CVPM Preparatory Review Final Exam

Question 1

For employers with a certain number of employees, ERISA requires the employer provide and maintain a pension plan.
A. True
B. False

Answer 1

The Correct Answer is B. False

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 82. Regardless of the number of employees, ERISA does not require that the employer provide or maintain a pension plan. However, IF the employer chooses to provide these employment benefits, ERISA provides safeguards for employee interest in any employer-sponsored plan.

Question 2

Skills-based compensation is a system of wages and raises based on achievement in different skill blocks as determined by the individual practice’s needs.
A. True
B. False

Answer 2

The Correct Answer is A. True

Explanation: The 5-Minute Veterinary Practice Management Consult, page 22. The definition of skills-based compensation according to this text is a system of wages and raises based on achievement in different skill blocks as determined by the individual practice’s needs.

Question 3

An employer has the right to contact an attorney before, during, or after an OSHA inspection.
A. True
B. False

Answer 3

The correct Answer is A. True

Explanation: The Complete Veterinary Practice Regulatory Compliance Manual, page 6. An attorney can be contacted before, during, or after an OSHA inspection.

Question 4

Which of the following is true of management styles and theories?
A. In the late 1900’s, managers termed their method “scientific.”
B. A directive manager is task-oriented and interested in getting results.
C. Theory X suggests that employees can be self-directed and creative at work if they are supported.
D. A manager should determine their management style, and not deviate.

Answer 4

The correct Answer is B.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, pages 21-22. The management method in the EARLY 1900’s was termed “scientific”. Theory Y suggests that employees can be self-directed and creative. A manager needs to vary their normal behavior style to better meet the needs of different people in the organization. A directive manager is indeed task oriented and interested in results.

Question 5

The AAHA standard abbreviation for right ear is

A. AU. B. OS. C. AD. D. OA.

Answer 5

The Correct Answer is C.

Explanation: AAHA Standard Abbreviations, page 7. The abbreviation for right ear is AD.

Question 6

In regards to the ADA, after making a conditional job offer you can require medical examinations as long as you require it of all candidates, with or without disabilities.
A. True
B. False

Answer 6

The Correct Answer is A. True

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 79. Once a conditional job offer is made, you can require a medical examination if you require it of all candidates with or without disabilities.

Question 7

What is NOT true of screening potential hires?
A. 90% of the laws concerning the screening of potential hires affect all employers regardless of size.
B. A business owner must show a pattern of consistency of requirements when interviewing prospects.
C. Many issues related to the hiring process are unclear and subject to rulings or authorities that are buried in the bureaucracy of government.
D. It is likely that most veterinarians have done an adequate job of following the legal requirements during pre-employment inquiries and during interviews.

Answer 7

The Correct Answer is D.

Explanation: The 5-Minute Veterinary Practice Management Consult, page 242. Unfortunately, it is likely that most veterinarians have inadvertently fallen short of the legal requirements during pre-employment inquiries and during interviews.

Question 8

If income is measured when cash is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and expenses are measured when cash is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, then the practice is said to be operating on a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ basis.       
A. received; spent; cash      
B. received; spent; accrual      
C. entered; invoiced; accrual      
D. distributed; accumulated; cash

Answer 8

The Correct Answer is A.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 166. If income is measured when cash is received and expenses are measured when cash is spent, then the practice is said to be operating on a CASH basis.

Question 9

In a multi-employer workplace, each employer is independently responsible for OSHA requirements pertaining to their staff members.
A. True
B. False

Answer 9

The Correct Answer is B. False

Explanation: The Complete Veterinary Practice Regulatory Compliance Manual, page 9. In a multi-employer workplace, every business must conduct and document a hazard assessment of their respective areas as well as any “common” areas which contain hazards that may affect their staff members, and that information must also be shared with other practice entities in the hospital. Often hospitals will just establish and maintain a facility-wide safety program that all practice entities must follow as a condition of the lease.

Question 10

The definition of the Management Process includes all of the following except      
A. planning.   
B. organizing.   
C.  delegating.   
D. evaluating.

Answer 10

The Correct Answer is C.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 3. The Management Process includes Planning, Organizing, Directing, and Evaluating. It does not include Delegating as one of these main process elements.

Question 11

A job description should contain all of the following except
A. brief overview of the position, including major goals and objectives.
B. the hiring wage of the employee described.
C. description of special skills and experience requirements.
D. explanation of who determines how well the employee is functioning.

Answer 11

The Correct Answer is B.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 41. The hiring wage of the employee described is not a necessary element of the standard job description according to this text.

Question 12

An employee is eligible for COBRA coverage if they experience a reduction in scheduled hours.
A. True
B. False

Answer 12

The Correct Answer is A. True

Explanation: Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act at http://www.dol.gov/dol/topic/health-plans/cobra.htm. The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) gives workers and their families who lose their health benefits the right to choose to continue group health benefits provided by their group health plan for limited periods of time under certain circumstances such as voluntary or involuntary job loss, reduction in the hours worked, transition between jobs, death, divorce, and other life events.

Question 13

Which of the following statements is true of the S-O-A-P format in medical records?
A. S—includes observations from the owners or caretakers of the pet.
B. O—is a summary of the differential diagnoses.
C. A—contains the exam and laboratory findings.
D. P—refers to the Prognosis of the patient.

Answer 13

The Correct Answer is A.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 177. Subject (S) information does include observations from the pet owners. Objective (O) information is based on scientific observation, as in the physical exam and laboratory findings. Assessment (A) is where the differential diagnoses would be located, and (P) refers to the Plan.

Question 14

The ADA protects employees or job candidates who are 40 years of age or older.
A. True
B. False

Answer 14

The Correct Answer is B.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 79. ADA is the Americans with Disabilities Act; ADEA is the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, and it prohibits discrimination against persons over 40 years of age by employers with 20 or more employees.

Question 15

All of the following statements are true of calling job candidates prior to the initial interview except
A. answer machine recordings can give hints about personality and professionalism.
B. it is best to initiate the call in order to catch the candidate unaware.
C. the candidate’s demeanor informs you about their potential telephone style with clients.
D. informal interview questions can be asked, but avoid asking salary requirements.

Answer 15

The Correct Answer is D.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, pages 46-47. Salary questions can certainly be a part of the phone interview prior to the initial in-person interview.

Question 16

The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures protects the job rights of individuals who voluntarily or involuntarily leave employment positions to undertake military service.
A. True
B. False

Answer 16

The Correct Answer is B. False

Explanation: Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures at http://www.uniformguidelines.com/uniguideprint.html; Uniformed Service Employment and Reemployment Rights Act at http://www.dol.gov/vets/usc/vpl/usc38.htm#4311. The Act that protects the job rights of individuals who voluntarily or involuntarily leave employment to undertake military service is the Uniformed Service Employment and Reemployment Rights Act. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures are designed to provide a framework for determining the proper use of tests and other selection procedures in the hiring process in general.

Question 17

When you are asked to provide a reference for a former employee, all of the following are true except
A. you may answer “no comment” unless you have knowledge of the person’s propensity for violence.
B. you can provide information that is true and can be proven true with written evidence.
C. if you refuse to give a reference at all, this is called Negligent Referral.
D. you should disclose if the former employee ever possessed weapons in the workplace.

Answer 17

The Correct Answer is C.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 51. If you have documented knowledge of a former employee’s propensity for violent or illegal acts such as weapon possession in the workplace, you need to give that information to a potential employer calling for a reference on that individual. Information that is true and can be proven true with written evidence can also be given. Negligent Referral is not the refusal to give a reference in general, but the refusal to give this negative information as mentioned above where such a refusal could put the new employer or staff in a dangerous situation.

Question 18

An employer may require a staff member to utilize their accrued or earned paid leave concurrently to cover some of all of FMLA leave.
A. True
B. False

Answer 18

The Correct Answer is A. True

Explanation: Family and Medical Leave Act at http://www.dol.gov/esa/whd/fmla. According to the Fact Sheet #28 located on this Department of Labor website, under certain conditions employees OR employers may choose to “substitute” (run concurrently) accrued paid leave (such as sick or vacation leave) to cover some of all of the FMLA leave. An employee’s ability to substitute accrued paid leave is determined by the terms and conditions of the employer’s normal leave policy.

Question 19

During a suspected case of animal cruelty, which of the following recommendations should be followed?
A. Photographs and videotapes should be taken of the animal.
B. For emaciated or dehydrated animals, PCVs and total protein levels should be obtained.
C. Undersized collars should be removed and saved.
D. All of the above.

Answer 19

The Correct Answer is D.

Explanation: Law and Ethics, page 94. All of the above recommendations listed should be followed.

Question 20

The phrase “For veterinary use only” is required on all prescription medications dispensed by a veterinary practice.
A. True
B. False

Answer 20

The Correct Answer is B. False

Explanation: Law and Ethics, page 220. The phrase “for veterinary use only” is merely a sales policy established by the drug manufacturer and it has no legal basis. In fact, any drug with this label is an Over The Counter drug. Only drugs with the FDA’s “Caution” legend are considered prescription drugs.

Question 21

Section 2 of the Immigration Form I-9 must be completed and required documents reviewed
A. during the hiring process.
B. before the new hire is allowed to begin work.
C. within 3 business days of the new hire beginning work.
D. within 7 days of the date the position was accepted.

Answer 21

The Correct Answer is C.

Explanation: The Complete Veterinary Practice Regulatory Compliance Manual, pages 117-118. Form I-9 must be completed by the employee prior to commencing duties, and the required documents must be reviewed by a representative of the business and Section 2 of the form completed within 3 business days of the staff member beginning work.

Question 22

For the DEA requirements pertaining to controlled drugs, veterinary practitioners are not required to keep record of prescriptions that are written rather than dispensed.
A. True
B. False

Answer 22

The Correct Answer is A. True

Explanation: Law and Ethics, page 276. Veterinary practitioners are required to keep records on controlled substances that they dispense or administer. From the perspective of the DEA, veterinarians are NOT required to keep any records pertaining to prescriptions rendered (i.e. written). The pharmacies that ultimately fill the prescription are responsible for maintaining records of the transactions.

Question 23

Business plans are valuable because they
A. force entrepreneurs to commit to a plan of action.
B. require a realistic assessment of the resources required to make the project work.
C. establish an orderly sequence of steps and map out milestones
D. All of the above.

Answer 23

The Correct Answer is D.

Explanation: The 5-Minute Veterinary Practice Management Consult, page 492. All of the above are true of business plans.

Question 24

A patient’s medical record indicates that he received a dose of antibiotics QID. This medication was administered 	
A. four times a day.      
B. via intradermal injection.      
C. in the right eye.      
D. once a day.

Answer 24

The Correct Answer is A.

Explanation: AAHA Standard Abbreviations, page 19. QID is the standard medical abbreviation for “four times a day.”

Question 25

Title VII states that it is unlawful to discriminate in employment based on an individual’s race, color, religion, gender, sexual preference, or national origin.
A. True
B. False

Answer 25

The Correct Answer is B. False

Explanation: Title VII (a provision of the Civil Rights Act of 1964) at http://www.eeoc.gov/policy/vii.html. Title VII prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex and national origin. At the federal level, Title VII does not prohibit discrimination based on sexual preference; however many state laws and regulations do prohibit this type of discrimination.

Question 26

Under the Controlled Substances Act, medications are classified according to their
A. potential to be stolen.
B. potential to be abused.
C. potential to be miscalculated during dosing.
D. potential to be manufactured illegally.

Answer 26

The Correct Answer is B.

Explanation: Law and Ethics, page 263. Controlled substances are classified according to this potential for abuse.

Question 27

A hospital brochure describing the facility, staff, and available services is an example of all of the following marketing formats except       
A. Public Relations.      
B. External.      
C. Direct.      
D.  All of the above.

Answer 27

The Correct Answer is D.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, pages 240, 245-247. A hospital brochure is considered a form of public relations, which is any activity initiated by your hospital that is designed to create a positive image while community with present and potential clients. By this definition, the brochure is an example of external marketing because it serves to attract people that are not yet clients of the practice. The brochure described is also an example of a direct form of marketing because it lists the available services in the practice.

Question 28

The term fee splitting is most often used in reference to dividing an inventory item into purchase price and holding/ordering costs.
A. True
B. False

Answer 28

The Correct Answer is B. False

Explanation: Contracts, Benefits, and Practice Management for the Veterinary Profession, page 388. Fee splitting is referred to in the AVMA Principles of Medical Ethics, where it states “in connection with consultations or referrals, it is unethical for veterinarians to enter into financial arrangements such as fee splitting, which involve payment of a portion of a fee to a recommending veterinarian who has not rendered the professional services for which the fee was paid by the client.”

Question 29

In a practice that employs 10 people, the most qualified applicant for an open position is disabled and requires reasonable accommodation. The employer must
A. provide accommodation unless the practice would suffer significant disruption of business.
B. require a post-offer physical examination to verify the disability.
C. request written documentation from the attending physician explaining the physical limitations of the candidate.
D. no accommodation is required.

Answer 29

The Correct Answer is D.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 77. In this scenario, no accommodation is required because the Americans with Disabilities Act applies to employers who have 15 or more employees.

Question 30

The Mental Health Parity Act requires group health plans and their health insurance issuers to include mental health coverage in their benefits package.
A. True
B. False

Answer 30

The Correct Answer is B. False

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 83. The Mental Health Parity Act does not require mental health coverage in benefits packages; but if plan does include mental health benefits, it does require parity or equality between medical and surgical benefits, and mental health benefits. In other words, mental health issues are no less important in the eyes of this law then issues that are surgical or medical.

Question 31

A client calls in on 10/1/07 to obtain a second refill of a Schedule IV drug. The original prescription was dispensed on 2/15/07, and this is the first contact with the client and patient since that date. Which of the following is the correct response?
A. The refill is approved because she has not obtained the 5 available refills on the prescription.
B. The refill is approved because it is not a Schedule II medication.
C. The refill is denied because it has been longer than 6 months since the pet was examined.
D. The refill is denied because controlled drugs cannot be refilled without a new prescription.

Answer 31

The Correct Answer is C.

Explanation: The Complete Veterinary Practice Regulatory Compliance Manual, page 111. A 30-day supply of a controlled substance can be dispensed at one time, and schedule II drugs cannot be refilled without a new prescription every time. Schedule III-V drugs can be refilled up to five times in 6 months before a new prescription order is required. Although it is not specifically mandated, it is highly recommended that patients on long-term treatment plans including controlled drugs be examined prior to the veterinarian refilling the medication. Therefore, animals on schedule II drugs should be examined every month, and animals on schedule III-V should be examined at least every 6 months.

Question 32

An employee who receives a salary instead of an hourly wage is also referred to as an exempt employee.
A. True
B. False

Answer 32

The Correct Answer is B. False

Explanation: Fair Labor Standards Act at http://www.dol.gov/esa/whd/flsa/. The terms “salary” and “hourly” relate to how you choose to pay an employee their wages, by the hour or by the time period. However, the term exemption has to do with whether or not that employee is entitled to overtime pay as dictated by the Fair Labor Standards Act. They are two different concepts, which often cause confusion. An exemption occurs when a certain type of employee is excused from being paid overtime according to the FLSA. There are strict guidelines as to who can be exempted or excused from being paid overtime.

Question 33

As hospital manager, you are planning a staff meeting. It is mandatory for 10 people on your staff to attend, and they earn the following hourly wages: two employees earn $12.50/hour, three employees earn $11.50/hour, and five employees earn $10.00/hour. This meeting will be a training session on a new product and will last for one hour. What will be the payroll dollar expenditure for this meeting, so you can determine if the session will be cost effective for the benefit expected in increased product knowledge?
A. $109.50
B. $142.35
C. $178.60
D. Not enough variables supplied for accurate calculation.

Answer 33

The Correct Answer is B.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 29. To do this calculation of payroll expense for a meeting, you multiple the numbers of people in the meeting by their hourly wage rates and by the time expended. THEN, you multiple the resulting number by 1.3 to come up with a realistic payroll cost assessment.

Question 34

Which of the following is true of financial statements?
A. The balance sheet reports values that have accumulated between two points in time.
B. The cash flow statement differs from an income statement because not all cash in is revenue, and not all cash out is an expense.
C. The income statement summarizes the assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity at a particular date.
D. The balance sheet is also known as the profit and loss statement.

Answer 34

The Correct Answer is B.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 165. The balance sheet actually summarizes the assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity at a particular date, and the income statement reports values that have accumulated between two points in time and is also referred to as the profit and loss statement. The cash flow statement differs from the income statement because not all cash in is revenue and not all cash out is an expense.

Question 35

HIPAA does not permit people to keep the same health coverage they had in their old job when they move to a new job.
A. True
B. False

Answer 35

The Correct Answer is A. True

Explanation: Contracts, Benefits, and Practice Management for the Veterinary Profession, page 222. HIPAA does not mandate that employees be entitled to the same type of health care coverage; it simply guarantees that employees will be able to obtain coverage if their new employers offer it.

Question 36

When exploring the D-I-S-C behavior profiling method, all of the following statements are true except
A. dominant individuals are goal-oriented and enjoy instigating change.
B. individuals with Inducement tendencies perceive themselves as having control over the environment.
C. steadfastness is often used as an alternative term for the Submissive personality.
D. the Compliance personality is more concerned with the final outcome than the facts and details.

Answer 36

The Correct Answer is D.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, pages 24-25. All of the above statements are true, except that the Compliance personality is more concerned with quality control than the final outcome. They also pay attention to facts and details.

Question 37

According to the FMLA, a husband and wife working for the same employer may take a combined 24 weeks unpaid leave for the birth of a son or daughter.
A. True
B. False

Answer 37

The Correct Answer is B. False

Explanation: Family and Medical Leave Act at http://www.dol.gov/esa/whd/fmla. According to Fact Sheet #28 on the listed website, spouses employed by the same employer are limited in the amount of family leave they may take; they may not combine the two individual stretches of FMLA leave.

Question 38

An employee voluntarily terminates their employment on 4/1/07. How long should the practice maintain the former employee’s Form I-9?
A. April 1, 2008
B. April 1, 2010
C. Does not need to be maintained after termination
D. Indefinitely

Answer 38

The Correct Answer is A.

Explanation: The Complete Veterinary Practice Regulatory Compliance Manual, page 118. The completed I-9 form must be retained for the longer of 3 years after the date the staff member begins work, or, 1 year after the staff member’s departure.

Question 39

Calculate the inventory turnover and shelf life for the following item: Heartworm preventive per box. The beginning inventory count on 1/1/07 was 26 boxes and the ending inventory count on 12/31/07 was 40 boxes. The total purchase during this time period was 440 boxes.
A. 31.4; reordered 11.6 times per year
B. 6.3; 58 days
C. 13.3; approximately one month
D. Not enough variables provided for calculation.

Answer 39

The Correct Answer is C.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 211. The average inventory on hand for the period discussed is beginning inventory plus ending inventory, divided by 2 (26 + 40 / 2 = 33). The calculation of inventory turns or turnover is total purchased during this time divided by average inventory (440 / 33 = 13.3). Therefore this heartworm preventive was ordered 13.3 times per year, and the product was on the shelf for approximately one month.

Question 40

What is the significance of a higher turnover number for a given period of time?
A. A higher number means more efficient inventory control.
B. A lower number means that just-in-time inventory methods are in effect.
C. A higher number decreases the ordering costs.
D. A turnover from 10-12 is the average in veterinary hospitals.

Answer 40

The Correct Answer is A.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 211 A higher turnover number for a given period of time means the more efficient the inventory control, and also means that just-in-time inventory methods are being used, where products can be obtained at a moment’s notice from the closely situated vendor. The higher number, however, increases the ordering costs. The average turnover in veterinary hospitals is 6 times per year.

Question 41

According to the AVMA Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics, if a patient has an ongoing medical condition the VCPR can be terminated but the attending veterinarian should continue to provide care during the transition.
A. True
B. False

Answer 41

The Correct Answer is A. True

Explanation: Contract, Benefits, and Practice Management for the Veterinary Profession, page 386. This is a true statement; when terminating the Veterinarian-Client-Patient-Relationship with a patient that has an ongoing medical or surgical condition, the attending veterinarian should continue to provide care during the transition to another veterinarian.

Question 42

Which of the following federal laws protects workers’ health insurance coverage when they change jobs?      
A. COBRA      
B.  HIPAA      
C. ADA      
D. ERISA

Answer 42

The Correct Answer is B.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, pages 77-79, 82. Workers’ health insurance coverage is protected when they change jobs by HIPAA, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

Question 43

Which of the following statements is true regarding personnel files?
A. Employees should sign a written release to authorize an employer to release salary or employment information.
B. OSHA injury and illness reports should be kept in a separate file, not in the main personnel file.
C. The personnel file is the property of the employee, and they can have unlimited access to it.
D. Supervisors should be granted access to all personnel records including medical records.

Answer 43

The Correct Answer is A.

Explanation: The 5-Minute Veterinary Practice Management Consult, page 386. It is best to have the employee sign an authorization before the employer releases employment information, for example for a mortgage or credit application. OSHA injury and illness records are considered medical records, and should be kept separate from the main personnel file. In most states the personnel file belongs to the employer, and as such the employee should be granted limited access based on the state laws and regulations. Supervisors should only be granted access on a “need to know” basis, and then access only to the main pzersonnel file that contains documents related to employment decisions (not medical records or other such documents).

Question 44

According to the FLSA, the financial burden of furnishing and maintaining a uniform may not be imposed on the employee if the resulting wage would be below minimum wage.
A. True
B. False

Answer 44

The Correct Answer is A. True

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 72. If an employee must wear a uniform, the financial burden of furnishing and maintaining the uniform, including laundry and repair, may not be imposed on the employee if the resulting wage would be below minimum wage required by the FLSA.

Question 45

Which of the following accounting equations is NOT true?
A. Assets = Equities
B. Assets – Liabilities = Owner’s Equity
C. Assets = Rights of Creditors + Rights of the Practice Owners
D. Assets = Liabilities – Owner’s Equity

Answer 45

The Correct Answer is D.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, pages 163-164. The last choice is not correct, because in fact Assets – Liabilities = Owner’s Equity. Remember that liabilities are also known as the rights of creditors, and owner’s equity is also known as the rights of the practice owners.

Question 46

A topical preparation used on pets for the control of fleas and ticks falls under the jurisdiction of the       
A. FDA.      
B.  EPA.      
C. USDA.      
D. DEA.

Answer 46

The Correct Answer is B.

Explanation: Law and Ethics, page 216. A topical preparation falls under the jurisdiction of the Environmental Protection Agency, whereas a systemic product would fall under the jurisdiction of the Food and Drug Administration. The difference is not the type of product, but the type of administration (i.e. an internal product is considered a drug, whereas a topical product could affect the environment).

Question 47

Under the FMLA, a key employee is one who is
A. in the top 5% of the highest-paid employees.
B. reinstated to an equivalent position and pay even if this would place burden on the employer.
C. given written notice of their key employee status when FMLA leave is requested.
D. not eligible to take FMLA leave.

Answer 47

The Correct Answer is C.

Explanation: Practice Made Perfect, page 80. A key employee is in the top 10% of the highest paid employees, and reinstatement of these individuals to previously held or equivalent positions could result in substantial economics injury to the employer’s business operations. They are eligible to take FLMA leave; however the employer should notify them of their key employee status and the potential consequences at the time the leave is requested.

Question 48

The capacity to make a valid contract may be in question for all of the following reasons except       
A. minority.      
B.  poverty.      
C. intoxication.     
D. mental disability.

Answer 48

The Correct Answer is B.

Explanation: Contacts, Benefits, and Practice Management for the Veterinary Profession, pages 51-53. The capacity to contract could be affected by a person’s minority status or state of intoxication or mental disability. A condition of poverty does not limit a person’s capacity to contract from the legal perspective.

Question 49

Reasons to maintain complete medical records include
A. records are necessary for the documentation of income and sales taxes.
B. records are required to show compliance with controlled drug laws.
C. records are used to defend against a lawsuit or complaint.
D. All of the above.

Answer 49

The Correct Answer is D.

Explanation: Law and Ethics, pages 321-322. All of the above are reasons to maintain complete medical records.

Question 50

The person who registers the pet at the time of the first visit and signs the initial treatment consent form is legally the owner and ultimate decision maker.
A. True
B. False

Answer 50

The Correct Answer is B. False

Explanation: Contracts, Benefits, and Practice Management for the Veterinary Profession, page 60. Although this is presumed to be true, there are instances when the person who initially brings in a pet and signs the treatment consent is not the owner and ultimate decision maker. When proceeding with euthanasia in particular, caution must be taken to clear up any ambiguities regarding ownership.