Heinke Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

What does CVPM stand for?

A

Certified Veterinary Practice Manager (CVPM)

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2
Q

What are the 4 components of The Management Process?

A
  1. Planning. Determining the goals of the business and developing the strategy and tactics to accomplish these goals
  2. Organizing. Communicating the plan to those who will carry it out and developing the team framework and resources required to successfully implement the plan
  3. Directing. Using personnel management skills to motivate people to accomplish various steps of the plan through appropriate allocation of resources
  4. Evaluating. Measuring and analyzing the success of the management process and providing the information required to adapt and modify management decisions
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3
Q

Of the four basic steps of the management process, Planning, the first step, involves Three general types of planning, what are they? Heinke pg 16

A
  1. Strategic planning:
    -Long-range planning (five to ten years into the future).
    -how the practice will be positioned down the road in relation to other practices and the marketplace…… envisions practice size and location, type and number of clients, level of veterinary service demand, and philosophy and style of animal-care delivery.
  2. Tactical planning:
    -Planning for the near future (one to three years ahead).
    Tactical plans facility expansion, employee acquisition and training, identification of service specialization, budgeting, and the like.
  3. Operational planning:
    -Short-range planning (for the days and weeks immediately ahead).
    Operational planning evolves from tactical planning. An operational plan identifies specific steps, indicates who will accomplish them, and ensures that resources are budgeted to achieve the various tactics. Once the operational plan is designed and implemented, a manager must monitor the results and adapt the plan as needed to keep the practice in line with the longer-range tactical and strategic plans.
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4
Q

Practice procedures and systems should be the direct result of ______ and not the result of random attempts at management. Successful businesses are ____ oriented rather than ________ oriented.

A

Planning
goal-
procedure-

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5
Q

Example of a tactical goal…..

A

Includes a date and reflects philosophy and practice aspirations…
Increase patients 25%, all doctors take a month off every year, increase income 15%

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6
Q

To produce best care for patients and prosper our organization to serve community and stakeholders is an example of what type of goal?

A

Heinke Pg 17… a strategic goal reflects the practice philosophy and forecasts a long term future.

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7
Q

The second management duty, ____, is founded in how well you, as practice manager, manage your team.

A

Organizing

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8
Q

Third step of the managment process, ______, calls upon your personnel management skills as you motivate your practice team to accomplish various stages of the plan.

A

Directing

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9
Q

These four attributes are cornerstones for marking the progress of business strategies in the final and fourth aspect of the management process termed _________.

A

Fourth aspect of management process….evaluating… includes these four attributes….

  1. The financial success of the business (financial success metric)
  2. The ability of the staff to work as a team (efficiency of internal processes metric)
  3. The level of motivation and contentment among employees (employee development metric)
  4. The level of client satisfaction as measured by new client referrals (client retention and loyalty metric) Heinke Pg. 18

THINK: the money, the efficiency, your people, the clients

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10
Q

Areas of management in a veterinary practice? (four) according to Heinke pg 19, Practice Made Perfect.

A

Personnel and human resources…people

Operations and maintenance…“gears” of the organization

Finance and economics…the money (and risks to it..legal)

Marketing and client relations……the clients attraction/retention

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11
Q

Of the office manager, the practice manager and the hospital administrator….who has the most absolute authority?

A

The hospital administrator

Heinke, pg 22

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12
Q

Owen McCafferty (1993, 4), who describe three key character styles in the business arena: name three types of individuals in a veterinary hospital….

A

The entrepreneur
The professional
The manager

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13
Q

What is EQ according to Heinke?

A

One’s awareness of other people’s emotions as well as one’s own and one’s ability to manage them and relate to people in positive ways.
Heinke Pg. 35

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14
Q

What six traits should a PM have per VHMA ?

A
  1. Ability to command respect
  2. Supervisory skills
  3. Ability to follow through on projects
  4. Ability to be self-motivated
  5. Communication skills
  6. Ability to control emotions
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15
Q

Strategic planning is a formal design of the practice’s future activities and is based on the answers of key stakeholders in the business to what three fundamental questions?

A
  1. What do we do?
  2. For whom do we do it?
  3. How do we excel?
    Heinke pg 43
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16
Q

What is a vision statement?

A

The vision statement defines the practice’s purpose through its human values, and its audience is primarily clients and employees. It is typically inspirational and public facing and it helps shape how the clients view the practice and why they would want to do business with it.

Heinke Pg. 48 and Pg. 45

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17
Q

What is a mission statement?

A

The mission statement defines the practice’s primary objectives and purpose with an internally facing focus to leaders and owners, including key measures of success. Can include financial objectives.

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18
Q

Per Heinke what are core values?

A

Core values are the ultimate standards, those which the owners consider to be inviolate. They steer the veterinary practice as guiding principles of practice
conduct, and they are the basis for the rules by which the principals and the rest of the practice team live and make daily decisions (Nyland and Heinke 2006).

Usually, core values come down to four or five deeply held principles that are
independent of the current business environment and management fads. Pg. 46

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19
Q

THE STRATEGIC PLANNING PROCESS has what five components?

A
  • Vision
  • Situational Analysis
  • Strategy Formulation
  • Strategy Implementation
  • Evaluation and Control
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20
Q

Core purpose? Definition?

A

How financial and ethical commitments relate to each other.

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21
Q

What is a veterinary practice act?

A

The legal statute that guides what each licensed and non-licensed employee of the practice can and cannot do.

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22
Q

The written practice vision and mission statements collate four areas, which are…..

A

(1) the visionary goals of the practice stakeholders
(2) their core values
(3) the core purpose and supporting primary objectives of the practice
(4) applicable laws and professional ethical codes

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23
Q

What is a SWOT analysis?

A
  • Strengths
  • Weaknesses
  • Opportunities
  • Threats

Analysis - this strategic planning technique analyzes the practice’s internal strengths and weaknesses and identifies external opportunities and threats (good and bad risk)

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24
Q

What is environmental scanning?

A

Evaluating the practices situation, a step in strategic planning that involves evaluating internal and external factors includes SWOT Analysis, analyzing external factors (tech, economy, etc.).

Pg. 52 Heinke

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25
Q

What are examples of EXTERNAL PRACTICE FORCES?

A
  • Competitors
  • Sales market (clients)
  • Supplier market
  • Labor market
  • Technology
  • The economy
  • The regulatory environment
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26
Q

What are 3 sources of competitive advantage in the veterinary marketplace that should be considered when you analyze external forces?

A

3 sources of competitive advantage include

  1. Cost
  2. Differentiation
  3. innovation
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27
Q

Differentiation is what in reference to an external factor in the veterinary marketplace
?

A

Perceived quality of care, type of service, price levels,

and image of your practice. This perception is driven by marketing.

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28
Q

As an external factor in the vet marketplace what does innovation describe?

A

innovation is the competitive advantage a practice has when others cannot keep up with the new ideas and methodologies it has successfully implemented

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29
Q

A useful approach to external pressure analysis was developed by Michael Porter (1980).
Porter’s five-force analysis…. What are the 5 forces….

A

Porter’s five forces are:

  1. Threat of new entrants to the industry
  2. Threat of substitutes
  3. Buyer (client) power
  4. Intensity of rivalry among established practices
  5. Supplier power….pg 54 Heinke
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30
Q

PEST analysis is a strategic planning analysis framework using four factors in the external microenvironmt in which a practice operates ….what are those factors?

A

political,

economic, sociocultural, and technological.

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31
Q

Value chain management is an example of a internal or external force on your practice organization and define value chain model?

A

Internal….
The overriding emphasis of the value chain model is client satisfaction.
evaluate what the practice team does from a value chain–
strategy perspective. If employees are doing things that do not add value to the client’s
experience, they should not be doing them. Your primary objective as a manager is to cause the practice to make money. By focusing
on excellent service, your team drives client perception of value and willingness to pay for
that value (this is called the value proposition) One management objective is to focus on what
your practice does well and keep doing it well. Such effort drives quality and value, thus
ensuring client satisfaction and loyalty.

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32
Q

In value chain analysis you divide the practice into what 2 activity areas

A
  • The primary operating activities, or those that show the progress of client and patient interaction with the practice
  • The support activities, or those governance or managerial activities required to sustain a well-organized and efficiently managed practice
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33
Q

The VPS recognizes the financial measures that assure an adequate economic base to
drive excellent veterinary care….. Describe this tool and the 4 perspectives it uses

A
Veterinary Practice Scorecard (VPS).....
• The patient care perspective
• The client perspective
• The learning and growth perspective
• The financial perspective
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34
Q

Policy or protocol drift…. What is it and how does it apply to VPS analysis and setting goals

A

Lapses in policy or protocol where processes have clearly lapsed….such as waiting to see the doctor after arriving, missed appointments, arriving late for appointments HEINKE pg 60 Process or protocol drift causes a weakening in the value chain.. This can be used in VPS analysis.

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35
Q

SMART goals in each of the
balanced scorecard (VPS) quadrants will lead to action and incremental improvement.
SMART goals are:

A
SMART goals are:
• Specific
•Measurable
• Attainable
• Relevant
• Time-bound
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36
Q

What are the 4 VPS perspectives and give an example of each

A
  1. patient perspective EX. measure time of client arrival, time of exam room admit, and time of doctor
    to patient. Our goal will be to have every client and patient with a technician and/or
    veterinarian within five minutes of arrival.
  2. Client perspective EX. we will employ a three-question exit survey to determine satisfaction with
    appointment timeliness.
  3. Employee perspective…ex… At the end of each shift, each employee will write down any
    issues they came across that were challenging to work through.
  4. Financial perspective ex. increased
    revenue generated per client and increased average patient visits per year.
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37
Q

gross revenues, profitability percentage, client numbers, client satisfaction measures, patient numbers, employee longevity, and/or satisfaction measures…. Are examples of what type of measurement used for long term planning

A

KPI’s

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38
Q

Common pitfalls to a strategic plan

A

failure to communicate VISION

passive management NO plan or idea or inadequate detail IN THAT plan lack of motivation and personal ownership

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39
Q

Central planning is important in strategic planning for 2 reasons

A
  1. budgeting helps managers measure progress toward goals…. 2. Good planning and budgeting are needed to fund each part of the strategic plan
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40
Q

Innovative budgeting tools that can help businesses become more nimble in a changing economy

A

. Some examples are rolling budgets, rolling forecasts, flexible budgets, and event-driven budget plans. Be aware of the pros and cons of these financial tools and
how they can be used in financial planning.

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41
Q

Budgeting can be broken down into 3 sections?

A

Target setting, forecasting, and resource allocation…

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42
Q

management style that is primarily directive or achievement-oriented is commonly
known as _______or authoritarian leadership. A management style that is primarily
supportive or participative is known as ________ leadership.

A

Autocratic

Democratic

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43
Q

Theory ____ assumes that people prefer to be directed, are not interested in assuming responsibility, and are motivated primarily by money, fringe
benefits, and the threat of punishment.

A

theory X

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44
Q

Theory ____ postulates that employees can be self-directed and creative at work if they are properly supported and motivated. Motivation can come from individual desire for recognition, from a sense of self-worth and pride, and from an interest in work well done.

A

Theory Y

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45
Q

self awareness, self control, self motivation, empathy and effective management of relationships are 5 levels of competence in the study of what behavioral theory?

A

EQ

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46
Q

What are 4 basic leadership styles?

A

Directive, supportive, participative, and achievement oriented

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47
Q

Define chief characteristics of each of the 4 leadership styles….

A

Managers primarily use four basic leadership styles to varying degrees: directive, supportive,
participative, or achievement oriented. The directive style is task oriented. The supportive
style is more concerned with people’s individual needs than with tasks. The participative
style involves consulting with the group in decision making. And achievement-oriented
leadership focuses on setting challenging goals.

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48
Q

Emotional intelligence is often described by five levels of competence in which to focus
personal improvement:

A

self awareness, self control, self motivation, empathy, effective management of relationships

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49
Q

List the Marston 4 behavioral types

A

Dominance, inducement, submission, and compliance

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50
Q

D and C are __ oriented whereas I and S are ___oriented and D/C see the world as ___ and S and I see the world as ___ using behavioral instruments to predict how teams can be built is called _______.

A

task, people/relationship
unsafe/adversarial
safe/benevolent
instrumented learning

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51
Q

What is the difference between a hospital manual and an employee manual?

A

The employee
policies and guidelines manual gives employees information pertinent to their employment
with the practice. The hospital operations manual presents information about how to
perform duties associated with client service, animal care, facility maintenance, and other
business protocols. pg 95 Heinke

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52
Q

In the employment cycle, these four stages exist mirroring closely those of the management process

A

these stages translate roughly into planning employee acquisition, hiring, conducting orientation and training, and engaging in performance evaluation….Heinke pg 102

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53
Q

Two key ingredients in a complete plan for staff acquisition are the ___ and the ___.

A

the budget and the job description

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54
Q

What is negligent referral

A

When a past employer refuses to give negative information about a former employee even though they know that they committed violent or illegal acts under their employ

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55
Q

In the United States one form that an employee must complete and documentation that the employer must collect includes a federal income tax holding document which is also called ____….. What other form for tax purposes should an employer also collect

A

w-4

state income tax withholding forms

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56
Q

In the United States the forms to complete and the documentation to collect when an employee is on board include

A

w-4, state income tax withholding form, I-9, medical retirement forms, personal information including full name permanent address telephone number and phone number for person to contact in an emergency

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57
Q

what is an I-9 form, what is it used for and what do you need to fill it out

A

I-9 is it employment eligibility verification form used to establish an employee’s eligibility to legally work in the United States passport drivers license or ID card Social Security card birth certificate

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58
Q

Which document completed upon employment must be kept separately from the rest of the employees personnel file

A

I-9

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59
Q

What does OSHA stand for and why is it important in the veterinary workplace per Dr. Heinke….

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration important personal safety training in the veterinary practice setting relates to the employees ability in handling and being around animals and maintaining good training resources about normal animal postures and body language as well as hazardous materials and ergonomic risks in the workplace are important to compliance…. according to HEINKE indoctrination and training should begin immediately for new hires and should be documented

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60
Q

What questions can you not ask or areas that you cannot discuss in an interview

A

Discussing age is acceptable only to know if they are the age of majority arrests and convictions are acceptable only if it relates specifically to the performance of the position for example handling controlled drugs there are no legal questions regarding marital or family status and disability has to be handled by asking how a person would perform a function as opposed to how they might be different national origin race color religion sex birthplace` discharge from the military clubs or societies or a photograph

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61
Q

Payroll summated with ancillary employment costs, such as employer payroll taxes, qualified benefit programs, and workers’ compensation coverage, can easily consume 50 percent of every revenue dollar earned true or false.

A

true

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62
Q

The ancillary elements of employee compensation other than salary may add as much as __
to __ percent to the total cost of hiring an employee.

A

25-35

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63
Q

Employee compensation can be 45 to 55% of total gross revenue… T/F

A

TRUE

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64
Q

Define at-will employment

A

At-Will Employment
In most states in the United States, employment is considered to be “at-will employment.”
This means that unless a specific provision in an employment contract states an agreed upon
duration of employment, employees may quit and employers may terminate
employees “at will,” according to their own preferences

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65
Q

WHAT ARE express exceptions to at will employment?

A

• Collective bargaining agreements (labor contracts between unionized workers and
employing companies)
• Specific contracts that indicate a definite period of employment
• Dismissals based on race, sex, color, creed, or national origin, prohibited by the Civil
Rights Act
• Dismissals based on age if over forty years old, prohibited by the Age Discrimination in
Employment Act
• Dismissal because of pregnancy, prohibited by the Pregnancy Discrimination Act
• Dismissals that occur because employees refuse to work in a workplace that they
consider unsafe or because they have exercised other rights under the Occupational
Safety and Health Act
• Dismissal of an employee because he has filed for bankruptcy, prohibited by the
Bankruptcy Reform Act
• Dismissal of an employee because of service on a federal jury, prohibited by federal law

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66
Q

What is COBRA

A

The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1986
(COBRA) allows for the extension of group insurance coverage to former employees and
their dependents. COBRA requires employers to cover former employees whose medical
conditions would prevent them from immediately getting coverage under a new employer
plan. This is done at the employees expense.

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67
Q

What 5 separate record keeping systems related to employees should employers keep

A

employers should maintain five essentially separate record-keeping systems related to its employees.
These include personnel files, medical record files, equal employment opportunity data, I-9 records, and payroll and benefits data.

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68
Q

employers should maintain A separate personnel file for each hospital employee that contains relevant materials related to the person employment and excludes unnecessary personal information should be kept in a locked secured cabinet that is accessible only to specific personnel that need access to them true or false

A

true

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69
Q

A ____record should include the following application, letters of qualification, contacts, references, resume, federal and state mandated form I-9, which should be managed separately, an employee record form showing the date of hire original salary records, of raises and promotions, demotions, performance evaluations, education and training records, awards, recommendations, disciplinary records, attendance, vacation, corrective action feedback, layoff, termination records, resignation, exit interview

A

Employee personal record

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70
Q

Federal I-9 records support federal law that requires an employer to verify that an employee is eligible to work in the United States and to keep records of the verification process why must these records be kept separate?

A

These forms should be kept separate from other employee records for a number of reasons, including the fact the employers are not to use information on
national origin in employment decisions in accord with nondiscrimination laws. Segregated record-keeping is one protection against the implication that nationality might have been a factor in any aspect of the employment cycle.

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71
Q

Medical records should be segregated from other employee personnel records. Access must be carefully limited only to those who need to know the information, such as the employee’s supervisor for purposes of identifying work limitations. Medical-record files
contain information such as:

A

• Pre-employment drug screen results
• Post-employment physical exam results
• Family and Medical Leave Act Documentation
• Return-to-work releases
• Documentation of corrective-action feedback or other discussions related to
performance of duties
• Documentation regarding disability and/or accommodation thereof
• Workers’ compensation documentation
• Insurance claims documents
• Physician notes (Crook n.d.)

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72
Q

Because the Internal Revenue Code and Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) require employers to keep detailed payroll and benefits data, access should be limited. Keeping this information segregated from other personnel data is advised:… Which of the following would qualify to be kept separate in this way?

A

Employee’s full name and Social Security number

• Address, including zip code
• Birth date, if employee is a minor
• Work schedules
• Pay rates
• Earnings records
• Wage deductions
• Benefit records
• Hours worked daily and weekly
• Time records for each pay period, documenting the 
   hours the employee has worked
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73
Q

What is the IRCA

A

The Immigration Reform and Control Act (IRCA) of 1986 affects all employers regardless of size. Intended to prevent illegal aliens from obtaining employment in the United States, the IRCA requires employers to take steps to verify that a newly hired employee is eligible
for employment in the United States. All employers must verify that every new hire is either a U.S. citizen or is authorized to work in this country. The IRCA applies to all employees: full-time, part-time, temporary, or seasonal. It does not apply to contract workers, so you do not need to obtain or verify information about independent contractors or their employees. 2Verification of employee eligibility is documented on U.S. Citizenship and Immigration
Services (USCIS) Form I-9

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74
Q

What time frame does the employer have to ensure that the I - 9 is completed?

A

The
employer is responsible for ensuring that this attestation is properly completed by the time
of hire, even though the proof-of-identity documents must be presented and examined up
to three business days from the hire date.

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75
Q

Is the sole proprietor required to have an I-9

A

no…. Every other employee is … Even practice owners

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76
Q

How long are verification of employment forms mandated to be retained by the employer?

A

The verification forms must be retained for three years from the date of hire or one year
from the date of termination, whichever is longer.

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77
Q

What is the fair labor standards act of 1938

A

The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA), passed by Congress in 1938, sets basic minimum
wage and overtime pay standards and record-keeping requirements and regulates the
employment of minors. The FLSA can apply to employees in one of two ways: enterprise
coverage or individual coverage.

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78
Q

What businesses do the FSLA apply to?

A

applies to a business if it is engaged in interstate
commerce, has at least two employees, and has annual sales or business volume of at least
$500,000.

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79
Q

what are the minimum wage requirements under the FLSA?

A

The FLSA generally requires covered employers to pay their nonexempt employees at least
the federal minimum wage and overtime premium pay of one-and-one-half times the
normal rate of pay for all hours in excess of 40 in a workweek, or, in some states, it is for all
hours in excess of 8 in a work day. Each workweek stands alone.

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80
Q

what is the work week according to FLSA… And when would straight time and overtime apply in that work week?

A

A workweek is defined as 7 consecutive,
regularly recurring, 24-hour periods totaling 168 hours. For the first 40 hours worked in
any given workweek, each employee must be paid at least the minimum wage.
The overtime pay premium (1.5 times the regular rate) applies to all hours worked
above 40 in a given workweek.

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81
Q

What activities are considered hours worked that might not intuitively be considered on the clock according to the FLSA

A

Hours an employee worked that were not expressly requested by the employer include waiting time when even when unable to use the time to do other things on call time when the employee has to stay on the premises or close to the premises, a rest period of 5 to 20 minutes training time travel time between job sites sleep time if the employee is on duty and is allowed to sleep

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82
Q

Who is exempted under FLSA

A
  • Executive employees
  • Administrative employees
  • Professional employees
  • Employees engaged in outside sales
  • Employees doing computer-related work
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83
Q

Are you required to post the minimum wage in your place of business

A

yes….FLSA.. in a prominent place in the workplace

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84
Q

If an employee must wear a uniform, the financial burden of furnishing and maintaining
the uniform (including laundry and repair) may not be imposed on the employee if the
resulting wage would be below the minimum wage or overtime compensation required by
the FLSA. T/F?

A

TRUE

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85
Q

to determine regular rate of pay under FLSA…T/F?

A

TRUE

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86
Q

The three tests for exemption from FLSA minimum wage and overtime provision are related to ______. The ultimate burden of supporting exemption rests on the employer.

A

salary level, salary basis, and job duties.

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87
Q

Under the first test, the minimum requisite exempt salary level is $____ per week for most
employees.

A

455.00

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88
Q

under FLSA the second test for exemption resides in salary payment…. citing guideline for how salary must be paid to an exempt employee

A

compensation cannot be reduced because of variations in the quality or quantity of the work performed. The full salary must be paid for any week in which the employee performs any work, but need not be paid for any workweek when no work is performed. If the employee is ready, willing, and able to work, deductions may not be
made for time when work is not available….

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89
Q

The third test for exemption from minimum wage and overtime provision relates to which job duties?

A

practice:

1. Executive duties 2. Administrative duties 3. Professional duties

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90
Q

Under the FLSA, employers are required to keep records on wages, hours, and other
information for at least —___years?

A

3

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91
Q

do you have to pay a student worker minimum wage?

A

Other exceptions to the FLSA’s minimum wage requirements include full-time students,
student learners, and disabled workers.
The Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor issues certificates of exemption. The employer must apply for these in order to pay wages that are less than the minimum to these workers.

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92
Q

Who enforces the FLSA?

Can an employee lodge a complaint?

A

The wage and hour division of the US Department of Labor….yes and It is a violation of the FLSA to fire or in any way discriminate against an employee for filing a complaint or participating in a legal proceeding involving
any of the provisions of the act.

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93
Q

Do child labor restrictions fall under FLSA?

A

yes

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94
Q

Holiday bonus pay is covered by FLSA?

A

no… State laws may cover this and the other following matters• Vacation, holiday, severance, or sick pay
• Meal or rest periods, holidays off, or vacations
• Premium pay for weekend or holiday work
• A discharge notice, reason for discharge, or immediate payment of final wages to
terminated employees
• Any limit on the number of hours in a day or days in a week that an employee at least
sixteen years old may be required or scheduled to work
• Pay raises or fringe benefits

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95
Q

What are some common errors to avoid in employment law

A

Here are some common errors to avoid:
• Confusing federal law and state law
• Assuming that all employees paid a salary are not due overtime
• Improperly applying an exemption
• Failing to pay for all hours an employee is “suffered or permitted” to work
• Limiting the number of hours employees are allowed to record
• Failing to include all pay required for calculating the regular rate of overtime
• Making improper deductions from wages that cut into the required minimum wage or
overtime (e.g., shortages, drive-offs, damage, tools, uniforms)
• Treating an employee as an independent contractor

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96
Q

EMPLOYEES AND INDEPENDENT CONTRACTORS
Whether an individual is classified as an employee or an independent contractor is an important factor in determining the responsibilities of your practice under a variety of acts and regulations. These include:

A

• The FLSA
• The Federal Insurance Contribution Act (FICA)
• The Federal Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA)
• Internal Revenue Code (IRC) regulations determining income tax withholding responsibilities
• IRC regulations determining the requirement for providing benefits to an individual under evolving sections of the IRC
• IRC regulations determining the employer’s responsibility regarding the many other
laws related to “employees”

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97
Q

The FLSA protects employees but not contractors true or false?

A

TRUE

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98
Q

What are the 6 elements of control exercised by practice over an individual as described by the economic reality FLSA test to determine independent contractor versus employee…there are 20 common law factors to determine if an employer employee relationship exists what 3 categories did they fall in to?

A

The degree of control exercised by the practice over the individual’s work performance

  1. control over work hours, appointments and assignments, priority of work, hourly payment arrangement).
  2. The extent of the relative investments by the practice and the individual in equipment and supplies used (for example, drugs and medical supplies).
  3. The individual’s opportunity for profit and loss through managerial skill (if the practice provides the opportunities and bears the risk of profit and loss, it is more likely that the individual is an employee).
  4. The skill and initiative required by the work. Lower skill requirements weight toward employee status, but this does not necessarily mean that more skilled individuals, such as veterinarians, will qualify as independent contractors.
  5. The permanence of the relationship. Longer work relationships imply employee status, especially when the nature of the work assignments does not vary much.
  6. The extent to which the worker’s services are an integral part of the practice.

They fall into three main categories: behavioral control, financial control, and relationship of the
parties.

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99
Q

what is an example behavioral control, financial control, and relationship of the parties as it pertains to determining employment versus contractor status

A

behavioral control exists when you can tell an employee where and when and how to do their work, an example of financial control is the employer sets an employees hours, an employee can terminate his or her relationship anytime without incurring liability but an independent contractor is usually responsible for the satisfactory completion of the job - there also might be a written contract with a contractor

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100
Q

Civil Rights Act of 1964 Title VII makes it an unlawful employment practice for an employer to fail or refuse to hire or to discharge any individual, or otherwise to discriminate against any individual with respect to his
compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, because of such individual’s____

A

race, color, religion, sex, or national origin

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101
Q

What organization reinforces the Civil Rights Act of 1964 title VII. This restriction covers employers With ___ employees.

A

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) was created to enforce this anti-discrimination law.
15

102
Q

What are the 2 kinds of sexual harassment?

A

Quid pro quo sexual harassment and environmental sexual harassment that also may be called hostile environment sexual harassment

103
Q

What are 2 things to remember about sexual harassment?

A

Anyone can do it even a vendor or a customer, the behavior must be unwelcome.

104
Q

The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978…. Prohibits what type of discrimination and what size company does it affect?

A

makes it clear that discrimination on the basis
of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions constitutes unlawful sex discrimination under the Civil Rights Act. The basic principle of the act is that women
affected by pregnancy and related conditions must be treated the same as other applicants
and employees, on the basis of their ability or inability to work.
The law applies to employers with fifteen or more employees. This means an employer must treat a pregnant employee like any other disabled employee…

105
Q
Disabilities Act (ADA). Title I of the ADA
prohibits employment discrimination against persons with disabilities. How is disability defined and what is the employers duty under the act? What size of company does it apply to in terms of number of employees?
A

Disability means a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of an individual. Imposes on employers an affirmative duty to make reasonable accommodations for applicants and employees with disabilities.
15 or more employees

106
Q

What is the ADEA active since 1967 and what does it cover?

A

In 1967, Congress passed the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) to prohibit discrimination in employment because of age in such matters as hiring, job retention, compensation and other terms, conditions, and privileges of employment. The ADEA prohibits employers with twenty or more employees from discrimination against persons forty or older on the basis of their age. Employers must ensure that job announcements and employment application forms do not, in any way, attempt to discriminate against anyone on the basis of age.

107
Q

what is the FMLA act of 1993?

A

Each eligible employee is entitled to a total of twelve workweeks of job-protected, unpaid leave during a twelvemonth period.
Covers employers with fifty or more employees. To be eligible, an employee must have been employed for at
least twelve months, although the months need not be consecutive. The employee must have worked at least 1,250 hours during the 12-month period immediately preceding the commencement of leave, and must work at a location where at least 50 employees are employed by the employer within a 75-mile radius.

108
Q

For what reason can an employee request 12 weeks of unpaid leave under FMLA?

A

The birth of a child and to care for the newborn child within one year of birth
• Placement of a child with the employee for adoption or foster care, and to care for the child within one year of placement
• Care for a spouse, child, or parent of the employee who has a serious health condition
• Serious health condition that makes the employee unable to perform the functions of his position
• Any “qualifying exigency” arising out of the active duty or call to active duty of the employee’s spouse, child, or parent… Includes anyone with a parent child relationship even if they’re not related…

109
Q

Any employee who takes leave under the FMLA act will be entitled on return from such leave to be restored to the position held for the lead commence… What exceptions to this exist?

A

If he employed with certain “key” employees..
If a returning employee is no longer able to perform an essential function of the position upon return, the employee has no right to restoration to another
position under the FMLA.

110
Q

In 1970 Congress passed legislation establishing the Occupational Safety and Health Administration within the Department of Labor…. What is its overarching function?

A

OSHA requires that all employers, regardless of the number of employees, shall furnish a place of employment that is free from recognized hazards that cause or are likely to cause death or serious physical
harm to their employees.

111
Q

Such standards include limitations on workers exposure to hazardous ___ and maximum workplace ___ levels.

A

Chemicals and noise

112
Q

Employers must develop and put into practice a written _____ that describes the procedures by which they will comply with this requirement.

A

Hazzard communication plan

113
Q

OSHA also requires ___ on hazardous materials and ergonomic risks in the workplace.

A

Employee training programs

114
Q

Workers’ Compensation

A

Insurance that protects the interests of employees involved in work-related injuries. For all accidental injuries, illnesses, or deaths arising out of employment and related to employment, employers are to provide compensation, both by replacing wages and by covering the cost of all reasonable and necessary hospital, surgical, and medical expenses.

115
Q

What is OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard?

A

OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard, which requires employers to identify all hazardous chemicals to which employees might be exposed and communicate information about them to employees. Employers must develop and put into practice a written hazard
communication program that describes the procedures by which they will comply with this requirement. OSHA also requires employee-training programs on hazardous materials and ergonomic risks in the workplace.

116
Q

OSHA has authority to conduct…
Inspections are usually triggered by?
OSHA can issue___

A

workplace inspections without notifying the
employer ahead of time. Inspections are usually triggered by reports of injuries in the workplace or by employee complaints of unsafe working conditions or alleged violations of OSHA standards. OSHA is authorized to give citations and impose substantial penalties for workplace violations of OSHA regulations

117
Q

The Federal Unemployment Tax Act

FUTA

A

The Federal Unemployment Tax Act

(FUTA) provides funds that the states can use to administer unemployment benefits.

118
Q

Why is it that veterinary practice managers need to understand a double set of employer rules and send tax payments and tax returns to both the state and
federal governments

A

Because of this joint administration of FUTA

119
Q

What are qualified benefits ?

A

legally prescribed benefit options that exist under the law that a employer may choose to provide their employees

120
Q

The expense of qualified benefits can provide the practice with a tax deduction without the requirement to include the value of the benefit in the employee’s
income-taxable compensation. T/F

A

TRUE

121
Q

Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974…EXPLAIN…

A

Nearly every employee health and retirement benefit arrangement is governed by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974, which provides safeguards for employee interests in any employer-sponsored plan. ERISA does not require that employers provide benefit plans, but it does impose requirements to protect the rights of participants.ERISA defines the fiduciary standards for covered employee benefit plans and rules of conduct for the plan trustee.

122
Q

ERISA consists of three major sections. What are they?

A

Title I prescribes reporting and disclosure obligations, minimum participation rules, vesting and funding requirements, fiduciary standards, and other rules. It is administered by the Department of Labor.
Title II consists of amendments to the Internal Revenue Code and is enforced by the IRS.
The last major section, Title IV, establishes a pension-plan benefit insurance program, administered through the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC).

123
Q

Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) of 1986, allows for what in employment law?

A

COBRA, as amended in 1989, allows for limited continuation of group health benefits
to covered employees who leave their employment under certain circumstances.
COBRA’s general requirement for temporary coverage extension applies to employers
with twenty or more employees in the year prior to the coverage..Qualified individuals are
allowed to extend their coverage (called continuation coverage) on a self-pay basis for a
period up to eighteen months after termination of employment..

124
Q

the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 covers what?

A

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act protects workers’ healthinsurance
coverage when they change jobs, limits exclusions for preexisting conditions, and
prohibits discrimination against employees and dependents based on their health status.

125
Q

The Employee Polygraph Protection Act (EPPA) of 1988 does what?

A

The Employee Polygraph Protection Act (EPPA) of 1988 generally prohibits most private sector
employers from directly or indirectly requiring, suggesting, or otherwise causing any
employee or prospective employee to take or submit to any lie-detector test. Furthermore,
an employer may not discharge, discipline, discriminate against, deny employment or
promotion to, or threaten to take any action against any employee or prospective employee
who refuses, declines, or fails to take or submit to any lie-detector test; nor may such action
be taken on the basis of any lie-detector test results

126
Q

EPPA does permit polygraph testing under what strict circumstances?

A

does permit polygraph testing of some job applicants by firms that provide
security services (e.g., guards and armored car services) and companies that make,
distribute, or dispense pharmaceuticals. The law also permits, under certain conditions,
polygraph testing of employees who are reasonably suspected of a workplace crime resulting
in specific economic loss to the employer (such as embezzlement or theft). However, any
testing permitted by the EPPA is subject to stringent requirements designed to safeguard
the employee’s rights. Furthermore, any polygraph testing permitted by the EPPA is still
subject to any applicable state and local laws and any collective bargaining agreement

127
Q

Required Notice Postings, federally?

A
  • The Fair Labor Standards Act and Minimum Wage
  • Equal opportunity provisions of the law
  • The Family and Medical Leave Act
  • OSHA Job Safety and Health Protection requirements
  • The Employee Polygraph Protection Act
  • The Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act
  • Right to join/form unions and associations
128
Q

An effective appointment schedule should have 2 goals?

A

An effective appointment schedule should have two goals: (1) to eliminate client wait
time, and (2) to maximize the efficiency of the doctors, the support staff, and the facility by
minimizing downtime between clients or patient procedures.

129
Q

___ examination rooms per experienced medical team of doctor, veterinary
technician, and veterinary assistant are probably optimal because they allow for a technique
called dense scheduling to be used. How does it work?

A

3
involves overlapping appointments
For example, say that
fifteen-minute appointments are scheduled for annual wellness care. In dense scheduling,
an appointment could be scheduled every five minutes.

130
Q

What’s the difference between primary and secondary medical record use

A

Primary use is regarding medical information and secondary is regarding practice trends like costs
secondary use deals with practice wide issues and trends as opposed to an individual patients medical needs

131
Q

pharmacy labels should include

A

doctor, client, patient, and drug names; drug strength, dosage, and expiration date; and
refill information.

132
Q

What is dicom?

A

The global information-technology standard used to ensure interoperability of
medical image systems is called Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine
(DICOM)Important objectives of DICOM include ensuring that all equipment is compatible with
other current technology and will be compatible with future technology, regardless of
vendor, and with health information systems and other developing standards. Another
objective is ensuring that patient identification is imbedded with the image in a single data
file, so that the two cannot be separated by mistake.
Consultation

133
Q

Typically, records have been organized in one of three ways: by source, by problem, or
by some combination of the two T/F

A

T

134
Q

source oriented medical records (SOMR) are organized in what way?

A

data is entered on the record and grouped by the information source and then ordered chronologically
within these categories. For example, possible information sources include the client oral
history, physical exam findings, imaging studies, and blood tests. The chronological order is
determined by date of office visit or period of hospitalization (patient encounters).

135
Q

problem-oriented medical record (POMR) CONSIST OF WHAT?

A

The defined database, which includes the chief presenting complaint; the patient’s
profile, history, and physical examination findings; and laboratory and radiology
reports
2. The problem list, which is divided into three sections:
A. the major problem list
B. the minor problem list
C. a medication table
The plan section, which includes a written discussion of a planned course of action
The progress section,
SOAP

136
Q

signaling devices?

A

signaling devices. Signaling devices can be colored metal or plastic tabs
attached to the record or colored stickers attached to folders. Color-coded labels reduce file
retrieval time, increase filing and sorting speed, and provide a way to quickly identify
misfiled records.

137
Q

What is a veterinary log? what’s purposes do they serve that are paramount?

A

A log is a continuous record, generally kept chronologically, for one particular veterinary
service or service type. .(1) They are
kept to comply with legal requirements, such as those mandating that records must be kept
on the use of controlled substances; (2) they provide evidence in the event of a malpractice
claim; and (3) they are convenient for quick data analysis and auditing.

138
Q

UNEXPECTED DEATH LOG is also known as…

A

sentinel event log.

139
Q

How is informed consent different from owner consent

A

In human medicine, the doctrine of informed consent requires that information can be
plainly conveyed so that a patient can decide on and approve a suggested course of care. In
veterinary medicine, this legal doctrine is called owner consent, to differentiate the fact that
animals are considered property

140
Q

What would be informed consent in veterinary practice

A

Information described in oral and written informed consent agreements includes known
risks, alternatives, prognoses, possible complications, and an estimate of the fees to be
charged. Discussion with the client, usually by the doctor when the condition or outcome
is serious, and notes contemporaneously made in the medical record documenting the
discussion, may fulfill the requirements of owner consent. Signed consent forms by
traditional or electronic signature are part of the medical records and should be retained
with them.

141
Q

What benefit is there to medical record audit

A

minimizing lost fee charges, increasing doctor productivity and
service provisions, and improving patient care. Patient record evaluation also seeks to find
ways to provide services more efficiently, reducing wasted time, supplies, and other costs.

142
Q

What are the 2 greatest cost of operation in a veterinary hospital?

A

the two greatest costs of operation are the cost of staffing and
the cost of purchasing inventory

143
Q

What is the definition of inventory, merchandise inventory, professional inventory or medical supply inventory?

A

inventory is specifically defined as all goods owned and held for sale or use in the regular course of business
The inventory of products purchased for resale to clients is commonly called merchandise inventory
Items used in the course of providing veterinary medical and surgical services are called professional inventory or medical supply inventory.

144
Q

Inventory control definition

A

Inventory control, for our purposes, is defined as the process whereby the need to
maintain sufficient inventory to meet hospital operating demands is weighed against the
monetary cost of carrying inventory

145
Q

Optimal inventory
control ensures that items that ___are always available and that return on investment for carrying and managing inventory is at the highest possible level.

A

frequently used and needed

146
Q

What are the General goals of inventory control and management?

A

Clients can conveniently obtain refills
Medications and supplies are available to treat patients
Quantities of drugs and professional supplies are controlled to minimize hospital
expenditures to the lowest practical level.
minimize
redundancy of products
Employees can efficiently order, stock, and dispense the needed
Appropriate security, systems, and safeguards exist
employees are trained to know how to correctly handle supplies
Employees are well-versed in communicating the value of products dispensed
appropriate pricing is passed on to the clients of the practice.

Sales achieve the planned level of profit.

147
Q

CONTROLLED substances act

A

Controlled Substances Act. Under the act, the federal
government classifies controlled substances according to their potential for addiction and
abuse. Laws pertaining to doctors of veterinary medicine and their conduct as registered
prescribers and dispensers of controlled substances are very specific and affect veterinary
hospital use and control of these drugs.

148
Q

Federal laws are enforced by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), which
requires strict records of controlled substances. State agencies may have even stricter
standards. Whichever requirement is more stringent takes precedence.T/F

A

T

149
Q

By federal law schedule 2 control substances must be

A

maintained separately from all other records

150
Q

All inventories and records of controlled substances in Schedules III, IV, and V must be maintained separately
or must be in such form that they are readily retrievable from the ordinary professional and business records” (U.S. Department of Justice 1990).T/F

A

T

151
Q

Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for what?

A

the FDA has responsibility for ensuring the “safety and efficacy of all regulated, marketed medical
products including drugs, biologics, and medical and radiation-emitting devices. MedWatch is the FDA safety information and adverse reporting service. The FDA arm for veterinary practitioners, the Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM), maintains a separate adverse-reaction reporting site specifically for veterinarians

152
Q

DEFINE ADE?

A

adverse drug event (ADE).

153
Q

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has regulatory jurisdiction over ____?

A

pesticides

154
Q

DEFINE UNIT COST

ordering cost…

A

unit cost. This is the amount paid to the vendor,
including applicable sales taxes and shipping costs, divided by the quantity of the item
ordered. Ordering costs include mostly labor-related expenses.

155
Q

ordering costs account for

What % ?.. what is holding cost?

A

ordering costs can account for as much as 15 to 20 percent of the true total cost of the item. Holding costs have to do with the costs of owning and keeping inventory on the premises in anticipation of their use. The larger holding cost is generally attributable to the
capital tied up in inventory. Money paid to vendors to acquire inventory could have been alternatively invested to generate an income. Or, the money could have been used to reduce prior borrowings on which interest expense is being paid.
Other holding costs are as follows:
• Personal property taxes paid on the value of inventory as of a specific valuation date
• Insurance premiums paid on the average inventory value to protect against the risk of
loss in event of a disaster, theft, or damage
• The utility and facility costs of protecting inventory against heat, cold, and humidity
• Loss due to obsolescence and spoilage if inventory is not used or sold before expiration
dates
• Pharmacy licensing fees and regulatory compliance
• Per-square-foot facility costs associated with the space used to store inventory
• The cost of maintaining workplace safety programs (OSHA regulation compliance) that
are attributable to inventory and supplies that are potentially dangerous to handle and
store
• The cost of dusting items and maintaining them with an orderly appearance

156
Q

The estimated holding cost for a veterinary practice ranges from ___ percent of the
true total cost of an item.

A

8 to 15 percent of the

true total cost of an item.

157
Q

Aggregated ordering and holding costs thus account for approximately ___ percent
of the total true cost, depending on the amount of time the inventory is held

A

25-35

158
Q

total

inventory cost amounts to much more than what is paid to vendors? why?

A

Aggregated ordering and holding costs thus account for approximately 25 to 35 percent
of the total true cost, depending on the amount of time the inventory is held. Cost also
depends on management’s success in safeguarding inventory from shrinkage as well as
overall efficiency and effectiveness in purchasing the asset. For these many reasons, total
inventory cost amounts to much more than what is paid to vendors.

159
Q

What happens if you place orders that are too large and into small?

A

If the orders placed are too large, you have decreased the ordering cost but increased the holding cost ….If the orders placed are too small, you have
increased the ordering costs while decreasing the holding costs.

160
Q

What Should the Inventory System Do?….. 4 basic functions?

A

four basic functions—controlling, forecasting, purchasing, and selling

161
Q

perpetual inventory system.
periodic
inventory system?

A

An inventory system that can provide accurate detail of
inventory levels at any time is said to be a perpetual…A periodic
inventory system uses records that rely on physical counts at the end of each financial period
to determine the correct levels.

162
Q

What is taking a physical inventory

A

means manually counting quantities on hand A periodic
inventory system uses records that rely on physical counts at the end of each financial period
to determine the correct levels.

163
Q

For example, to test compliance for heartworm medication packs, the following
computation would be done:
Beginning quantity on January 1, 20XX 500
Add number ordered and received, January 1 through December 31, 20XX 2,000
Subtract number sold January 1 through December 31, 20XX <2,341>
Calculated quantity on hand on December 31, 20XX 159
Physical count of on-hand quantity on December 31, 20XX 150

A

In this example, the variance between the calculated number and the physical count is –
9. Negative variances are expressed in the paperwork with brackets or parentheses. If there
were 9 more heartworm packs on the shelf than the calculations say there should be, the
variance would be +9.

164
Q

What is a negative or positive variance as it relates to inventory?

A

Discrepancy

between the calculated number and the physical count is

165
Q

Medical and hospital supplies consumed in the course of patient care or completion of
office work are much easier to track than drugs, pet products, and similar items resold to clients. T/FAs

A

Medical and hospital supplies consumed in the course of patient care or completion of
office work are much more difficult to track than merchandise. By emphasizing the
importance of recording what is being taken out of inventory for these daily activities (e.g.,
through employee training), you may be able to reduce these discrepancies.

166
Q

internal control…. What is it in terms of inventory and how is it done?

A

segregation of inventory duties will allow for adequate safeguarding
of valuable practice assets. One person should not control all aspects of record maintenance
and at the same time also control all ordering, stocking, and distribution of inventory. In
such a system, there are no checks and balances to prevent theft, fraud, and error. The most usual cross-check
and verification occurs at the point that invoices are prepared for payment to vendors.

167
Q

An item with a long lag time, or “lead time,” requires a lower reorder level
than an item the vendor can supply almost immediately to do the high cost of keeping those items on hand.T/F

A

false…reorder timing should account for the estimated time delay between placing an order
and receiving it. An item with a long lag time, or “lead time,” requires a higher reorder level
than an item the vendor can supply almost immediately.

168
Q

FORECASTING FUNCTIONS….As hospital manager what are your broad goals?

A

As hospital manager you should stay familiar with routine estimated usage amounts,
including those of seasonal items, and monitor the use of drugs and supplies. Order
supplies at the proper time to ensure timely delivery in sufficient quantities and to take
optimal advantage of discount and bargain purchase options.

169
Q

What are effective inventory control systems that should be in place in software and inventory systems?

A

The inventory system should act as a contact management tool… The system should identify and track backorders and record when they
are expected to arrive. . A good system makes cost-effective purchasing possible by identifying such factors as
seasonal usage, which help you to determine optimal order times for larger quantities. An effective system also allows for identification of outdated items so they can be properly
handled. In addition, an effective system ensures that vendor invoices match the contracted
amounts and prices that were agreed upon when the orders were placed. Finally, the system
should allow for immediate assessment of increased pricing to clients. When the vendor
increases the price of an inventory item, the practice should pass the price increase on to the
client.

170
Q

In a pure retail-selling
environment, marketing is used extensively to drive sales. However, veterinary practice is
primarily founded in animal-health-care services. Pharmaceutical and product sales are
secondary to veterinary services, so the real practice selling function resides in promoting
the value of ___ that supplements the product sale.

A

expert opinion

171
Q

Gross profit definition….Some practice management software
programs now attempt to represent the true cost of the products and services the practice
offers in these calculations (e.g., by taking ordering costs, holding costs, and overhead
considerations into account), so that managers can structure prices and fees accordingly.? T/F…. But what else needs to be considered when pricing an item?

A

Gross profit is the difference between the price of a product to the client (e.g., heartworm
preventive) and the cost of the product to the practice.
True….taking ordering costs, holding costs, and overhead
considerations into account… This does help arrive at the most fair pricing for the client but increasingly competitive market forces at work require managers to take other factors into consideration such as a clients alternative source for products and to adapt pricing strategies to coincide with larger practice objectives….

172
Q

What are the duties of an inventory manager?

A

mindful of seasonal influences on usage Computing and projecting quantities to order (order quantity) for the next period
based on prior history
relative value of various inventory items to prioritize the level of
control and amount of time to be spent managing those items
counting and monitoring stock meeting with reps
Overseeing shipment receipt
Updating sales prices of items
monitoring Internet-pricing of “shopped” items
and
Keeping track of items that come close to their expiration dates• Ensuring that all state and federal pharmacy and
physical counts of inventory,
bookkeeper receives copies of all purchase orders

173
Q

One key statistic/ benchmark calculation you will see frequently in the veterinary literature compares supply
utilization against practice revenue realization…. How is this financial ratio calculated?

A

The benchmark calculation divides
supply expense (the supplies used or dispensed in the financial period) by total practice
revenue during the same period, typically twelve months.

174
Q

.Companion animal hospitals with good accounting systems will typically incur drug and
professional supply expenses, including vaccines and parasite products, of about __ percent
of gross income.

A

12

175
Q

What percent of gross income are hospital supplies laboratory supplies anesthesia dentistry surgery and dietary products…

A

Hospital supplies, over-the-counter items, and ancillary supply expenses
such as grooming supplies average 1.5 percent. Laboratory supply and reference laboratory
expenses will run at about 3.75 percent of gross income. Anesthesia, dentistry, and surgery
expenses amount to about 1 percent of gross income, and dietary product averages 2.5
percent of gross income

176
Q

How do revenue centers impact financial ratios for percent of gross income incurred by a supply utilization per revenue center

A

Revenue centers will affect these financial ratios. For example, if the practice derives 15
percent of its total revenues from boarding services, this will cause the percentages for
various supply categories to look much different (unusually lower, since boarding and
grooming services generally average about 8 percent of total practice revenues).

177
Q

What is one good source of financial benchmarks and what are comparison stats of list of expenses as percent of gross revenue by area of supply?

A

One source for inventory and other financial benchmarks is AAHA’s Financial and
Productivity Pulsepoints study, published every two years. For comparison with the
foregoing stats, the version published in 2011 (using data from 2010) reported drugs and
medical supplies (not including laboratory, dietary products, and over-the counter items) at
14.6 percent of gross revenues. Food expenses (prescription and nonprescription) averaged
3.4 percent. Laboratory expenses came in at 3.7 percent, and over-the-counter expenses
totaled 2.9 percent of gross income. This book also provides percentages detailed by
practice size (total revenue ranges) and by full-time equivalency veterinarians.

178
Q

• Reorder point definition of ?

A

Maximum and minimum level of stock at which reordering should occur

179
Q

In inventory control what is a red tag system?

A

For each item, the inventory manager creates a colorful tag that For example, the inventory manager determines that amoxicillin drops should be
reordered when five packages remain in inventory. The fifth from the last package is
tagged. Team members dispense available packages in order. When they reach the tagged
package, the tag is removed and placed in a box that the inventory manager routinely
monitors. When tags appear in the box, the inventory manager knows it is time to order.

180
Q

For tracking of hospital consumables including disinfectants sponges needles and syringes are one of the weaknesses of computerized inventory tracking…. What is another option for these items?

A

Resorting to manual strategies, such as tagging and physical inspection,
may be necessary

181
Q

The more valuable the inventory item, the more important perpetual
inventory management techniques become?

A

true

182
Q

ration-based inventory

A

Safeguards should be instituted to reduce the temptation of
theft, such as locking away the majority of available stock so only a week’s worth is readily
available Ration-based inventory is based on a simple concept: When inventory is in publicly
accessible and unsecured areas, such as treatment rooms, it is easier to control in smaller
quantities than in larger quantities. Wastage is reduced. Theft is
easier to detect by walk-about management and visual scanning of the mini-storage area.

183
Q

purchase order

A

purchase order is a document issued by the practice to vendors to request the delivery of
materials, including supplies, any other item to be placed in inventory, equipment, and the
like
It specifies quantities and prices.Purchase orders can also be created when the hospital
needs to purchase services, such as an equipment repair service call. A purchase order
system traces every SKU from the time the practice determines that the item is needed to
the point the purchase invoice is paid. Like other hospital forms, purchase orders are
sequentially numbered for control purposes.After preparing the purchase order, the employee responsible for placing the order may
send a copy to the vendor, fax it to the vendor, send it electronically, or call in the order
and refer to the purchase order while doing soSending a purchase order to a vendor is a
legal offer to purchase, but no agreement exists with the vendor until it is accepted by the
vendor a copy of the purchase order will
be checked against the vendor’s packing slip when the order is received.

184
Q

What does a central supply accomplish in inventory management?

A

A central supply under the control of one person alleviates

disorganization and lost profit

185
Q

Dividing up responsibilities in a ration-based system is best because ?

A

Strong internal controls adds
accountability. two people doing separate
duties may collude to commit theft, but theft is less likely to occur when two people are
involved because of the fear of being discovered.

186
Q

One of the greatest safeguards against employee theft is a ___ inventory system

A

perpetual

187
Q

By maintaining a secure, rationed inventory system, you can minimize

A

cost of
maintaining control. Other shrinkage issues, such as the
incidence of damaged items, wastage, and missed charges for items consumed obsolete items in inventory.
Duplication of drugs the course
of patient treatment,

188
Q

The desirability of the inventory item to various
employees also affects the quantity rationed. A ___ likelihood of theft leads to low
quantities readily available for use.

A

high

189
Q

Selective inventory control

A

is a profit-based management system that prioritizes inventory
based on value and importance. Once the relative importance of inventory items is
determined, you can develop suitable control systems and spend your time on what is most
valuable to the practice.

190
Q

Pareto’s principle, or the “80/20 rule… how does this apply to inventory?

A

The 80/20 rule, as
applied to inventory, says that 20 percent of the items account for about 80 percent of the
sales revenues. It also states that about 80 percent of the inventory cost exists in 20 percent
of the inventory items. Third, 80 percent of profit can be predicted to come from 20
percent of products sold. These groups likely overlap, but they are not necessarily the same.
It is helpful to know which items account for your practice’s top 20 percent of total
revenues, total cost, and total profit.

191
Q

ABC analysis,?

A

20 percent of the items carried in stock typically account for 80 percent
of your inventory investment, you should plan to spend more of your time managing these
items, ABC analysis is a method of sorting inventory
into manageable components based on cost and relative value.

192
Q

To carry out an ABC analysis, you will do the following:

A

Calculate the annual usage distribution.sort the SKUs in descending order by AUV

193
Q

annual usage value

A

(AUV) acheived by multiplying volume used in a year by the

average cost.

194
Q

Class AA items are what?

A
Controlled substances
» Highest risk / highest priority
» Tightest controls
» Frequent review and inspection (perhaps even daily) by a responsible doctor or chief
of staff
195
Q

Class A

A

High value / high priority
» Tight controls
» Complete, accurate records
» Records updated in practice management system as stock is received
» Frequent and regular review by manager
» Frequent review and adjustment of demand forecasts
» Regular comparisons of physical stock to forecasts
» Minimize stocks on hand and reduce lead time
» Good security of surplus stock, when surplus is unavoidable

196
Q

Class B

A

» Medium priority

» Normal control

197
Q

Class C

A

» Lowest priority
» Simplest possible control
» Weigh cost-benefit relationship of micromanagement and stock savings
» Consider ordering larger quantities with bigger safety stock margins, if warranted

198
Q
To properly plan for effective inventory levels, the inventory manager should
periodically analyze each item or class of items in order to do the following:
A
  • Forecast demand for the next month, quarter, or year, including seasonal trends
  • Determine acquisition lead time
  • Plan usage during the lead time period
  • Establish and monitor quantity on hand
  • Determine reserve or safety stock requirements (Usry and Hammer 1991)
199
Q

Operating level is what in inventory management?

A

The inventory amount of an item that is expected to be used up between
the point of order receipt and the time another order must be placed.

200
Q

Lead time definition?

A

Lead time: The time between the point of order and when shipment will be received.The lead-time quantity should assure that at least one item will still
be available when the new order is received.

201
Q

Reorder point definition?

A

The time at which the purchasing manager should place a restock order
with the vendor because supplies have fallen to a specified level. Reorder point is
determined by the SKU quantity that will meet predicted normal operating needs until
the restocking supplies arrive on the premises (lead time) plus the selected emergency
stock quantity (safety stock). The reorder point quantity equals the safety stock plus the
lead-time quantity.

202
Q

lead-time quantity

A

The lead-time quantity is the amount of inventory expected to be used up from the time
the order is placed until the order is received.The lead-time quantity should assure that at least one item will still
be available when the new order is received.

203
Q

Safety stock:

A

Safety stock: A desired inventory cushion, in excess of lead-time quantity, to help
mitigate the event of a stock outage if shipment was delayed or if the item was placed on
back order.

204
Q

Inventory turnover

A

Inventory turnover: A computation that relates the volume of merchandise sold to the
inventory amount.
You can
compute turnover to determine whether inventory items have the desired “shelf-life” or
are sitting around too long and eating into profitability.

205
Q

• Operating level:

A

Operating level: The inventory amount of an item that is expected to be used up between
the point of order receipt and the time another order must be placed.

206
Q

Reorder point:

A

The reorder point quantity equals the safety stock plus the

lead-time quantity.

207
Q

average inventory on-hand

A

This is the sum of the beginning
inventory (BI) and the ending inventory (EI) divided by 2.The result is the average onhand
inventory (AI) and is intended to approximate the average cost of inventory on hand
at any given time:

208
Q

inventory turnover ratio

A

Divide the total purchases during
the year (DMSP) by the average on-hand inventory value, as calculated in the first step.
DMSP ÷ AI = Inventory Turnover Ratio
The resulting inventory turnover ratio tells you how many times the entire inventory of
drugs and medical supplies has been sold and replaced over a single year.

209
Q

economic order quantity (EOQ

A

eoq= Sq root of 2xAxF/HxUC
A = Annual demand in units
F = Fixed ordering costs incurred per order
H = Holding costs expressed on an annual basis as a percentage of unit cost
UC = Unit cost to purchase from vendor or supplier
OTHER

210
Q

practice’s turnover number for a given item is 6….

A

meaning that on average,

you can estimate that the full order will be sold in 60 days)

211
Q

A Freight on Board (FOB) shipping

point designation means

A

sale occurs at the vendor’s shipping dock,

212
Q

FOB destination means that title passes when the
merchandise is delivered to the buyer (in this case, when the carrier unloads the shipment at
the veterinary practice).

A

T

213
Q

Two common methods of pricing include

A

Two common methods of pricing include markup and margin pricing.

214
Q

Markup pricing

A

Markup pricing entails multiplying acquisition cost by a factor. With the markup method, a 100 percent markup on cost doubles the price for which
the product was obtained from the vendor. A 200 percent markup triples the unit cost, and
a 300 percent markup quadruples the unit cost to arrive at retail price. To determine the
markup on an item, you must consider market competition and constraints as well as cost
and practice philosophy. Product markups can easily range from a low of 40 percent to a
high of 400 percent. 40% is too close to break even

215
Q

Margin pricing

A

Margin pricing
determines the amount of profit desired for a given product line, and adding it to the cost
of obtaining it from the supplier.With margin pricing, the price of a particular medication will increase much more
gradually for the size of the patient as compared to a straight multiplier effect with the mark
up method

216
Q

the point at
which sales revenues equal fixed costs plus variable costs, without generating either profit or
loss.

A

break-even point (BEP)

217
Q

The break-even sales price equation can be expanded to include the profit layer.
Therefore, the expanded formula for pricing, including the profit factor, and where SP
means sales price, appears like this:

A

SP = FC + VC + P where SP
= sales price FC
= fixed cost cc =variable cost and P = profit

218
Q

profit margin of at least 12 percent

A

The common amount of practice profit margin to add in pricing a product

219
Q

to itemize the

services and products for each transaction. This is usually done on a tracking sheet.

A

travel sheet data collection sheet circle sheet

220
Q

As a contractual obligation to pay for services, a personal check is a ————-,
that is, a paper document that can move freely in financial transactions as a substitute for
money

A

negotiable instrument
There are two types of negotiable instruments,
notes and drafts; a check is a draft.

221
Q

What’s the difference between a cashier’s check and a certified check?

A

A cashier’s check is a demand draft drawn on the bank itself, rather than the client’s
account. After a cashier’s check has been given to the hospital in payment, the client cannot
stop payment on the check …A certified check is a draft that has been pre-accepted by the payer’s bank. By certifying
the check, the bank assumes responsibility for payment and sets aside funds from the
client’s account to cover the check

222
Q

The veterinarian is not a party to the insurance contract ,When a client has pet health insurance, the veterinarian should be outside the process of
collecting on the insurance claim…..why?

A

The privity of contract, or legal relationship, exists

between the insurance company and the insured party, the animal owner.

223
Q

Describe the daily closeout procedure or end of day reconciliation

A

The daily drawer closeout procedure compares the counted revenues with the receipt
record
the cashier must verify evidence of reconciliation for each
revenue type: cash, credit card, checks, and coupons.

224
Q

Internal control includes

A

Internal control includes “all measures used by a business to ensure against errors, waste,
and fraud; to assure the reliability of accounting data; and to promote compliance with all
company policies”

225
Q

One basic internal control principle is that one person should handle all phases of a
transaction from beginning to end
T/F

A

false….no ONE…person

226
Q

Wherever possible, record-keeping duties should be kept separate from —–
duties.

A

asset custody

227
Q

What other fail safes regarding asset protection theft prevention are good rules of thumb

A

divide duties,
The person who reconciles the bank statement should not control the deposit or take
it to the bank or process client credit cards. The person who reviews the daily records and
cross-checks deposit amounts with invoices and computer-system reports should not make
the collections or prepare the deposit. The person who adjusts client accounts receivables
for write-offs should not handle payments made on account by the client.

228
Q

What is the definition of bookkeeping?

A

Bookkeeping is the process of recording business data in a prescribed manner. The bookkeeper’s duties basically involve recording the transactions into the journals and
ledgers.

229
Q

Explain segregation of duties as it relates to bookkeepers?

A

If the bookkeeper has access to and handles bank deposits, then a significant
principle of strong internal control function, segregation of duties, has been violated. The chief objective of establishing and maintaining appropriate segregation of
employee duties is to ensure that no employee has the opportunity to both commit a
fraudulent activity and also conceal that fraud

230
Q

Internal Control & proper segregation of duties entails that no
single person is in charge of or controls more than one of the following functions: (3)

A
  • Authorization
  • Recording
  • Custody
231
Q

What are authorization recording

and custody

A

Authorization duties entail the ability to approve transactions.
Recording refers to the actual data entry process,
Custody duties involve the physical handling of assets.

232
Q

Budgeting model top down

A

In the top-down approach, the desired gross

income of the practice is projected to the desired target amount.

233
Q

“bottom-up” approaches to budget modeling

A

In the bottom-up

approach, the desired level of profit is established at the outset

234
Q

payroll company acts as an attorney-in-fact for the veterinary
practice,T/F

A

true

235
Q

Levels of accountant reporting

A

Compilation Review Audit…

236
Q

CPA may represent the hospital in the event of a tax agency audit of
the veterinary practice. For audits by the IRS, only three kinds of tax professional are
allowed to represent a taxpayer: a

A

A CPA, an attorney, or an enrolled agent (EA).

237
Q

compliance work

A

Many of the service offerings CPA firms provide are collectively called compliance work
and involve taxation issues and taxpayer reporting requirements.

238
Q

master ledger, also called the

general ledger.

A

The general ledger is the principal ledger that contains all of the financial
information summarized in the subsidiary ledgers. It is organized chronologically within
each of the applicable accounts listed in the practice’s chart of accounts. The bookkeeperprepared
general ledger provides the accounting firm with the information it needs to
execute its responsibilities to the veterinary practice.

239
Q

chart of accounts (COA),

A

The backbone of any accounting system is the chart of accounts (COA), an organized listing
of all of the income, expense, asset, liability, and equity categories used in a business entity
for classifying each and every transaction as it occurs. Usually a numeric code is associated
with each account name. The account codes allow for daily financial transactions to be
coded accurately and consistently, ultimately resulting in reports and financial statements
that provide a clear picture of the practice operations. AAHA Chart of Accounts is
flexible enough for use in all practices, regardless of size, bookkeeping competency,Attention to detail such as posting dates, vendor names, and
amounts are other important factors in enhancing the reliability of reports. A chart of
accounts that is handled correctly provides the best basis for planning and making prudent
business decisions.
435
VetBooks

240
Q

What Is the Cost Principle?

A

monetary records based on the cost to acquire properties and services….The exchange price

241
Q

WHAT IS THE ACCOUNTING EQUATION?

A

Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity

242
Q

What is an asset?

A

Assets represent all of the economic resources of the practice that can be expressed in
monetary terms, meaning anything the practice owns.

243
Q

Liabilities?

A

• Liabilities are legally enforceable obligations resulting from past transactions that require
the practice to pay money, provide goods, or perform services in the future.

244
Q

Owner’s equity represents what?

A

Owner’s equity represents the interest or claim of the practice owners in the practice
assets. Owner’s equity is what the practice owes its owners, according to the practice
books: the amounts the owners have invested in the business plus the amount of profits
that have been retained in the business and that are owed to the owners, less any
amounts that have been withdrawn as dividends or draws.

245
Q

Explain the origin of the accounting equation?

A

Total financial claims to the properties or assets of the veterinary practice are referred to as
equities.Assets = Equities meaning assets are things of value equal the sum total of the owners claim to property and someone elses claim to the property ,a liability, comes first because in theory they have the first right

246
Q

The four types of financial statements include…..

A

Balance sheet Income statement
Cash flow statement
Statement of stockholders’ equity

247
Q

balance sheet

A

On any given date the balance sheet is
prepared, asset, liability, and owner’s equity accounts will all be in balance: assets =
liabilities + owner’s equityThe balance sheet always reports account
balances at a specific date. This can be any date, but the most common for formal reporting
is at month’s end, quarter’s end, or year’s end..

248
Q

The statement of revenues and expenses and the statement of cash flows both present
account totals that originate from a specific span of time.T/F

A

T

249
Q

Income statement

A

Income statement: Sometimes called the statement of operations, the profit and loss
statement, or the statement of revenues and expenses, the income statement reports
values that have accumulated between two points in time. This report measures the
performance of the practice by comparing the revenue generated with related expenses
incurred for a particular period.

250
Q

Cash flow statement:

A

Cash flow statement: This financial statement summates accumulated inflows and
outflows of cash between two points in time, depending on sources and uses of cash.
This statement differs from an income statement because not all cash inflow results
from revenue collection and not all cash outflow is used for paying operating expenses

251
Q

Statement of stockholders’ equity:

A

Statement of stockholders’ equity: This statement is similar to the statement of owner’s
equity, the statement of retained earnings, or the statement of partners’ capital,
depending on the practice’s legal and/or tax entity structure, and reconciles beginning
and ending owner equity accounts for a given period.

252
Q

In cash based accounting by minimizing revenue and maximizing expenses, taxable profit is
reduced.t/f

A

true