Prep Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 3 basic occupational health and safety rights of all employees?
a) The right to know, the right to participate, and the right to refuse unsafe work.
b) The right to training, the right to safe conditions, and the right to personal protective equipment.
c) The right to know, the right to communicate, and the right to question unsafe conditions.
d) The right to safety policies, the right to participate, and the right to established procedures.
A
A
2
Q
What are the 4 categories of stress-induced strain reaction?
a) Interpersonal, responsibility, performance, and cognitive.
b) Acute, chronic, temporary, and catastrophic.
c) Psychological, physical, behavioural, and organizational.
d) Internal, external, vertical, and horizontal.
A
C
3
Q
An organization is charged with a safety offence and defends itself on the grounds that it took all reasonable steps to avoid the particular event. What is this defence known as?
a) Due process
b) Reasonable cause
c) Due diligence
d) Just cause
A
C
4
Q
Which of the following best describes “general adaptation syndrome”?
a) A fight or flight reaction to stress.
b) An ability to block out negative stimuli in the environment.
c) An ability to change even when the change is more painful than remaining the same.
d) A tendency to go along with the group.
A
A
5
Q
Which of the following is an engineering intervention in a health and safetyprogram?
a) Modifying workplace procedures and policies.
b) Encouraging workers to be proactively involved in workplace safety.
c) Encouraging workers to follow core safety-related rules.
d) Modifying work processes and equipment.
A
D
6
Q
At what stage of a fire are flames first visible?
a) Free-burning stage
b) Incipient stage
c) Uncontrolled stage
d) Smouldering stage
A
A
7
Q
The electrical wires in a photocopier catch fire. What class of fire is this?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
A
C
8
Q
What would a power failure that causes an accident be classified as?
a) A situational factor.
b) A human factor.
c) An environmental factor.
d) A chance occurrence.
A
A
9
Q
What accommodation would an employer provide to a worker who hasexperienced a permanent disability?
a) Gradual work exposure.
b) Work trials.
c) Temporary light-duty work.
d) Supported work
A
D
10
Q
Which of the following could reduce the risk of repetitive strain injuries?
a) Strain management
b) Stress management
c) Industrial engineering
d) Ergonomics
A
D
11
Q
What does WHMIS stand for?
a) Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
b) Workers’ Hazardous Materials Information System
c) Workers’ Health Monitoring Information System
d) Workplace Health Maintenance Information System
A
A
12
Q
What type of controls are employee training, employee rotation,environmental sampling, and medical surveillance to protect workers fromhazards?
a) Engineering controls
b) Hygiene controls
c) Administrative controls
d) Work practice controls
A
C
13
Q
How frequently must Material Safety Data Sheets be updated?
a) Every year
b) Every 2 years
c) Every 3 years
d) Every 5 years
A
C
14
Q
The statement “every incident is a result of a series of events” demonstrateswhich analysis model?
a) Domino theory
b) Critical path analysis
c) Bowtie analysis
d) Swiss cheese model
A
A
15
Q
Which of the following is true after an employee refuses unsafe work?
a) The employee can be temporarily laid off until the work is deemed safe.
b) A safety officer must be called in to inspect the worksite.
c) A government official must be called in to inspect the worksite.
d) A supervisor and a worker representative must conduct a joint investigation.
A
D
16
Q
Which of the following is an after-effect of eustress?
a) Burnout
b) Depression
c) Exhilaration
d) Disengagement
A
C
17
Q
What health condition can segmental vibration cause?
a) Tissue decay
b) Nausea
c) Headache
d) Stomach cramps
A
A
18
Q
Which of the following control methods is best for preventing poor air qualityfrom becoming worse?
a) Pre-contact control
b) Point-of-contact control
c) Post-contact control
d) Hazard control
A
B
19
Q
Which formula estimates an organization’s human capital return on investment?
a) (Value of output - Value of input) ÷ Total compensation costs
b) (Total revenue - [Operating expenses - Total compensation costs]) ÷Total compensation costs
c) Profit ÷ Number of full-time employees
d) (Total revenue - Cost of all HR programs and services) ÷ Number of full-time employees
A
B
20
Q
A test yields the same results over repeated applications. What qualitymeasure has the test achieved?
a) Validity
b) Reliability
c) Accuracy
d) Consistency
A
B
21
Q
Which of the following measures an organization’s demand for labour?
a) Management forecasts
b) Skills and management inventories
c) Markov analysis
d) Replacement charts
A
A
22
Q
During an interview, what type of reliability is measured by asking multiplequestions to assess the same skill?
a) Test and retest reliability.
b) Alternative forms reliability.
c) Internal consistency reliability.
d) Inter-rater reliability.
A
C
23
Q
Which of the following is a direct cost of a training program?
a) Refreshments provided during the training.
b) Advertising the training.
c) Clerical support for the training.
d) Trainer preparation time.
A
A
24
Q
Which of the following will increase the cost of benefits to employers?
a) Encouraging employees to live healthy lifestyles.
b) Keeping employees informed about the cost of benefits.
c) Moving to a defined-benefit pension plan.
d) Increasing the deductibles on prescriptions.
A
C
25
What term describes the percentage of job candidates who make it to thenext stage in the selection process?
a) Base rate
b) Yield ratio
c) Recruiting effectiveness index
d) Recruiting efficiency index
B
26
Which of the following represents the correlation between training and productivity?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 75%
d) 1:2
B
27
What process identifies all the direct and indirect expenditures of a program?
a) Cost benefit analysis
b) Cost effectiveness analysis
c) Utility analysis
d) Costing
D
28
Which of the following describes a "real" wage increase?
a) An increase greater than the cost of living.
b) An increase tied to performance.
c) An increase provided annually to all employees.
d) An increase that affects the compensation structure.
A
29
When is the four-fifths rule applied?
a) When measuring adverse impact in employment selection rates.
b) When assessing annual employee attendance rates.
c) When measuring forced distribution ratings in performance evaluations.
d) When counting employee votes during a union certification process.
A
30
A job applicant applied twice to the same organization. The first time, theapplicant did very poorly on the selection test, but then scored very high 4weeks later. What can be concluded about the selection test?
a) It has low validity.
b) It has low reliability.
c) It has range restriction.
d) It has test-retest bias.
B
31
31) Which of the following is a metric of HR program effectiveness?
a) Employee engagement survey results.
b) Number of open positions in a business unit.
c) Average cost per hire.
d) Number of positions filled per month.
A
32
Which of the following is a key effect that an HR Information System has on an organization?
a) It changes the way organizational processes are designed and executed.
b) It connects people with the organization's objectives.
c) It improves the organization's overall productivity.
d) It streamlines processes and refocuses HR efforts on organizational strategy.
D
33
Among the following types of validity, which will be the determining factor forchoosing a selection test for recruitment purposes?
a) Face validity
b) Content validity
c) Construct validity
d) Criterion-related validity
D
34
What is the term for a collection of tables that allows connections betweenthe information in each table?
a) Relational database
b) Hierarchical database
c) Networked database
d) Central server database
A
35
An organization's annual turnover was 5% last year. Its target for this year was 4%, but actual turnover was 7%. What is the organization's performance compared with its target?
a) 0.57
b) 0.75
c) -1.75
d) -0.01
C
36
Which of the following describes assets?
a) What an organization owes to its creditors.
b) The total amount of investments in an organization.
c) Things of value owned by an organization.
d) Revenue minus expenses.
C
37
What is an outcome of effective rights arbitration?
a) The bargaining positions of each side are brought closer together.
b) A grievance settlement is reached.
c) The likelihood of a strike is reduced.
d) A binding collective agreement is reached.
B
38
Which of the following is important for determining the composition of abargaining unit?
a) Community of interests.
b) Frequency of grievances.
c) Availability of shop stewards.
d) Duration of the collective agreement.
A
39
What is the term for parties no longer being able to negotiate settlementswithout third-party assistance because of the frequent use of arbitration?
a) Distributive settlement
b) Dependency effect
c) Chilling effect
d) Deferred settlement
B
40
When do employees have the right to picket their employer?
a) During a legal strike.
b) During a collective agreement negotiation.
c) During a collective agreement policy grievance.
d) During a rights arbitration.
A
41
Which of the following is a legal labour practice?
a) Terminating union sympathizers.
b) Increasing employee benefits during collective bargaining.
c) Locking out employees during collective bargaining.
d) Conducting a strike before the expiry of the collective agreement.
C
42
Which of the following is true of conciliation?
a) It results in an enforceable resolution.
b) It is a form of arbitration.
c) It is a non-binding voluntary process.
d) It is required before a Step 4 grievance can be settled.
C
43
Which of the following is true of labour boards?
a) They oversee the collective bargaining process.
b) They hear claims of illegal strikes and lockouts.
c) They enforce employment standards.
d) They refer unfair labour practices to the Ministry of Labour.
B
44
If employees are picketing, what dispute resolution process is the employerundertaking?
a) Interest arbitration
b) Rights arbitration
c) Policy grievance arbitration
d) Expedited arbitration
A
45
Which of the following could lead to a constructive dismissal claim by anemployee?
a) Demotion
b) Discharge
c) Suspension with pay
d) Poor performance evaluation
A
46
The super seniority clause in a collective agreement refers to what?
a) The seniority granted to employees who have worked for the organization since its inception.
b) The seniority granted to employees who are protected from layoff.
c) The highest seniority granted to a union representative while in office.
d) The highest seniority kept by exempt staff when transferring to union jobs.
C
47
Which of the following is true of a positive discipline model?
a) It strengthens the connection between the misconduct and the discipline.
b) It involves a multi-step approach ending in termination.
c) It ensures proper investigation occurs prior to any discipline.
d) It relies on encouragement techniques rather than punitive action.
D
48
Which of the following is true of the Rand formula?
a) Bargaining unit employees who choose not to join the union still pay union dues.
b) It quantifies the bargaining zone during collective bargaining.
c) It determines the individual incentives provided through a productivity gain-sharing plan.
d) It is used in occupational health and safety to establish an organization's safety record.
A
49
Which of the following is true of a union shop security clause?
a) Employees in the bargaining unit can opt out of the union but must pay dues.
b) Employees in the bargaining unit must join the union but only after a probationary period.
c) Employees are hired through a union hiring hall.
d) All non-management employees are members of the same union.
B
50
During a union certification drive, what does voluntary recognition mean?
a) Employees voluntarily accept the union as their representative.
b) The labour relations board recognizes the status of the union without holding a vote.
c) The employer voluntarily recognizes the union as its employees' representative.
d) The union and employer voluntarily recognize the composition of the bargaining unit.
C
51
Which of the following demonstrates an elastic supply of labour?
a) An increase in pay rates results in many more applications being received.
b) An increase in pay rates has no influence on the number of applications received.
c) An increase in the demand for labour results in an increase in market rates.
d) An increase in the demand for labour has no influence on market rates.
A
52
When negotiating a new collective agreement, management offers the uniona much lower pay increase than what it is ultimately willing to give. Whatkind of bargaining tactic is this?
a) An unfair tactic.
b) An integrative tactic.
c) A distributive tactic.
d) An unethical tactic.
C
53
Which of the following can be initiated by either the union or the employerduring the negotiation of a collective agreement?
a) Work to rule
b) Strike
c) Lock out
d) Cease and desist action
D
54
What labour relations strategy will counteract the chilling effect?
a) Final offer arbitration
b) Expedited grievance hearings
c) Distributive bargaining
d) Open-door policy
A
55
What training and development approach combines in-class lectures withon-the-job application?
a) Job rotation
b) Cross-training
c) Apprenticeship
d) Vertical transfer
C
56
Which of the following should an organization do if it wants to strength thetraining transfer climate of its management development program?
a) Ensure the program is interactive.
b) Include role-playing exercises.
c) Provide post-training coaching on the job.
d) Tailor the program to the learning styles of the employees.
C
57
What type of evaluation should an organization use to assess whether itsmanagement development program increased its managers' performance?
a) Performance evaluations
b) Experimental design evaluations
c) Time series design evaluations
d) Formative evaluations
B
58
Which of the following statements reflects a participant's opinion about theutility of a training program?
a) I enjoyed the training.
b) I learned something from the training.
c) I found the training useful.
d) I appreciated the training.
C
59
Which of the following is an adult learning approach to training?
a) Life-long learning
b) Pedagogy
c) Andragogy
d) Open learning
C
60
What type of HR strategies are promotions, job rotations, and specialassignments?
a) Management development
b) Work re-engineering
c) Job enlargement
d) Worker replacement
A
61
What type of evaluation provides data on the clarity, complexity, and relevance of a training program?
a) Normative
b) Formative
c) Summative
d) Content
B
62
Assigning a group of emerging managers a supply chain problem to solve isan example of what type of development activity?
a) Succession planning
b) Case study method
c) Action learning
d) Organizational learning
C
63
Which of the following statements about error management training is true?
a) Participants are encouraged to make errors during training.
b) Participants receive detailed instructions so they avoid making errors.
c) Participants' errors are quickly corrected by the instructor.
d) The method is most effective for the performance of routine tasks.
A
64
A lecture-style workshop followed by a video illustrating the application of the learning would be most effective for trainees with which type of learning style?
a) Converging
b) Diverging
c) Assimilating
d) Accommodating
C
65
Which of the following is true of adult learning?
a) Adults are social learners and prefer to learn in groups.
b) Adults have life experience and always welcome change.
c) Adults are problem-centred, as opposed to subject-centred.
d) Adults need to be motivated by extrinsic rewards such as bonuses.
C
66
Which of the following is true about the motivation of a person with a prove-performance goal orientation?
a) The person is motivated by competency acquisition and is driven to acquire new skills.
b) The person is motivated by task performance and seeks favourable judgments of their achievements.
c) The person is motivated by task performance and avoids negative judgments of their achievements.
d) The person is motivated by task achievement seeks promotional opportunities.
B
67
Individuals who believe their success is the result of being in the right placeat the right time are demonstrating what type of belief?
a) Internal locus of control
b) High self-efficacy
c) Low self-efficacy
d) External locus of control
D
68
What is the first step in designing a management development trainingprogram?
a) Conduct an organizational analysis.
b) Conduct a management task analysis.
c) Conduct a management team analysis.
d) Conduct a management best practice analysis.
A
69
A training program includes a review of the concepts learned 1 week after the training session. What is this session called?
a) Post-training goal setting
b) Relapse prevention
c) Program refresher
d) Booster session
D
70
Which of the following is characteristic of a learning organization?
a) Its core business is the delivery of training programs.
b) Employees are aware of their mental models and their impact on behaviour.
c) Employees are highly specialized and purpose-focused.
d) Management is committed to results over process.
B
71
Which of the following is true of the instructional systems design model?
a) It focuses on in-classroom instructional design.
b) It is based on experiential learning.
c) It defines adult learning principles.
d) It involves training needs analysis, design, delivery, and evaluation.
D
72
Which of the following is true of training and development?
a) Training is instructional; development is experiential.
b) Training supports performance in a current job; development supports performance in a future job.
c) Training occurs outside of the immediate work environment; development occurs on the job.
d) Training supports new employees; development supports succession planning.
B
73
In what stage of Lewin's change management model should the urgency forthe change be communicated?
a) Unfreezing stage
b) Transition stage
c) Refreezing stage
d) Planning stage
A
74
Which of the following contributes directly to an organization's bottom line?
a) Line function
b) Staff function
c) Support function
d) Overhead function
A
75
What is the term for a worker's role being expanded to include additionalresponsibilities over which they have some decision-making power?
a) Job enlargement
b) Job expansion
c) Job enrichment
d) Job extension
C
76
What process is used to rethink and radically redesign the way in which work is performed?
a) Six Sigma
b) Re-engineering
c) Job analysis
d) Restructuring
B
77
What does a position analysis questionnaire document?
a) Job tasks
b) Job competencies
c) Critical incidents
d) Job Value
A
78
What type of group is best for gathering information to identify cross-functional training needs?
a) Task force
b) Focus group
c) Process improvement team
d) Project team
B
79
Almost every phase of HR management uses data generated by whatprocess?
a) Performance evaluation
b) Workforce planning
c) Job analysis
d) Job evaluation
C
80
According to the job characteristics theory of motivation, which of the following is an intrinsically motivating job dimension?
a) Job authority
b) Job feedback
c) Working conditions
d) Co-worker relations
B
81
What concept describes the number of subordinates that a manager can successfully supervise?
a) Inverted pyramid
b) Peter principle
c) Span of control
d) Functional organization structure
C
82
Which of the following does Maslow's hierarchy of needs suggest?
a) Pay inequities will cause demotivation.
b) Positive reinforcement will enhance performance.
c) Higher task variety leads to greater job satisfaction.
d) Employees want to feel they belong.
D
83
Goal-setting theory is based on what premise?
a) People's intentions are a good predictor of their behaviour.
b) People's needs drive their motivation.
c) People's expectations about outcomes impact their motivation.
d) Positive feedback and rewards increase people's motivation.
A
84
According to the 2-factor theory of motivation, which of the following affectsan employee's job satisfaction?
a) Relationships with peers.
b) Pay level.
c) Quality of supervision.
d) Job content.
D
85
Which of the following is true of group decision-making?
a) Decision-making is faster.
b) Acceptance of decisions is higher.
c) Group think leads to higher-quality decisions.
d) Diffusion of responsibility can be avoided.
B
86
What does a quality circle consist of?
a) Management seeking continuous improvement.
b) Front-line employees working autonomously to improve quality.
c) An annual review of the effectiveness of an organization's management.
d) A focus group to provide quality improvement suggestions.
B
87
What is the first step in Kotter's 8-step model of change?
a) Create a vision.
b) Form a guiding coalition.
c) Establish a sense of urgency.
d) Unfreeze the status quo.
C
88
In what stage of group development do teams address and resolve issuesconcerning roles, responsibilities, and priorities?
a) Forming
b) Storming
c) Norming
d) Performing
C
89
Which of the following statements about group dynamics is true?
a) Members of larger groups are more satisfied with their group membership.
b) Group norms make group behaviour unpredictable.
c) Effective groups do not assign roles to foster a climate of group empowerment.
d) More diverse groups have greater difficultly becoming cohesive.
D
90
In the past, an organization has always promised it would provide long-termcareer opportunities to hard-working employees. Now, organizationalrestructuring has resulted in it not being able to keep that promise. What isthis an example of?
a) Breach of an employment contract.
b) Breach of natural justice.
c) Breach of a psychological contract.
d) Breach of procedural justice.
C
91
Which of the following offers helps retain top-talent Millennials?
a) Flexible work schedules
b) High-ticket perks
c) Challenging tasks
d) Compatible values
D
92
The duty to accommodate pertains to which of the following stakeholders?
a) Expatriates
b) Laid-off workers
c) Telecommuting workers
d) Disabled workers
D
93
What are the 3 regimes of employment law?
a) Employment standards, privacy law, and health and safety regulations.
b) Common law, statutory regulation, and collective bargaining and arbitration law.
c) Federal regulation, provincial regulation, and municipal regulation.
d) Contract law, criminal law, and corporate law.
B
94
Which of the following is true about employment contracts?
a) A contract must be in writing and signed by both parties to be binding.
b) A contract requires mutual consideration to be valid.
c) A contract and a letter of offer often contain different terms.
d) An indefinite-term contract is valid for the duration of the employment.
D
95
Which term describes an employee's termination for just cause?
a) Constructive dismissal
b) Termination with notice
c) Summary dismissal
d) Wrongful dismissal
C
96
What is the study of population statistics called?
a) Econometrics
b) HR planning
c) Demographics
d) Markov analysis
C
97
After many employees of an organization go on maternity leave, themanager at the organization decides to stop interviewing female jobcandidates of childbearing age. What type of discrimination is this?
a) Direct discrimination
b) Adverse effect discrimination
c) Bona fide discrimination
d) Systemic discrimination
A
98
What legal framework would apply to a managerial employee filing awrongful dismissal suit?
a) Common law
b) Statutory regulation
c) Collective bargaining
d) Contract law
A
99
Which of the following is true of total quality management programs?
a) They focus on efficiency metrics.
b) They reduce the need for training and development.
c) They require an autocratic style of management.
d) They focus on customer needs and relationships.
D
100
A chain of pizza parlours with its head office in Alberta is experiencinglabour unrest at one of its Ontario locations. Which legal body couldbecome involved in this unrest?
a) Alberta Labour Relations Board
b) Ontario Labour Relations Board
c) National Labour Relations Board
d) Either provincial board.
B
101
As part of implementing a new HR Information System, an organizationestimated potential delays resulting in optimistic, probable, and pessimisticpotential timelines. Which project management tool would help track thisinformation?
a) Gantt chart.
b) Critical path analysis.
c) Scenario planning table.
d) Program evaluation and review technique.
D
102
When carrying out a training activity in a diverse workplace, which of thefollowing is critical to its success?
a) Different perspectives and needs of the participants are recognized.
b) Policies and practices on diversity issues are in compliance of the law.
c) Employees are comfortably placed among their own ethnic groups.
d) Culturally different employees are assigned to different days.
A
103
When making HR decisions, HR professionals must apply which of thefollowing approaches?
a) Evidence-based Approach
b) Outcome Popularity Approach
c) Collegial Approach
d) Timeliness Approach
A
104
When unsure about the ethical implications of an activity or a decision, what should an HR Professional do?
a) Consult with his/her supervisor.
b) Consult with other HR practitioners.
c) Consult with the individual impacted.
d) Consult industry standards.
A
105
Which of the following is a duty of most professional regulatory bodies?
a) Fulfill a duty of care to the public.
b) Ensure only competent individuals enter the profession.
c) Ensure membership in the profession reflects population diversity.
d) Report any member misconduct to the appropriate government authority.
B
106
Which Human Resources Professional Association document outlines the standards for conduct and moral judgments when practising HR?
a) Code of ethics
b) Policies
c) Values
d) Performance standards
D
107
Which of the following is an example of a risk transfer strategy?
a) Ensuring compliance with safety standards.
b) Discontinuing a discriminatory bonus program.
c) Providing health benefits through an insurer.
d) Providing risk management training for managers.
C
108
Which of the following is a variable cost?
a) Wages
b) Rent
c) Property taxes
d) Liability insurance
A
109
Which of the following is an organizational environmental factor?
a) The economy
b) Competition
c) Legislation
d) Stakeholders
D
110
When an HR strategic plan directly supports the goals identified in anorganization's strategic plan, what type of alignment does it have?
a) Horizontal fit
b) Vertical fit
c) Diagonal fit
d) Strategic fit
B
111
What are an organization's knowledge, experience, process discoveries, innovations, market presence, and community influence collectively known as?
a) Intellectual capital
b) Tacit capital
c) Structural capital
d) Operating capital
A
112
A local grocery store strives to provide its customers with better value fortheir money while providing an upscale differentiation. What competitivestrategy is the store engaging in?
a) Low-cost provider strategy.
b) Best-cost provider strategy.
c) Market niche strategy based on lower cost.
d) Customer-focused strategy.
B
113
In industrial relations, what is the strategic choice perspective?
a) Minimizing the role of unionization in the workplace.
b) Voluntary recognition of the union by the employer.
c) Empowering employees to choose unionization.
d) Recognizing the role of multiple stakeholders in the employment relationship.
A
114
What is the purpose of establishing an employee value proposition?
a) To articulate the employer brand.
b) To evaluate employee engagement.
c) To establish a total rewards program.
d) To support employee socialization
A
115
Which of the following statements about flexible benefit plans is true?
a) They cost less to provide than standard plans.
b) Employee choices are limited by a budget or point allocation.
c) Employees do not understand the plan as well as they do a standard plan.
d) Their psychological value is lower than that of standard plans.
B
116
In what type of plan is the employer's contribution taxable to the employee?
a) Registered pension plan
b) Long-term disability insurance
c) Deferred profit sharing plan
d) Group life insurance
D
117
Which of the following is a compensable factor under the Pay Equity Act
?
a) Race
b) Gender
c) Pay grade
d) Responsibility
D
118
A non-governmental organization is comparing jobs for the purpose ofcomplying with pay equity legislation. The organization has no equivalentmale job classes. What method of comparison should it use?
a) Job-to-job
b) Proportional value
c) Proxy comparison
d) Hybrid comparison
B
119
Which of the following is mandatory and contributed to by employers?
a) Employee pension plan
b) Employment insurance
c) Healthcare spending accounts
d) Employees life insurance
B
120
Which of the following is a feature of a hybrid pension plan?
a) It enables employees to contribute higher amounts for a higher pension.
b) It blends the features of a defined-benefit plan and a defined-contribution plan.
c) It enables employees to opt out temporarily and rejoin later.
d) It gives employees more flexibility as to when they receive the benefit.
B
121
Which of the following is a type of Scanlon plan?
a) Executive pay plan
b) Goal-sharing plan
c) Gain-sharing plan
d) Profit-sharing plan
C
122
What type of plan involves employees purchasing shares in a company?
a) Employee stock bonus plan.
b) Employee share appreciation plan.
c) Employee stock option plan.
d) Employee phantom share plan.
C
123
Which of the following is a form of indirect pay?
a) Profit sharing
b) Employee perquisites
c) Team bonus
d) Lump sum merit increase
B
124
Which of the following is true of compensation market pricing?
a) Market pricing addresses internal equity.
b) Market pricing links pay to company strategy.
c) Market pricing is not suitable for unique jobs.
d) Market pricing reduces the gender pay gap.
C
125
Why would an organization's overall average compa ratio be below 1?
a) The organization is underpaying its employees.
b) The organization's employee compensation is not competitive.
c) The organization has many new employees.
d) The organization's pay ranges are narrow.
C
126
Which of the following is important when participating in a third-partycompensation survey?
a) Matching job title to job title.
b) Reporting the average pay the organization provides per job.
c) Reporting employee earnings from T4 statements.
d) Ensuring the survey job descriptions are relevant.
D
127
What is the defining feature of a split pay range?
a) It blends base pay with variable pay to define total pay.
b) Progression through the range is based on seniority and performance.
c) Employees earn different rates of pay when performing multiple jobs.
d) It occurs within a broad banding structure.
B
128
Why should an organization conduct a compa ratio analysis?
a) To understand the distribution of employees within pay ranges.
b) To create a competitive pay structure.
c) To participate in a salary survey.
d) To evaluate jobs.
A
129
Which of the following is true of healthcare spending accounts?
a) Expenses paid out are taxable.
b) Unused amounts can be cashed out.
c) Employers have complete control over the cost.
d) They are co-funded by employees and employers.
C
130
Which of the following describes employees who are red-circled?
a) Newly hired employees on probation.
b) Employees who are paid above the maximum of their pay range.
c) Employees at risk of leaving the organization.
d) Employees on the layoff priority list owing to low seniority.
B
131
Which of the following is true of a deferred profit-sharing plan?
a) Money paid into the plan must vest over 2 years and is paid out on a prorated basis annually.
b) Money paid into the plan is held in a trust and paid out when the employee leaves the organization.
c) Money paid into the plan is taxed for the year in which it is earned.
d) Money paid into the plan includes a combination of immediate cash and future stock based on company profit.
B
132
When designing a benefit plan, what is the first question an organizationshould answer?
a) What benefits can we afford?
b) What is the competition providing?
c) What benefits do employees want to receive?
d) What is the role of benefits in our compensation strategy?
D
133
What type of candidate screening can verify a candidate's credit rating?
a) Reference check
b) Criminal check
c) Background check
d) Resume screening
C
134
Which of the following is part of the management by objectives approach toperformance management?
a) Assessing competency achievement.
b) Using critical incidents to define performance expectations.
c) Establishing SMART goals.
d) Developing behaviourally anchored rating scales.
C
135
What method of performance appraisal involves a supervisor comparing the performance of each employee to every other employee?
a) Forced distribution
b) Paired comparison
c) Relative percentile
d) Absolute rating
B
136
What type of career plateau can occur when an employee has learned a job completely and is bored with their day-to-day activities?
a) Structural
b) Job
c) Content
d) Motivation
C
137
What type of work schedule allows employees to choose their daily startand end times?
a) Job sharing
b) Job shifting
c) Compressed workweek
d) Flextime
D
138
Evaluating candidates using a relative rating scale can lead to what type of rater error?
a) Recency
b) Halo
c) Contrast
d) Central tendency
C
139
Why should HR professionals use realistic job previews?
a) To allow proper evaluation of jobs.
b) To allow proper job analysis.
c) To conduct a hazard analysis.
d) To recruit the right candidates.
D
140
The selection rate for a protected group identified in human rightslegislation is lower than the selection rate for the comparison group. Whatproblem is occurring in this situation?
a) Adverse impact
b) Discrimination
c) Selection bias
d) Wrongful hiring
A
141
What approach to recruitment decision-making is based on subjective human judgment?
a) Clinical
b) Statistical
c) Compensatory
d) Multiple cutoff
A
142
What method requires a recruiter to assign points to candidates based onindividualized aspects of the job?
a) Biographical information
b) Point factor application
c) Weighted application
d) Customized resume
C
143
Which of the following performance rating errors is an example of a distributional error?
a) Halo
b) Leniency
c) Recency
d) Horn
B
144
What is one of the characteristics of the 5-factor personality model used topredict successful performance on international assignments?
a) Aggressiveness
b) Extraversion
c) Traditionalism
d) Intelligence
B
145
Which of the following candidate assessment tools is a poor predictor ofjob performance?
a) Biodata test
b) Polygraph test
c) Cognitive ability test
d) Physical ability test
B
146
The candidate with the highest score on a selection assessment was hired,but was ultimately unsuccessful on the job. What type of error likelyoccurred in the selection assessment?
a) False negative
b) False positive
c) Wrongful hiring
d) Negligent hiring
B
147
What process anticipates future staffing needs and provides for themovement of people into, within, and out of an organization?
a) HR planning
b) Organizational development
c) HR forecasting
d) HR contingency planning
A
148
What type of interview asks all candidates the same job-related questions?
a) Fixed interview
b) Standard interview
c) Structured interview
d) Screening interview
C
149
Which of the following is a situational interview question?
a) Think back to a time when you had to meet an unrealistic deadline. How did you approach it?
b) On a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 being never and 5 being always, how would you describe your track record in resolving employee grievances?
c) Where do you see yourself in 5 years?
d) How would you go about designing an employee orientation program?
D
150
Which of the following is true of the 9-box approach to assessing employees?
a) It measures employee performance and potential.
b) It includes 9 critical core competencies.
c) It evaluates employee values, competency, and results achievement.
d) It supports a 9-step approach to career planning.
A
