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CVPM Certification > Prendergast Q&A Deck > Flashcards

Prendergast Q&A Deck Flashcards

1
Q

List the main duties associated with a groomer.

A

The main duties associated with a groomer are clipping hair, trimming nails, and maintaining a pet’s hair coat.

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2
Q

List the main duties associated with a kennel assistant.

A

A kennel assistant cleans animals and offers food and water at the veterinarian’s request, understand cleaning protocols and nutritional requirements of patients.

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3
Q

List the main duties associated with a veterinary assistant.

A

Veterinary assistants help technicians and veterinarians with restraint, diagnostics, and procedures.

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4
Q

List the main duties associated with a veterinary technician.

A

A technician assists the veterinarian in diagnostic procedures and restraint, and provides team and client education as well as patient care.

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5
Q

Define a veterinary technician specialty.

A

A technician specialty is a specialization within a particular field of veterinary medicine, in which credentials are received after completing requirements and examination.

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6
Q

What is the purpose of continuing education?

A

Continuing education provides the team with updated information, improves team moral, and is required for those with a license.

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7
Q

Which of the following is a requirement for becoming a credentialed veterinary technician?

a. Passing only the state licensing examination
b. Graduating from a 2-year veterinary technology program approved by the AVMA
c. Obtaining at least 5 years of experience in the related field and then passing the licensure examination
d. None of the above

A

B. Graduating from a 2-year veterinary technology program approved by the AVMA

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8
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility of a veterinary assistant?

a. Restraint of animals
b. Client satisfaction
c. Laboratory skills
d. All of the above
e. Both A and C

A

D. All of the above

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9
Q

What does NAVTA stand for?

a. Nationally Accredited Veterinary Technologist of America
b. National Association of Veterinary Teams of America
c. National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America
d. None of the above

A

C. National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America

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10
Q

Which of the following are responsibilities of a practice manager?

a. Overseeing only the front office staff
b. Managing only the finances of the practice
c. Ensuring the correct staff members are hired for team management
d. Having multiple responsibilities covering all employees, client relations, finances, and overall maintenance of practice

A

D. Having multiple responsibilities covering all employees, client relations, finances, and overall maintenance of practice

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11
Q

Which of the following are requirements of a veterinarian?

a. Obtaining continuing education requirements each year
b. Passing both national and state licensing examinations
c. Graduating from an AVMA-accredited school of veterinary medicine
d. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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12
Q

Define how great leadership can benefit the practice.

A

Great leadership builds an employee bond with the practice, and creates a proactive environment that requires little management. A motivating leader generates enthusiasm and excitement and provides a path for team members to be successful.

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13
Q

Define how poor leadership can negatively affect the practice.

A

Poor leadership yields high employee turnover, unsatisfied clientele, low client compliance, and high management responsibilities.

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14
Q

Define organizational development.

A

Organizational development is defined as the development, improvement, and effectiveness of an organization that includes the culture, values, systems, and behaviors.

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15
Q

Define employee development.

A

Employee Development is defined as building team retention, motivation, engagement and individual well-being.

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16
Q

Name some ways effective leadership is shown.

A

Effective Leadership is shown through character, behavior, and actions.

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17
Q

Define situational leadership.

A

It is the leader’s responsibility to recognize and adapt to the team in which he/she is leading; it is not up to the team to change or adapt to the leader.

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18
Q

In the Leadership Challenge, founded by Kouzes and Posner, name at least three components of great leadership.

A

Challenges the status quo, which leads to innovation when change is needed; Enables and empowers collaboration amongst team members; Walks the walk; Encourages team members through recognition and accomplishments; Inspires the buy-in of the mission, vision, and values.

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19
Q

Define a practice mission.

A

The mission is defined as the purpose of the hospital and the fundamental reason that the practice exists.

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20
Q

How can a lack of MVVs negatively affect the practice?

A

Owners operate without a clearly defined path for success, managers struggle to implement policies and procedures that support a vision for the hospital, and team members lack the direction needed to meet desired goals.

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21
Q

Name some areas in practice that MVVs can affect.

A

Human resources, marketing and finance.

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22
Q

Explain some ways in which a diverse team can positively affect the practice.

A

Diversity provides different insights that can be used to identify problems, solve problems, create solutions, or develop successful pathways to achieve goals.

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23
Q

Why is having a work-life balance important?

A

If one’s work balance overloads their life balance, burnout will likely occur within five years (even if you love your job). Team members are seeking flexible work schedules with less hours and more work-life balance. Leaving work at the end of the day becomes exactly that: leaving work.

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24
Q

Name some effective methods to retain team members.

A

An employer brand is established by creating a strong positive culture that draws potential candidates to the practice seeking employment opportunities.

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25
Q

Describe how an “employer brand” is established.

A

Retaining team members can be effectively accomplished by identifying each team member’s wants and needs, cultivating inclusion, and enhancing employee engagement. It also occurs through positive reinforcement, rewards, expanding roles, and career development.

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26
Q

Define empowerment and why it’s important to empower team members.

A

Empower means to give power or authority to; to authorize; to enable or permit. This means giving team members the ability and permission to complete tasks and objectives. Empowering is the concept of encouraging and authorizing workers to take initiative to improve operations, reduce costs, and improve the quality and quantity of service.

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27
Q

Determine mistakes on the following end-of-day reconciliation:

Total invoices:
$6798.34

Total cash:
$235.68

Total cash counted:
$435.68

Total checks:
$564.67

Total checks counted:
$480.98

Total credit card transactions:
$5977.99

Total credit card slips counted:
$4478.67

Total payments:
$6798.34

Total counts: _____________

A

Checks and credit card slips do not match. Missing checks and credit card slips must be found.

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28
Q

Why are health certificates required?

A

To prevent the spread of disease.

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29
Q

What makes the first impression on clients?

A

Telephone calls and receptionist, followed by the reception area when the client arrives.

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30
Q

What information should not be given to clients over the phone by the receptionist?

A

Medical advice.

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31
Q

How can a phone shopper be turned into a client?

A

Services should be detailed to phone shoppers so they can understand the value of the services. At the end of the conversation, the receptionist should ask when an appointment can be made, or let the shopper know when the next available appointment is.

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32
Q

How should a declined credit card be handled?

A

The client should be informed quietly and discreetly that the card was declined, and ask for another type of payment.

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33
Q

Why should invoices be reviewed with clients, not just given to them?

A

Clients should understand what they are paying for, and perceive the value of the service. Invoices presented without explanation gives clients a sense of sticker shock.

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34
Q

Of the following, which checks are issued from a bank and constitute guaranteed funds?

a. Personal checks
b. Cashier’s checks
c. Traveler’s checks
d. Third-party checks

A

B. Cashier’s checks

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35
Q

How many components does the human voice contain?

a. 2
b. 6
c. 4
d. 3

A

C. 4

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36
Q

Which of the following is a proper phone introduction?

a. “Hello, this is Brooke, how can I help you?”
b. “Good Morning, ABC Animal Clinic, this is Teresa. How may I help you?”
c. “ABC Veterinary Clinic, can I help you?”
d. “Good afternoon, ABC Animal Clinic. How may I help you?”

A

B. “Good Morning, ABC Animal Clinic, this is Teresa. How may I help you?”

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37
Q

If the appointment schedule is full, the receptionist should say which of the following during a phone conversation?

a. “Sorry Mrs. Jones, we are unable to see you today; can I schedule you an appointment for next week?”
b. “You are welcome to drop off Fluffy with us today, or come in as a walk-in, because we do not have any appointments available, but we would be glad to work you in.”
c. “We have had several emergencies and walk-ins already today. Can Bella wait to be seen until tomorrow?”
d. “Mrs. Smith, you can come in as a walk-in, but you will have a very long wait; we are extremely busy today.”

A

B. “You are welcome to drop off Fluffy with us today, or come in as a walk-in, because we do not have any appointments available, but we would be glad to work you in.”

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38
Q

When should receptionists reconcile the transactions to ensure they are all correct?

a. Daily at the end of the day
b. Weekly
c. Daily at the beginning of the following day
d. On an as-needed basis

A

A. Daily at the end of the day

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39
Q

What is the purpose of requiring owners to sign consent forms?

a. To ensure the owner is understanding of why they are leaving their pet
b. To protect veterinary practices and team members from any issues that may arise and may need to be submitted in the case of a lawsuit.
c. To satisfy state law
d. All of the above

A

B. To protect veterinary practices and team members from any issues that may arise and may need to be submitted in the case of a lawsuit.

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40
Q

Why are informed consent forms so critical in veterinary medicine?

A

Clients must be fully informed and authorize all procedures that are to be performed on their pet.

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41
Q

What is a carnivore?

A

A carnivore is an animal for which meat is their main diet component.

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42
Q

What are the characteristics of an effective allergy diet?

A

An effective allergy diet is composed of proteins that are hydrolyzed, preventing the body from recognizing the protein and developing a reaction. A novel protein may be introduced if the pet has never been exposed to that protein before.

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43
Q

Why is the admitting procedure for boarding patients so important?

A

It is critical to correctly admit boarding patients, allowing medication, food, and activity levels to be outlined by the owner. Some patients may have received medications at various times, and special foods that the practice normally does not feed; it is imperative to receive clear instructions from the owner.

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44
Q

What information is required on a medication label?

A

Information required on a medication label includes the practice name, address, and phone number; doctor’s name; date; client’s name; patient’s name; name of the medication; directions for administering the medication; and the expiration date of the product.

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45
Q

Interpret this prescription: Diphenhydramine; 1 cap PO EOD × 21d.

A

Give 1 capsule every other day for 21 days.

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46
Q

Give an example of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.

A

Examples of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are carprofen (Rimadyl), deracoxib (Deramaxx), and firocoxib (Previcox).

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47
Q

Why should all communications with the client be documented in the record?

A

All communications with clients (including admitting procedures) must be documented in the record, allowing all team members to know what was stated to the client. Should the record be sent to a veterinary specialist or a court of law, the recipient would have proof of what was communicated.

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48
Q

Why should a receptionist double-check medication that is dispensed to clients?

A

Receptionists are the last team members to review the medication before it leaves the practice; they can catch errors that could potentially be fatal.

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49
Q

What is a vasodilator?

A

A vasodilator is a drug that widens constricted blood vessels, allowing blood to flow through the vessels easier.

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50
Q

Vital signs that should be obtained during the history-taking process include all of the following except:

a. Body condition scoring
b. Respiratory rate
c. Heart rate
d. Capillary refill time

A

D. Capillary refill time

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51
Q

A rabies vaccine is considered to be:

a. Modified live vaccine
b. Killed vaccine
c. Live vaccine
d. None of the above

A

B. Killed vaccine

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52
Q

A urine specific gravity indicates:

a. A urinary tract infection
b. The ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine
c. The ability of the bladder to concentrate urine
d. Diabetes mellitus

A

B. The ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine

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53
Q

Patients undergoing anesthesia must have a physical examination:

a. 12 hours before anesthesia
b. During anesthesia
c. 12 hours postoperatively
d. Within 12 hours of anesthesia

A

D. Within 12 hours of anesthesia

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54
Q

Cerenia is considered which type of drug?

a. Gastric
b. Cardiac
c. Nervous
d. Respiratory

A

A. Gastric

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55
Q

How should laboratory samples be packaged for shipment?

A

Samples should be packaged to protect them from damage during shipment. Slides should be placed in a slide container. Histopathology jars should be sealed tight, placed in an absorbable material, and placed inside a Zip-lock bag. Blood tubes should be secured in an absorbent material, preventing the tubes from being crushed during shipment.

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56
Q

What is serum?

A

Serum is the liquid portion of a red top or tube after centrifugation has occurred.

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57
Q

What tests use serum?

A

Serum is used for most chemistry tests as well as phenobarbital levels, thyroid levels, and bile acids.

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58
Q

What is plasma?

A

Plasma is the liquid portion of a purple, lavender, or green top tube that contains anticoagulant.

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59
Q

What is an anaerobic bacterium?

A

An anaerobic bacterium does not require oxygen to grow.

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60
Q

Why should cytology samples be submitted separately from samples preserved in formalin?

A

Formalin has been related to degrading cells on cytology submissions.

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61
Q

Why should samples be submitted on ice?

A

The ice keeps the sample chilled, which preserves cell function.

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62
Q

What information needs to be recorded on the laboratory sheet?

A

Information recorded on a laboratory sheet may include the date; doctor’s name; patient’s name; owner’s last name; patient species, age, and gender; a history if pathology is being submitted; and the requested test(s).

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63
Q

What factors should be considered when choosing an outside laboratory?

A

Factors to consider when choosing an outside laboratory include customer service, result turnaround time, courier pickup, availability of service items, and the availability for case consults.

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64
Q

What does RTT stand for?

a. Refrigerate test time
b. Red-topped tube
c. Result target time
d. Report thromboplastin time

A

B. Red-topped tube

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65
Q

What does an LTT contain?

a. Anticoagulant EDTA
b. Sodium citrate
c. Nothing
d. Serum separator gel

A

A. Anticoagulant EDTA

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66
Q

What testing laboratory can a gastrointestinal panel be sent to?

a. Colorado State University
b. Vita-Tech Laboratories
c. Midwest Animal Blood Services
d. Texas A&M University

A

D. Texas A&M University

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67
Q

How much formalin should be added to tissue before submitting it for testing?

a. 20 times the volume of the sample
b. 15 times the volume of the sample
c. 10 times the volume of the sample
d. 100 times the volume of the sample

A

C. 10 times the volume of the sample

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68
Q

What blood tubes are required to submit testing for phenobarbital levels?

a. LTT
b. BTT
c. SST
d. RTT

A

D. RTT

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69
Q

Give two examples of questions that cannot be asked during an interview.

A

Any question that relates to age, marriage, children, or military status cannot be asked.

Other Questions NOT to Ask
• Do you have any children?
• What is your national origin?
• Where are your parents from?
• What is your maiden name?
• Have you ever been arrested?
• Do you have any physical disabilities?
• Have your wages ever been garnished?
• What type of military service have you been involved with?
• What is your native language?
• What clubs and societies do you belong to?
• Have you ever filed for workers’ compensation?
• What is your religion?
• What holidays do you observe?
• Do you prefer to be addressed as Ms., Miss, or Mrs.?
• When did you graduate from high school?

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70
Q

What is the FLSA?

A

FLSA is the Fair Labor and Standards Act that was created to protect employees from unfair work practices.

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71
Q

What is USERRA?

A

USERRA is the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Act that was created to protect individuals that are enrolled in any armed forces branch. Military members cannot be discriminated against for their past or current service and have the right to return to the same position once they return from deployment.

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72
Q

What is OSHA?

A

OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and was created to protect employees while on the job.

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73
Q

What posters are required to be displayed in a practice?

A

FLSA, Polygraph Protection Act, FMLA, EEO, IRCA.

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74
Q

Where should the required posters be displayed?

A

Posters must be displayed in an area that is highly visible to all team members.

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75
Q

What is the benefit of developing an employee manual?

A

Employee personnel manuals discuss all actions that are expected of employees and may list consequences associated with failure to comply.

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76
Q

What payroll taxes are employers responsible for?

A

FUTA, SS, Medicare are the taxes that employers must pay for each payroll period.

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77
Q

What is a contract employee?

A

A contract employee is one who is not employed by the practice, works their own established hours, and is not under the direction of any supervisor.

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78
Q

Why provide training in phases?

A

Training should be implemented in phases to prevent a new team member from becoming overwhelmed during the first few weeks of training.

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79
Q

How many weeks does the FMLA cover an employee to take unpaid leave?

a. 14 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 12 weeks
d. 8 weeks

A

C. 12 weeks

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80
Q

Which act requires employers to pay minimum wage and overtime pay?

a. FMLA
b. EPPA
c. EEO
d. FLSA

A

D. FLSA

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81
Q

What does NCA stand for?

a. National Contract-Employees Association
b. Noncompete Agreement
c. No Contract Act
d. Nonimmigrant Control Act

A

B. Noncompete Agreement

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82
Q

Which of the following is a question you should not ask during an interview?

a. Why would you want to leave your current position?
b. What is your salary requirement?
c. What was the least enjoyable aspect of your last job?
d. When did you graduate from high school?

A

D. When did you graduate from high school?

Other Questions NOT to Ask
• Do you have any children?
• What is your national origin?
• Where are your parents from?
• What is your maiden name?
• Have you ever been arrested?
• Do you have any physical disabilities?
• Have your wages ever been garnished?
• What type of military service have you been involved with?
• What is your native language?
• What clubs and societies do you belong to?
• Have you ever filed for workers’ compensation?
• What is your religion?
• What holidays do you observe?
• Do you prefer to be addressed as Ms., Miss, or Mrs.?
• Any question that relates to age, marriage, children, or military status cannot be asked.

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83
Q

What does the abbreviation AD stand for?

a. Right ear
b. Right eye
c. Once daily
d. Adrenal disease

A

A. Right ear

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84
Q

Define civil law.

A

Civil law is the division of law that covers tort and contract law, and relates to the duties between government and people.

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85
Q

Define contract law.

A

Contract law works with duties established by individuals as a result of contractual agreements.

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86
Q

Define negligence.

A

Negligence is the performance of an act that another person under the same circumstances would not perform.

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87
Q

Define malpractice.

A

Malpractice refers to any misconduct, illegal or immoral, that result in damage or injury to a person or animal.

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88
Q

Why are ethics important to the veterinary profession?

A

Ethics are important to hold each member of an organization to a higher standard and determine right from wrong.

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89
Q

Why is an informed consent imperative?

A

An informed consent ensures the client has a complete understanding of the procedures involved, including risks, benefits, and alternative procedures.

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90
Q

Why would a consent form not be upheld in court?

A

A consent form may not be held up in court if an individual under the age of 16 years signed the form, was under the influence of drugs or alcohol, or is mentally unstable.

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91
Q

What branch of law does animal abuse fall under?

A

Animal abuse falls under criminal law and is prosecuted by the attorney general or district attorney’s office.

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92
Q

What is PLIT? Whom does it cover?

A

PLIT is Professional Liability Insurance Trust that covers veterinarians (and the staff members) involved in the veterinary practice.

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93
Q

Why is medical record legibility important?

A

Medical records must be legible if the record is ever taken to court. The judge must be able to read and understand the record, or the court may come to the conclusion that the event did not happen (as it can be extrapolated from the record).

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94
Q

Which association created the Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics?

a. AVMA
b. NAVTA
c. VHMA
d. PLIT

A

A. AVMA

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95
Q

What does the acronym VCPR stand for?

a. Veterinary-client public records
b. Veterinarian-client-patient relationship
c. Veterinary cardiac pulmonary resuscitation
d. Veterinary conduct and professional responsibilities

A

B. Veterinarian-Client-Patient Relationship

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96
Q

Which of the following is considered a branch of veterinary ethics?

a. Normative
b. Descriptive
c. Administrative
d. Official
e. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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97
Q

What are the two categories of law?

a. Civil and federal
b. Criminal and common
c. Criminal and civil
d. Federal and criminal

A

C. Criminal and civil

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98
Q

What is the correct definition of an intentional tort?

a. An intentional action that has taken place in which harm has occurred to another member of society
b. Crimes committed against the public as a whole
c. A civil offense to an opposing party in which harm has occurred
d. An injury occurring to a member of society as a result of negligence

A

A. An intentional action that has taken place in which harm has occurred to another member of society

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99
Q

What is the difference between CF and burnout?

A

Compassion Fatigue only occurs in a caretaking role, and can occur with one incident, where as burnout occurs over time. Employees must the place of employment to resolve burnout.

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100
Q

What causes CF and burnout?

A

Empathy and caretaking are causes of compassion fatigue. Burnout is an overall decrease in job satisfaction.

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101
Q

Which has a rapid onset? CF or burnout?

A

Compassion Fatigue

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102
Q

Can CF occur in any industry?

A

No, only those that provide care in some manner.

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103
Q

Can burnout occur in any industry?

a. Yes
b. No

A

A. Yes

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104
Q

Can CF result in loss of clients?

a. Yes
b. No

A

A. Yes

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105
Q

What is the “A” in the ABCs of care?

a. Acknowledgement
b. Acceptance
c. Awareness
d. Avoidance

A

C. Awareness

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106
Q

What is the “B” in the ABCs of care?

a. Be proactive
b. Work-life Balance
c. Be supportive
d. Set Boundaries

A

B. Work-life Balance

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107
Q

What is the “C” in the ABCs of care?

a. Connection
b. Communication
c. Control
d. Clarification

A

A. Connection

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108
Q

In the ASCPA stress study, which was NOT a stressor listed commonly by veterinarians?

a. Difficult or noncompliant clients
b. Difficult staff members
c. Not enough time
d. Discussing/disputing fees

A

B. Difficult staff members

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109
Q

In the ASCPA stress study, which was NOT a stressor listed commonly by veterinary support staff?

a. Difficult or noncompliant clients
b. Problems with coworkers
c. Not enough time
d. Lack of growth potential

A

D. Lack of growth potential

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110
Q

CF is at a peak during which of the following:

a. Work anniversaries
b. While training new hires
c. Holiday season
d. When staff members leave the practice

A

C. Holiday season

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111
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of cognitive CF?

a. Disconnecting from friends
b. Depression
c. Decreased self-esteem
d. Feelings of self-harm

A

A. Disconnecting from friends

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112
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of behavioral CF?

a. Increased substance use/abuse
b. Losing things
c. Disconnecting from friends
d. Nightmares

A

C. Disconnecting from friends

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113
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of emotional CF?

a. Anxiety
b. Aches and pains
c. Rage
d. Helplessness

A

C. Rage

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114
Q

What is the MBTI?

A

The MBTI is the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, which can help individuals make more informed career choices.

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115
Q

Why should one prepare for an interview?

A

One must prepare for an interview, answering anticipated questions. Someone that prepares for an interview appears confident, professional, and well composed.

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116
Q

What is the purpose of a cover letter?

A

A cover letter introduces the reader to the candidate, summarizing the qualifications that may not be so visible on the resume.

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117
Q

When would one use a skills-based resume?

A

One would use a skills-based resume when one is changing careers, highlighting the skills the candidate has, potentially matching them to the skills required by the position.

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118
Q

Why should one ask potential employers questions?

A

An applicant should ask potential employers questions because it is an interview for both. The applicant wants to ensure that the potential place of employment is a desired location to work, and that values and ethics match.

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119
Q

How should one dress for an interview?

A

One should dress appropriately and look professional for an interview. A candidate does not want to appear underdressed.

120
Q

Why is professional development important to maintain?

A

Professional development must be maintained in case a career change is ever warranted.

121
Q

What is the purpose of a follow-up letter?

A

A follow-up letter shows the potential employer that the candidate is still interested in the position, and it summarizes or provides any additional information requested during the interview.

122
Q

On average, individuals change jobs every:

a. 1.5 years
b. 2.5 years
c. 3.5 years
d. 4.5 years

A

C. 3.5 years

123
Q

Skills that have been gathered through various jobs and experiences are known as

a. Transferable skills
b. Personal skills
c. A skill survey
d. Educational

A

A. Transferable skills

124
Q

Marketing oneself starts with

a. Cover letters
b. Resumes
c. Benign conversations
d. Interviews

A

C. Benign conversations

125
Q

Cover letters are

a. Required
b. Recommended
c. Not needed

A

B. Recommended

126
Q

A successful interview encompasses all of the following except

a. Interviewing the potential employer
b. Interviewing the potential candidate
c. Answering questions with confidence
d. Arriving to the interview late

A

D. Arriving to the interview late

127
Q

Define a strategic plan.

A

Strategic planning is a long-term action plan that a business puts in writing to achieve defined goals over time. Strategic planning involves positioning the practice for the future. This includes deciding where the practice will be in the future and making decisions today to accomplish future goals.

128
Q

Name the four phases of strategic planning.

A

Strategic management includes four phases; formulation, development, implementation, and evaluation.

129
Q

Name the four phases of a business life cycle.

A

There are four stages of a business lifecycle: introduction, growth, maturity, and decline.

130
Q

Define organization design.

A

Organizational design is the methodology which identifies aspects of workflow, procedures, roles and systems, and aligns them to fit current business realities/goals.

131
Q

What are the four steps of organizational development?

A

Defining the problem, designing a solution, implementing the solution and following through with evaluation are the four components of organizational development.

132
Q

Define a learning organization.

A

A learning organization is one that is characterized by the ability to adapt to change and respond quickly to environmental/consumer changes.

133
Q

What is workforce planning?

A

Workforce planning is determining what team members will be needed to achieve the practice goals starting in present day and for the future. By planning ahead, the right team members can be chosen and developed into valuable roles. In essence, the goal of workforce planning is to find, develop, and retain talented individuals in order to achieve strategic goals.

134
Q

Define talent management.

A

Talent management is defined as building the team to deliver the strategic goal that has been put in place.

135
Q

Define succession planning.

A

Succession planning is defined as identifying and fostering the growth of high performing employees and preparing them to fill critical positions within the practice in the future.

136
Q

How far in advance should strategic plans be developed?

a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

137
Q

Which is NOT a phase of strategic management?

a. Development
b. Formulation
c. Evaluation
d. Communication

A

D. Communication

138
Q

Which is NOT a phase of the business life cycle?

a. Growth
b. Acceleration
c. Decline
d. Maturity

A

B. Acceleration

139
Q

MVVs should be developed during which phase of the business life cycle?

a. Introductory
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline

A

A. Introductory

140
Q

Which is NOT part of the formulation phase in strategic management?

a. Developing MVVs
b. Identifying strengths and weaknesses
c. Creating SOPs
d. Creating a gap analysis

A

C. Creating SOPs

141
Q

What does the “S” stand for in the SWOT analysis?

a. Standards
b. Strengths
c. Supplements
d. Supportive

A

B. Strengths

142
Q

What is internal marketing? Give an example.

A

Internal marketing is any program geared to improve service to existing clients. This may include newsletters, reminders, recalls, client education materials, Websites, and social media.

143
Q

What is external marketing? Give an example.

A

External marketing is any program geared to potential clients. External programs may take a while before a response is seen. Examples may include phone book advertising, newspaper advertising, community service events, Websites, and social media.

144
Q

What example can be applied to both internal and external marketing?

A

Websites and social media; information is available for current and potential clients on Websites, and clients share information and experiences on social media.

145
Q

Why is a website essential in today’s market?

A

A Website is essential in today’s market because many people choose to look for needed information on the World Wide Web. Businesses must provide information that clients are looking for in order to satisfy the computer savvy client.

146
Q

What information should be included in client education materials?

A

Information in client education materials includes the practice name, address, phone number, Website, and veterinarian’s names. The disease or condition must also be included, along with treatment options.

147
Q

Why should a practice be branded?

A

A practice should be branded so that clients associate a particular phrase or logo with that particular practice. This can improve the marketing program of any practice.

148
Q

What is a pet portal?

A

A pet portal is a Web-driven model that allows clients to order prescription refills, order pet products, or make appointments, all at the discretion of the practice.

149
Q

What is the purpose of reminders and recalls?

A

Reminders and recalls are an important internal marketing technique that reminds clients of appointments and allows team members to check on pets. This is an effective client retention method.

150
Q

Why is indirect marketing so important?

A

Indirect marketing is a technique that markets the practice to existing clientele, and includes such things as clean facilities, proper telephone etiquette, and client acknowledgment. Without these essential basic techniques, the practice would have a harder time retaining clients.

151
Q

How would a practice brochure benefit the practice?

A

Brochures benefit practices because clients do not know of all services a practice may offer. This allows clients to become familiar with services, products, and treatments that may be available for their pet.

152
Q

What does the acronym SWOT stand for?

a. Service with outstanding treatment
b. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats
c. Service, website, office appearance, transactions
d. None of the above

A

B. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats

153
Q

Which of the following is an example of internal marketing?

a. Lectures
b. E-Newsletter
c. Telephone etiquette
d. Blogs

A

C. Telephone etiquette

154
Q

Which of the following can be found on a clinic’s webpage?

a. Virtual tour
b. Appointment requests
c. Hours of operation
d. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

155
Q

How many options are there for website creation?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 1

A

D. 3

156
Q

What is the correct definition of SEO?

a. The process of affecting the visibility of a website or webpage in a search engines’ search results
b. The key terms that a search engine will use
c. A search engine’s external hyperlinks used to promote a website
d. None of the above

A

A. The process of affecting the visibility of a website or webpage in a search engines’ search results

157
Q

Define benchmarking, and describe the difference between internal and external benchmarks.

A

Benchmarking is the process of comparing a practice to others on a local, state, region, or national level. Internal benchmarks look at the practice’s historical figures; external benchmarks are the average numbers or percentages across the industry.

158
Q

What is the difference between a CPA and a bookkeeper?

A

A CPA has a degree in accounting and has sat for numerous exams. CPAs must also attend continuing education each year to maintain their professional status. A bookkeeper generally learns by trade.

159
Q

Why should a budget be created?

A

A budget should be created to prevent overspending and shortfalls when paying bills. A practice must budget for taxes and expenses and be able to reinvest money back into the practice in order to purchase equipment.

160
Q

What is a variable expense? Give some examples.

A

A variable expense is an expense that changes with the volume of clients and business. Examples include medications, supplies, and pet foods.

161
Q

What is a fixed cost? Give some examples.

A

A fixed cost is an expense that does not change regardless of the volume of business. Examples include rent, electricity, and property taxes.

162
Q

Define some areas that could cause a cash flow crunch.

A

A cash flow deficit could be caused by improper inventory management, fraud or embezzlement, excessive payroll, or higher than profit distributions paid to the owner(s).

163
Q

How can a manager increase the value of a hospital?

A

A manager can increase the value of the hospital by ensuring medical records are complete, recommendations are made to clients, and that clients accept the recommendations being made. Increased client compliance and retention drive value, along with low turnover of team members. Building maintenance, modern equipment, and good financial records will also help.

164
Q

Define the Red Flags Rule, and discuss why it should be implemented by the veterinary practice.

A

The Red Flags Rule has been established by the Federal Trade Commission to try and decrease fraud, embezzlement, and identify theft in businesses. All three of these factors occur in veterinary medicine, and it is up to every practice to protect the clients and team members.

165
Q

What is the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, and why was it established?

A

The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act was established to protect the consumer and set guidelines for credit collectors to abide by. Practices must abide by the guidelines set forth when attempting to collect accounts. Guidelines include only speaking with the client that owes money, not calling before or after specified hours, and not placing debt collection notices on the outside of statement envelopes.

166
Q

What characteristics should be considered when choosing a collections agent?

A

Professional, ethical, and reliable.

167
Q

What is an insufficient funds charge?

A

A check that is returned to a depositor because of lack of funds in the payee account.

168
Q

What is a held check?

A

A check that is given to a practice, with the date of acceptance written on the check, and asked to be deposited on a later date.

169
Q

If a practice reports services when they are invoiced, they are reporting by which standard?

a. Cash basis
b. Accrual basis

A

B. Accrual basis

170
Q

Staff payroll is considered a ______ expense for benchmarking purposes.

a. fixed
b. variable

A

B. variable

171
Q

Accounts receivable should not exceed:

a. 1.5% of gross revenue
b. $2
c. 5% of gross revenue
d. 10% of gross revenue

A

A. 1.5% of gross revenue

172
Q

Holding checks for clients is recommended when they cannot pay for services the same day.

a. True
b. False

A

A. True

173
Q

Which of the following is mandated by the Fair Debit Collection Act?

a. Notification stickers can be placed on the outside of the envelope.
b. Conversations to collect outstanding AR can be held with any of the family members residing in the home.
c. Collection calls can only be made between 8 a.m. and 9 p.m.
d. Clients can be threatened withholding veterinary services.

A

C. Collection calls can only be made between 8 a.m. and 9 p.m.

174
Q

Withdrawing employee accounts receivable from the employee paycheck is an acceptable form of payment.

a. True
b. False

A

B. False

175
Q

Third-party payment plans include:

a. CareCredit
b. Veterinary Pet Insurance
c. PaymentBanc
d. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

176
Q

Pet health insurance:

a. Improves patient care
b. Increases patient examinations
c. Decreases stop treatment threshold
d. A and B

A

D. A and B

177
Q

Indemnity insurance is also known as:

a. Managed care
b. HMO delivered
c. PPO delivered
d. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

178
Q

An amount an owner pays on a monthly basis is known as a:

a. Premium
b. Deductible
c. Copay
d. All of the above

A

A. Premium

179
Q

Wellness plans should be developed by:

a. Species
b. Age group
c. Client preferences
d. A and B

A

D. A and B

180
Q

The purpose of Wellness Plans is to:

a. Promote preventive care
b. Promote all-inclusive care
c. Promote pet health insurance
d. None of the above

A

A. Promote preventive care

181
Q

Why are verbal and written skills imperative in veterinary medicine?

A

Excellent verbal and written skills contribute to the overall professional image of the practice. Clients trust team members that can speak and communicate well, and are willing to accept recommendations the team makes.

182
Q

What is client compliance, and how can it be achieved?

A

Client compliance is defined as when clients accept recommendations from the team. It can be achieved by educating the client regarding the importance of the procedure or treatment, both verbally and with written materials.

183
Q

What are the benefits of a reminder system?

A

Reminder systems automatically generate reminders for services or products that have been preselected in the computer. If the client does not respond to the first reminder, a second is generated.

184
Q

Create an example that can enhance client education.

A

Dental disease in pets can be seen clearly. Dental models can be shown to clients indicating what the inside of the mouth looks like, as only the outside of the teeth can be visualized. The pet may receive a dental report card indicating the stage of dental disease their pet has, as well as a brochure indicating what is included in a dental procedure. Before and after pictures can be taken during a dental procedure, along with a print out of digital dental radiographs for the owner.

185
Q

What would be an appropriate body stance when addressing clients?

A

The head should be held up high, shoulders back, and arms at the side of the body.

186
Q

Why is body posture important?

A

Body posture communicates a positive, professional, and confident image.

187
Q

How should an angry client be handled?

A

Angry clients should be placed in an exam room away from other clients. The team member addressing the client should listen to what the client has to say and repeat it, ensuring no miscommunication occurs. The team member may offer a resolution to the problem, which will satisfy the client.

188
Q

How can common barriers be overcome?

A

Common barriers can be overcome in several ways. If a client has folded arms and refuses to accept information, a brochure or model can be handed to the client to open the lines of communication. If it is a language barrier, another team member may be more experienced in translation. Team members may become educated in the various cultures that are in the immediate area, and learn to communicate with each of those cultures (some cultures respond to situations differently).

189
Q

Why are estimates important?

A

Estimates must be given to clients before procedures are done so that they are aware of the expense. Clients that do not receive estimates are generally upset at the staff because of the expense of the procedure, and leave the practice unsatisfied.

190
Q

How can an individual’s verbal image be improved?

A

Verbal image can be improved by attending continuing education seminars and understanding procedures and products completely. When teams have a full comprehension of the procedure, communication to clients is more confident and professional. Teams must learn the correct pronunciation of words and protocols, which also enhances verbal image.

191
Q

What is euthanasia?

A

Euthanasia is the human form of providing an easy and painless death.

192
Q

Why is quality of life important?

A

Pets should be able to urinate, defecate and eat to have a good quality of life. Those that do not have a quality of life become depressed and irritable.

193
Q

What are the five stages of grief? Describe each.

A

Denial - Owners do not believe that their pet is as sick or injured as it really is; often they will seek opinions of others.

Anger - clients are angry at what caused the situation to occur; a pet hit by a car may be the fault of a family member leaving the gate open and the client is angry.

Bargaining - clients experience a stage when they are willing to bargain for a longer period of time with their pet. They may offer vitamins or supplements to try to extend the life of their pet.

Depression - clients suffer a period of depression and sadness with the loss of their pet.

Acceptance - clients accept the loss of the pet, and the pain lessens. They may be able to adopt a new pet at this point.

194
Q

Why is the human-animal bond so strong?

A

Many people form a special bond with pets because they can share many life experiences with them. The pain of a divorce, the loss of a human friend or family member can all be lessened by a pet that offers distractions.

195
Q

In what ways can a pet be memorialized?

A

Cards, flowers, paw prints, clay prints or picture collages are all suggestions.

196
Q

How should a pet be presented to an owner after it has been euthanized?

A

The pet should be presented without catheters or bandaging materials. The eyes may be glued shut and all urine or feces should be removed.

197
Q

What drug is in a euthanasia solution?

A

A barbiturate is the active drug in a euthanasia solution.

198
Q

How does this drug affect the body?

A

The drug depresses the cardiac and respiratory system until they stop.

199
Q

How can a team prevent the wrong ashes from being sent home with an owner?

A

The container should be clearly marked with nice writing, the name of the pet. If the name is not written on the container, a card should be securely attached with a rubber band.

200
Q

Why must a euthanasia release form be signed by the owner?

A

The clinic must ensure the owner knows and understands the result of euthanasia, and that the practice is released of liability by euthanizing the pet.

201
Q

The portion of a message that involves facial expressions is:

a. Verbal
b. Paraverbal
c. Nonverbal
d. Written

A

C. Nonverbal

202
Q

If a client receives a confusing message, which portion of the message can they rely on for a better understanding?

a. Verbal
b. Paraverbal
c. Nonverbal
d. Written

A

C. Nonverbal

203
Q

The percentage of clients who accept a recommendation is known as:

a. Compliance
b. Retention
c. Turnover
d. Quantity

A

A. Compliance

204
Q

Client education should be available in which of the following forms?

a. Webpage
b. Printed material
c. Verbal education
d. Models and videos
e. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

205
Q

Which team member should present treatment plans to clients?

a. Veterinarians
b. Receptionists
c. Veterinary technicians
d. B and C

A

D. B and C

206
Q

Why should a veterinary practice implement an appointment system if one is not already in place?

A

To help control the traffic flow within the practice at all times.

207
Q

How can clients be informed of the changes when a practice wants to implement an appointment system? Why create a positive atmosphere when making these changes?

A

Brochures, postcards, and newsletters can be sent to clients indicating the change from walk-in to appointment service. Creating a positive atmosphere about the change will help clients embrace the change and learn to make appointments.

208
Q

What are the benefits of clients dropping off patients?

A

If an appointment time is not available and the pet needs to be seen, dropping off the patient allows the team to work it in between appointments, reducing long wait times. The team can examine the patient, perform laboratory procedures if needed, and call the client when the patient is ready to be picked up.

209
Q

Why should veterinary clinics strive for a proactive environment?

A

Proactive environments take care of problems before they arise, ensuring client satisfaction.

210
Q

Why should an appointment be established for client education?

A

Client education can take a large amount of time, depending on the disease or condition that needs to be discussed. Clients should not have to wait long periods of time to be educated, or they may become irritated. Once they are irritated, they may not listen to all of the information that is being presented to them.

211
Q

Explain how to handle clients who are always late for their appointments.

A

They must be reminded in a kind manner what time their appointment is, and informed that the appointment will take the full time that has been allotted for them. If they cannot make the appointment time, it will need to be rescheduled.

212
Q

What factors affect appointment scheduling?

A

The number of veterinarians working, technician appointments, surgeries, dental procedures, nonsterile procedures, holidays, the type of appointment, and the particular client.

213
Q

Specific clients always take longer for appointments. Why allot those specific clients more time than other clients?

A

Allotting more time for these clients will reduce schedule back-ups and decrease team member stress. Being proactive prevents schedule backup later in the day.

214
Q

Why should walk-in clients be seen?

A

Many clients feel that their pet is experiencing an emergency and cannot wait for the next available appointment; therefore, they must be seen for the minor emergency. The emergency may not seem like an emergency to the staff, but it is important to the client to be seen. Practices do not want clients to feel that their pet is not important enough to be seen.

215
Q

What information is vital when scheduling appointments?

A

Client’s name, pet’s name and species, problem to be seen for, and a phone number to contact the client the day of the appointment.

216
Q

The goals of an appointment system include which of the following?

a. Maximize productivity
b. Reduce staff tension
c. Control traffic within the veterinary hospital
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D. All of the above

217
Q

The longer a client waits to be seen for his appointment, the more likely:

a. Compliance will increase
b. Compliance will decrease
c. Compliance will not change with appointment wait times

A

B. Compliance will decrease

218
Q

To help reduce client overload at the front desk, appointments should be:

a. Set every 15 minutes
b. Staggered by at least 5 minutes
c. None of the above

A

B. Staggered by at least 5 minutes

219
Q

Appointments should be set for:

a. Client education
b. Surgery/dental procedures
c. Technicians
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

A. Client education

220
Q

Appointment lengths may vary for all of the following except:

a. Specific client
b. Appointment type
c. Veterinarian
d. Patient

A

D. Patient

221
Q

Why is legibility so important in medical records?

A

Records must be legible so that team members can follow instructions for appropriate treatment for the patient. Team members must also be able to refer to the history of the patient when they return for future visits. Should the patient need to be referred to a specialist, the specialty practice must be able to read diagnostics and treatments for the patient. Should the case ever become the subject of a lawsuit, the judge must be able to read and understand the record in order to make a fair ruling on the case.

222
Q

How often are medical records purged?

A

State laws vary regarding the length of time medical records must be kept; most states require at least 3 years. Inactive records can be purged from the active record section, moving them to another location within the practice yearly.

223
Q

What is the earliest that records can be shredded?

A

In most states records can be shredded after three years.

224
Q

Why is history taking critical for a medical record?

A

The presenting complaint must be documented in the record. The history helps the veterinarians determine a diagnosis.

225
Q

What is a SOAP progress note? Give an example of each part.

A

SOAP is the format medical records should follow: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan.

  • Subjective information is the reason for the patient’s visit.
  • Objective information includes the physical exam.
  • Assessment is the conclusion that can be reached from the subjective and objective sections, including possible diagnosis.
  • The Plan includes the diagnostic workup recommended, along with intended communications for the owner.
226
Q

What items are mandatory in a medical record? Why?

A

Mandatory items in a medical record:

a. Owner’s name
b. Patient’s name
c. Patient’s information
d. SOAP
e. Physical exam
f. Treatments: must include name of drug, strength, route of administration, and the initials of the administrator
g. Diagnosis
h. Laboratory data: interpretation and comments regarding abnormalities
i. Prognosis: excellent, fair, guarded or poor
j. Initials of the doctor and technician(s)

All information is required in order to have a complete medical record.

227
Q

Why are discharge sheets vital?

A

Clients may not remember all of the information presented to them upon discharge of their pet. Information should be in written format so that they may review the information when they get home.

228
Q

Does a client record belong to the client? Why or why not?

A

No, the medical record does not belong to the client. It is the property of the veterinary practice; however copies can be made for owners at any time.

229
Q

Who owns the radiographs of a pet?

A

The practice owns the radiographs, but copies can be made for owners at their request.

230
Q

What is the most common method for filing paper medical records?

A

Alphabetical

231
Q

Legible, complete medical records are an asset to the hospital, and they bring value during a hospital valuation.

a. True
b. False

A

A. True

232
Q

Medical records:

a. Can be released to any person asking for a copy
b. Must be released to the owner only
c. Must have an owner’s consent to be released to any person asking for a copy
d. b and c

A

D. b and c

233
Q

The objective portion of the SOAP format includes:

a. Chief complaint of the client
b. Observations of team members upon check-in
c. Physical examination
d. Diagnosis

A

C. Physical examination

234
Q

Purging medical records:

a. Increases lost records
b. Is required by law
c. Allows inactive records to be shredded
d. Moves inactive medical records to another storage area

A

D. Moves inactive medical records to another storage area

235
Q

Medical record audits should:

a. Capture missed charges
b. Identify incomplete medical records
c. Identify lapses in recommendations
d. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

236
Q

Why should the inventory manager see distributor and manufacturer representatives?

A

Representatives provide valuable information on products that are available. They also provide continuing education on topics other than products, such as tactics to improve client communications, compliance, and increased client satisfaction.

237
Q

What is the goal of an inventory system?

A

The goal of an inventory system is to keep enough inventory on hand to prevent it from running out, but not so much that drugs expire, disappear by theft, or become damaged.

238
Q

Why should a “want list” be developed?

A

Want lists encourage team members to write products on the board that are running low. This is a step to help the inventory manager in case product quantity is accidentally overlooked.

239
Q

What is an order book?

A

Order books are used to keep track of all orders that have been called in. When inventory items are received, they can be checked against the order book, ensuring that the product received is correct.

240
Q

What is an SDS?

A

An SDS is a safety data sheet that is required to be kept by all practices in a safety notebook. OSHA requires all practices that stock chemicals to keep sheets informing the team of hazards the chemical may possess and how to treat the team member should they be exposed adversely to the products.

241
Q

What is capital inventory?

A

Capital inventory is any piece of equipment that the practice purchases.

242
Q

What does an inventory manager do with expired medications?

A

If expired medications have been unopened, some distributors or manufacturers may exchange then for more recently produced drugs. Controlled substances must be submitted to a waste management company that is certified to handle expired CS’s. Expired medications should be placed in a drug-neutralizing pouch. A neutralization pouch mixes the drug with warm water and activated carbon, and the active ingredient becomes neutralized, rendering it irretrievable. The pouch can then be thrown away in the trash.

243
Q

What minimum percentage should products be marked up to break even?

A

40%

244
Q

What are some losses associated with poor inventory control?

A

Back orders, expired medications, lack of medications, or increased costs associated with purchasing inventory are all losses associated with poor inventory control.

245
Q

How many times should inventory be turned over per year?

A

Inventory should be turned over 6 to 12 times per year.

246
Q

Improving profits in the primacy revenue center can be accomplished by:

a. Determining and using effective turnover rates
b. Determining and using effective reorder points
c. Determining and using effective reorder quantities
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D. All of the above

247
Q

Price shopping for inventory items is a cost-effective method to reduce cost of goods.

a. True
b. False

A

B. False

248
Q

To help reduce soft costs, orders for top producing items should be placed:

a. Weekly
b. Semimonthly
c. Monthly
d. As needed

A

C. Monthly

249
Q

Consolidating inventory reduces profits.

a. True
b. False

A

B. False

250
Q

In order to calculate the least cost that can be charged, a practice must determine:

a. Turnover rate
b. Break-even cost
c. Markup
d. Soft cost

A

D. Soft cost

251
Q

What are controlled substances?

A

A controlled substance is a drug that has been labeled with high abuse potential, therefore the DEA has strict procedures for purchasing and dispensing the drug.

252
Q

What is the abuse potential of ketamine?

A

Class III

253
Q

Why are log sheets required for controlled substances?

A

Log sheets are required to track all products that have been dispensed. Any drug that is not accounted for must be reported as missing (if more than 3% per year).

254
Q

What is the purpose of a year-end physical inventory?

A

A physical inventory is required every two years by the DEA; however, some states require a yearly inventory. This allows for drug reconciliation; any product with more than 3% missing must be reported.

255
Q

What is DEA Form 106 used for?

A

Form 106 is used to report any missing controlled substances.

256
Q

The class with the highest abuse potential is:

a. II
b. IV
c. V

A

A. II

257
Q

DEA Form 222 is used to:

a. register a doctor for a DEA license.
b. report lost controlled substances.
c. order Schedule II controlled substances.
d. order Schedule IV controlled substances.

A

C. Order Schedule II controlled substances.

258
Q

Logs should be stored in the same place as controlled substances.

a. True
b. False

A

B. False

259
Q

A loss of ________ or more must be reported to the DEA.

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%

A

C. 3%

260
Q

A reverse distributor:

a. sells controlled substances to veterinary hospitals.
b. incinerates expired controlled substances.
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above

A

B. Incinerates expired controlled substances.

261
Q

What is a zoonotic disease?

A

A zoonotic disease is a disease that is transmitted from animal to humans.

262
Q

How should an animal heavier than 40 lbs be lifted onto a table?

A

Two employees are required when lifting any animal heavier than 40 lbs. The legs should be used, not the back. The back should remain straight up and down (not bent).

263
Q

What is OSHA?

A

OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and it was developed to protect employee health.

264
Q

What is the “Right to Know” poster?

A

Job Safety and Health- It’s the Law is a poster that is required to be posted by employers, informing employees that they have the right to know about hazards that are associated with their occupation.

265
Q

What is an SDS?

A

An SDS is a Safety Data Sheet that lists all pertinent information about a chemical, including fire and explosive capabilities. SDSs list methods of disposal, cleanup, and use.

266
Q

What is the purpose of PPE?

A

PPE is personal protective equipment and must be used when provided by employers.

267
Q

When does OSHA Form 300A have to be posted?

A

The OSHA Form 300A must be posted February 1 to April 30 of each year.

268
Q

What is an eyewash station?

A

An eyewash station is an area in or near a sink that allows a person to flush their eyes out should a chemical or object enter. The best eyewash station is connected to a sink, allowing continuous pressure to irrigate the eye when necessary.

269
Q

What is a biohazard material?

A

A biohazard material is any material that is sharp, glass, or contaminated with human blood or pathogens.

270
Q

What are some hazardous chemicals used in veterinary practice?

A

Examples of hazardous chemicals used in veterinary practice include ethylene oxide, formaldehyde, and glutaraldehyde.

271
Q

Under OSHA guidelines, employees are responsible for which of the following:

a. Read the Right to Know Poster
b. Order PPE for the practice
c. Training fellow team members on the use of PPE
d. Document conditions in which PPE must be used

A

A. Read the Right to Know Poster

272
Q

If an OSHA inspector arrives at the hospital, which of the following options should be exercised?

a. Introduce the inspector to the safety officer
b. Allow the inspection to proceed without a team member
c. Hide violations from the staff
d. Do not allow OSHA access

A

A. Introduce the inspector to the safety officer

273
Q

Which of the following contribute to the majority of fires in the veterinary practice?

a. Paper files stacked up to the ceiling
b. Blankets next to a furnace
c. Overloaded electrical outlets
d. Heating units left unattended

A

C. Overloaded electrical outlets

274
Q

Back injuries can be classified as which type of injury?

a. Physical
b. Biohazard
c. Caustic
d. Ergonomic

A

D. Ergonomic

275
Q

Noise protection should be provided for employees when noise levels reach which decibel level?

a. 75 dB
b. 85 dB
c. 95 dB
d. Ear protection is not required

A

B. 85 dB

276
Q

Why should computer systems be backed up at the end of every shift?

A

Computer data should be backed up at the end of every shift in case disaster or theft occurs overnight. The backup disk can be loaded onto a new computer and no data will be lost.

277
Q

Why should computer software be password protected?

A

Software should be password protected to prevent employees from stealing confidential information and to add another level of protection against hackers.

278
Q

What is the purpose of one-way door locks?

A

One-way door locks require a key to enter, but the door can be used as an exit at any time.

279
Q

What should team members do if an armed individual enters the practice and demands money or drugs?

A

Team members should give an armed individual whatever they request, including money or drugs. The goal is to get the intruder out of the practice as soon as possible to protect team members and clients.

280
Q

How can security systems provide practice protection?

A

Security systems can sound alarms for broken windows or doors, call 911, and notify the owner should the alarm be activated.

281
Q

Why is exterior perimeter lighting so critical?

A

Exterior lighting is critical for team member and client safety; bright lights deter criminals.

282
Q

What is an ASP baton?

A

An ASP baton is used for personal protection and provides superior force when used to strike an attacker.

283
Q

Computers systems should be backed up every 24 hours:

a. On a CD or DVD
b. Off-site
c. All of the above

A

B. Off-site

284
Q

Security systems may include:

a. Window alarms
b. Doorway alarms
c. Video camera
d. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

285
Q

Less than __ of gross revenue should be tied up in AR

A

15%

286
Q

Inventory turns per year are defined ___ of times an

inventoried product turns over in a practice per year.

A

number of times … Is the number of times that a company has sold and replaced and inventory item in a given a year

287
Q

What is a standard inventory turn ratio that would be good for a veterinary practice

A

Each practice
should set a goal of eight to twelve turns per year, depending on
the product the more profitable the item the higher the turn should be the least profitable the item is the higher the turn she be

288
Q

average inventory per year

A

add the beginning inventory of the
year to the ending inventory of the year and divide the result by
two.

289
Q

Inventory turns per year

A

First, add the beginning inventory of the
year to the ending inventory of the year and divide the result by
two. This determines the average inventory per year. Next, take
the total amount of product purchased during that year divided
by the average inventory per year to get the number of turns per
year for that product.

290
Q

Three factors are presented when determining reorder quantities;

A

average daily use, turnover goals, and product expiration.

291
Q

Example of average daily use calculation:

A

Example of average daily use calculation::
A practice is open 365 days per year and sells 550 Rimadyl, 25 mg #180.
• 550 ÷ 365 = 1.5
• Rimadyl 25-mg #180 sells an average of 1.5 bottles per day

292
Q

• Average daily use × turnover goal (in days) =

quantity.

A

reorder
quantity.
Rimadyl 25 mg #180 is a top-producing product; therefore it has
a turnover goal of 12 times per year (30 days). What is the reorder
quantity of this product, if the average daily use is 1.5?
• 30 days = 1 month; 12 turns per year = 1 turn per month.
• 1.5 × 30 = 45.• Average daily use × turnover goal (in days) = reorder
quantity. this product is ordered monthly, 45 at the time which will decrease ordering costs….you are using 45 each month

293
Q

Average daily use an average inventory per year are the same thing

A

no!

294
Q

How’s reorder point calculated

A

lead time times average daily use

295
Q

Rimadyl 100 mg #60 sold 281 bottles throughout a 1-year
period. What is the lead time? What is the average daily use?
What is the reorder point?The practice is open 300 days per year.
• Rimadyl is placed on the want list June 20th.
• An order is only placed on the first of every month.
• Product is received in 2 days.

A

•
Lead time: 13 days (the product is needed on the 20th, the
order will be placed on the first and received on the third)
Average daily use: 281÷ 300 = 0.94
Reorder point: 13 × 0.94 = 12
Rimadyl must be ordered when 12 bottlesreaii

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