatrick's hierarchical model of training evaluation, if you wanted employees to use a new selling technique as a result of a training course, which level of evaluation would you focus in?
a) Level 1 - Reaction
b) Level 2 - Learning
c) Level 3 - Behaviour
d) Level 4 - Results
C
65
Which of the following is NOT a training delivery issue?
a) Participant fear
b) Instructor credibility
c) Quizzes
d) Seating arrangements
C
66
The first step in the preparation of delivering a training program is:
a) Developing a lesson plan
b) Choosing the trainer
c) Scheduling the training program
d) Determining the equipment required
A
67
Which of the following defines job-related competencies?
a) Employee job-related assessments
b) Job-related knowledge, skills, and abilities
c) Job-related performance criteria
d) Job-related responsibilities
B
68
Which four variables does the COMA model of training evaluation measure?
a) Cognitive Variables, Organizational Environment, Motivation, Attitudes
b) Cognitive Variables, Openness to Learning, Methods of delivery, Aptitude
c) Classroom Set-up, Organization of Materials, Methods of Instruction, Assessment of Participants' Reactions
d) Content, Organization of Lessons, Materials, Attendance
A
69
What type of training evaluation measures the worthiness or effectiveness of a training program?
a) Formative Evaluation
b) Reaction evaluation
c) Descriptive evaluation
d) Summative evaluation
D
70
Which of the following learning organization characteristics refers to the images and assumptions that people have about themselves and the world?
a) Systems Thinking
b) Mental Models
c) Personal Mastery
d) Shared Vision
B
71
All of the following are post-training initiatives used to enhance the transfer of training EXCEPT:
a) Booster sessions
b) Debriefs
c) Feedback
d) Attentional advice
D
72
Groups of employees who share similar concerns and problems and meet regularly to share their experiences and knowledge are called:
a) Communities of practice
b) Focus groups
c) Task forces
d) Self-directed teams
A
73
When the way of life in an organization is strongly impacted by its values and beliefs, such values and beliefs are referred to as:
a) Organizational climate
b) Organizational culture
c) Organization's Locus of control
d) Organizational Mood
B
74
The three components of employee engagement are:
a) Employee satisfaction, motivation, and commitment
b) Employee attraction, retention, and rewards
c) Task significance, task variety, and job autonomy
d) Employee responsibility, authority, and feedback
A
75
When teams hit a roadblock due to differences of opinions, this is referred to as:
a) Team norming
b) Team breakdown
c) Team storming
d) Team dysfunction
C
76
A team that sets their own priorities, solves problems, and receives strategic direction from a manager is a:
a) Self-managing team
b) Self-designing team
c) Employee involvement team
d) Semi-autonomous team
A
77
Personality clashes in a team can cause:
a) C-type conflict
b) A-type conflict
c) Role conflict
d) Process conflict
B
78
Which of the following organization structures has centralized control?
a) Functional Departmentalization
b) Product Departmentalization
c) Customer Departmentalization
d) Geographic Departmentalization
A
79
A major disadvantage of a Matrix structure is that it can result in:
a) Duplication of effort
b) Less cross-departmental collaboration
c) Bureaucracy
d) Confusion
D
80
It is important to instill the need for change at which stage of Lewin's ChangeManagement process?
a) Transition stage
b) Unfreeze stage
c) Refreeze stage
d) Resistance stage
B
81
When performance expectations are clear but incompatible, this results in:
a) Role ambiguity
b) Job overloading
c) Affective conflict
d) Role conflict
D
82
Which of the following teams have the highest degree of empowerment?
a) Self-designing team
b) Employee involvement team
c) Self-managing team
d) Semi-autonomous work group
A
83
All of the following statements are true about a large team, EXCEPT
a) It has a more difficult time to becoming and staying cohesive.
b) The larger the group, the more likely social loafing will occur.
c) Team productivity rises as the number of members increases.
d) Individuals tend to identify less with team accomplishments.
C
84
Which of the following leadership styles focuses on change and innovation?
a) Transformational leadership
b) Transactional leadership
c) Authentic leadership
d) Servant leadership
A
85
When employees receive the outcomes they think they deserve from their job, this is referred to as:
a) Procedural justice
b) Distributive justice
c) Natural justice
d) Reciprocal justice
B
86
Which of the following statements is false about the Human Relations Movement?
a) It aligns well with Scientific Management.
b) It was born out of the Hawthorne Studies.
c) It involves a more participative style of management.
d) It suggests that strict specialization is incompatible with human needs
A
87
What is valence?
a) The value of a consequence
b) The perceived likelihood of achieving a goal
c) A measure of accuracy
d) The difference between budgeted and actual expenditures
A
88
The Five-Factor Model of personality includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Extraversion
b) Emotional stability
c) Assertiveness
d) Conscientiousness
C
89
When an individual feels an obligation to stay with an organization, they are said toshow:
a) Organization commitment
b) Affective commitment
c) Continuance commitment
d) Normative commitment
D
90
The theory that considers whether a person's motivation is autonomous or controlled is knowns as:
a) Self-efficacy theory
b) Self-determination theory
c) Intrinsic motivation theory
d) Self-actualization theory
B
91
Which of the following is mandated by provincial Acts when the profession is regulated?
a) Rules of professional conduct
b) HR's role as a business partner
c) Membership fees
d) Professional exam criteria
A
92
Which of the following is the cornerstone of equity legislation?
a) Human Rights Codes/Acts
b) Pay Equity Act
c) Employment Equity Act
d) Charter of Rights and Freedoms
D
93
A set of standards of conduct and moral judgements that help determine right and wrong behaviour is referred to as:
a) Policies
b) Values
c) Professional Guidelines
d) Ethics
D
94
If an HR manager personally benefited from awarding a training contract to a goodfriend, this could be considered:
a) An inappropriate incentive
b) A conflict of Interest
c) An illegal act
d) An expression of interest
B
95
Which of the following is NOT one of the duties HR professionals have when acting as an independent practitioner?
a) To account for project progress
b) To terminate the contract if it is running over budget
c) To cease providing services when the client terminates the contract
d) To clearly define the nature and scope of the project
B
96
Which of the following would be considered a violation of professional standards?
a) Collect interest on unpaid consulting fees
b) Represent more than one side of a dispute
c) Refuse services to a client wishing to engage in unethical practices
d) Refrain from intervening in the personal matters of employers or clients
B
97
Which of the following is NOT included in our professional scope of practice?
a) Teaching HR
b) Developing policies
c) Providing legal advice
d) Conducting HR research
C
98
Our professional obligation to balance interests means:
a) Balancing right and wrong
b) Balancing all parties' needs and interests
c) Balancing costs and quality
d) Balancing timelines and priorities
B
99
Disabled workers are covered by all of the following legislations EXCEPT:
a) Employment equity
b) Employment standards
c) Pay equity
d) Occupational health and safety
C
100
An organization that has legislated authority to carry out the governing legislation of a profession is referred to as:
a) A professional association
b) A regulatory agency
c) A board of examiners
d) A public authority
B
101
Professional self-regulation legislation that limits the use of the professional designation to those who have met all designation criteria is referred to as:
a) Right to practice legislation
b) Right to title legislation
c) Restricted practice legislation
d) Professional privilege legislation
B
102
The process of collecting information about a job for developing a job description is known as:
a) Organizational analysis
b) Task analysis
c) Person analysis
d) Job analysis
D
103
Statistics can be broken down into two types: Inferential Statistics and Descriptive Statistics. Which of the following is a "descriptive" statistical term?
a) Correlation
b) Mean
c) Analysis of Variance
d) Regression
B
104
Which of the following is NOT a cause of unethical behaviour?
a) Personal gain
b) Role conflict
c) Competition
d) Negative reinforcement
D
105
What are the core functions of management?
a) Leading, Organizing, Motivating, Monitoring
b) Analyzing, Forecasting, Problem Solving, Strategizing
c) Controlling, Organizing, Planning, Leading,
d) Assessing, Delegating, Measuring, Rewarding
B
106
When an assessment measures a skill that is not relevant to candidate performance, it is known to have:
a) Criterion deficiency
b) Criterion error
c) Criterion contamination
d) Criterion interference
C
107
Which of the following industries are NOT federally regulated?
a) Rail transportation
b) Fishing
c) Telecommunications
d) Forestry
D
108
How many employees does an organization need to have before it is covered by the Employment Equity Act?
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 150
C
109
The formulation of an organization's objectives is part of its:
a) Operating plan
b) Mission
c) Strategy
d) Vision
C
110
When RBC sold its insurance business to Aviva, what restructuring strategy did itengage?
a) Turnaround strategy
b) Divestiture strategy
c) Liquidation strategy
d) Diversification strategy
B
111
Loblaw operates a number of brands including No-Frills, CityMarket, and Joe Fresh. These brands represent Loblaw's:
a) Business strategy
b) Corporate strategy
c) Operational strategy
d) Marketing strategy
B
112
McDonald's strives to "be the best quick service restaurant experience". This is its__________ statement.
a) Mission
b) Vision
c) Competitive position
d) Operational goal
B
113
Which of the following is NOT a type of corporate strategy?
a) Growth Strategy
b) Stability Strategy
c) Restructuring Strategy
d) Cost leadership strategy
D
114
The basic beliefs that govern individual and group behaviour in an organization are found in the organization's:
a) Mission statement
b) Vision statement
c) Value statement
d) Culture statement
C
115
When employees are enthusiastic about contributing to a company's success, they have excellent:
a) Membership behaviour
b) Task behaviour
c) Organizational citizenship behaviour
d) Job satisfaction behaviour
C
116
Which of the following is an example of "indirect pay"?
a) Progression adjustment
b) Merit adjustment
c) Base Pay
d) Vacation pay
D
117
Which of the following statements is false about compa-ratio?
a) Compa-ratio will go up if an early retirement program for long-term employees is introduced.
b) Compa-ratio will go up if a downsizing is done by reverse seniority.
c) Compa-ratio will go down with the hiring of many new grads.
d) Compa-ratios less than 1 are acceptable.
A
118
Which of the following statements about compensation surveys is false?
a) The mathematical middle of a data set is its average.
b) The 75th percentile is 25 percent higher than the 50th percentile.
c) A weighted average is a mean that has been adjusted to reflect the size of the organizations in the survey.
d) The median is the value in a ranking of pay levels below which half the employers are paid less.
B
119
Which of the following is a long-term compensation plan?
a) Goal-sharing plan
b) Competitive bonus plan
c) Gain-sharing plan
d) Share purchase plan
D
120
Which of the following statements is false about reinforcement theory?
a) Positive reinforcement increases positive
behaviour.
b) Extinction decreases negative behaviour.
c) Negative reinforcement decreases positive behaviour.
d) Punishment decreases negative behaviour
C
121
Which of the following terms is associated with equity theory?
a) Procedural Justice
b) Instrumentality
c) Valence
d) Task Significance
A
122
When a job is designed to enable the employee to perform the complete cycle of job activities, the employee will enjoy __________ the job provides.
a) High task significance
b) High skill variety
c) High job autonomy
d) High task identity
D
123
What compensable factors are required in a job evaluation process for it to be compliant with the pay equity legislation?
a) Education, experience, authority, performance
b) Skill, effort, responsibility, working conditions
c) Knowledge, skill, experience, working conditions
d) Job class, gender dominance, career level, internal equity
B
124
Which of the following statements is true about a broadband base pay structure?
a) It is most appropriate for unionized environments.
b) It is less flexible than a standard pay structure.
c) It has fewer pay bands than a standard pay structure.
d) It results in a higher incidence of promotions.
C
125
Which of the following is NOT an element of job enrichment?
a) Job autonomy
b) Job enlargement
c) Task identity
d) Skill variety
B
126
Which of the following employee reward is a good long-term retention strategy?
a) Stock options
b) Commission
c) Piece work
d) Gain sharing
A
127
Which of the following is a design consideration when designing profit-sharing plans?
a) Establishing the share price
b) Establishing the vesting period
c) The size of base pay reductions needed to fund the pool
d) Employee eligibility
D
128
Which of the following statements is false about the job evaluation process?
a) It is the process of collecting information on which job descriptions are based.
b) It establishes the internal equity between jobs.
c) It can be an adversarial process.
d) It defines the criteria for determining job value
A
129
Which of the following is the simplest job evaluation process?
a) Factor comparison method
b) Ranking method
c) Classification method
d) Point factor method
B
130
The first step in analysing compensation survey data is:
a) Establishing relative pay grades and ranges
b) Calculating compa-ratios
c) Correlating job evaluation points with the market data
d) Assessing measures of central tendency and variation
D
131
What should employees expect under an employee stock bonus plan?
a) Employees receive shares at no cost.
b) Employees are able to purchase company shares based on performance.
c) Employees receive a bonus equivalent to the increase in company share value.
d) Employees receive the cash value of phantom shares
A
132
Which of the following theories states that stimulus leads to response that leads to consequence?
a) Punishment
b) Consequence
c) Reinforcement
d) Equity
C
133
Which of the following statements is false about workforce analytics?
a) Workforce analytics focuses on efficiency metrics
b) Workforce analytics correlates business and people data
c) Workforce analytics uncovers unique performance drivers within an organization
d) Workforce analytics measures HR's impact on the organization
A
134
ABC restaurant has decided to bottle its special sauces and, as a result, will need to expand, open up a bottling plant, and hire new staff with different skills. What kind of forecasting will it engage to assess the number and type of people needed?
a) Event-based forecasting
b) Process-based forecasting
c) Transaction-based forecasting
d) Expansion-based forecasting
C
135
Which of the following describes SMART goals?
a) Specific, Meaningful, Actionable, Realistic, Timely
b) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timely
c) Systems, Methods, Authority, Responsibility, Tactics
d) Strategic, Manageable, Accurate, Responsible, Tangible
B
136
Which of the following is NOT one of the personality characteristics found to be apredictor of high performance?
a) Optimism
b) Conscientiousness
c) Emotional Stability
d) Agreeableness
A
137
Which of the following employee sourcing methods can lead to discriminatory hiring practices?
a) Direct mail advertising
b) Job fairs
c) Advertising on job boards
d) Employee referral
D
138
Which of the following types of interview question tests for a candidate’s ability to make appropriate decisions under tight deadlines?
a) Stress-based question
b) Situational-based question
c) Knowledge-based question
d) Factual-based question
B
139
What process is used in organizations for reinforcing the organization's values, goals, and priorities?
a) Orientation process
b) On-boarding process
c) Performance management process
d) Socialization process
D
140
Which of the following is a "trait method" of performance evaluation?
a) Behavioural checklist method
b) Graphic rating scale method
c) Behaviour observation scale
d) Personal scorecard method
B
141
Which of the following is NOT a key performance category in a balanced scorecard?
a) Financial
b) Customer
c) Key Stakeholder
d) Process
C
142
Which of the following is NOT a step in a succession planning process?
a) Provide employees with developmental opportunities
b) Identify high-performing employees
c) Identify the skills needed to meet strategic objectives
d) Identify performance goals
D
143
Which of the following HR programs would effectively address a human resource surplus?
a) Work sharing
b) Hiring part-time workers
c) Contracting work out
d) Re-hiring retirees
A
144
Which of the following methods helps employers to determine their personnelsupply?
a) Markov Models
b) Scenario Planning
c) Time Series Models
d) Trend/Ratio Analysis
A
145
Which of the following set of information is held in a skills inventory database?
a) Job applicant's knowledge, skills, abilities, and job preferences
b) Employees' skills, education, performance ratings, and career preferences
c) The knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform specific jobs
d) The skill gaps and training needs of employees
B
146
Which of the following is true about boundaryless career model?
a) It enables employees to explore more than one career.
b) It can effectively address employees experiencing content career plateaus.
c) It allows employees to be "self-directed free agents".
d) It enables non-management employees to earn as much as management employees.
C
147
What is the purpose of creating a chart that consists of individuals who have the competencies required to fill senior management positions?
a) Training needs analysis
b) Succession planning
c) Job rotation program
d) Executive mentoring program
B
148
Which of the following is a reason for outsourcing?
a) To access specialized expertise
b) To gain access to foreign markets
c) To eliminate labour unions
d) To serve as a wake-up call for employees
A
149
What does it imply when the performance measures fail to assess all the competencies required to perform a job?
a) A criterion deficiency occurs.
b) A criterion contamination occurs.
c) A low criterion relevancy occurs.
d) The criterion assessment is unreliable.
A
150
When testing applicants, what do cognitive ability tests measure?
a) Ability to perceive and appraise others' feelings
b) Ability to apply ideas in real-life situations
c) Ability to learn, solve problems, and adapt to new situations
d) Ability to perform proficiently on a given task
C
