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Women's health trigger > Prenatal care trigger > Flashcards

Prenatal care trigger Flashcards

1
Q

what is primipara

A

a woman who has delivered only one baby (alive or dead) with an estimate gestation of >20 weeks

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2
Q

what is multipara

A

a woman who has delivered 2 or more pregnancies to 20 wks gestation or more

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3
Q

when is 1st, 2nd and 3rd trimester

A

1st - 1-14 wks
2nd 15- 28wks
3rd 29-42 wks

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4
Q

what is the uterine size at 6,8, 12 weeks gestation

A

6 - small orange
8 - large orange
12 - grapefruit

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5
Q

when should prenatal visits occur

A
  • every 4 weeks until 28 weeks
  • every 2 weeks until 36 weeks
  • every week until delivery
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6
Q

What genetic disorders are the following ethnic groups at risk for?
- african american
- mediterranean
- asian
- jewish
- north european
- native americans

A
  • african american -> sickle cell
  • mediterranean -> beta thalessemia
  • asian -> alpha thalassemia
  • jewish -> Tay Sachs, Canavan Disease, Cystic Fibrosis
  • north european -> cystic fibrosis
  • native americans -> cystic fibrosis
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7
Q

what is fundal height used for?

A

to monitor fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume

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8
Q

Describe the growth of the fundus throughout the pregnancy

A
  • 12 weeks - fundus emerges from bony pelvis
  • 16 weeks - fundus is between pubic symphysis and umbilicus
  • 20 weeks - fundus is at umbilicus
  • between 20-34 weeks height of uterine fundus measures closely with gestational age (25cm = 25 weeks)
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9
Q

what is 1 hour glucola testing

A
  • 50g glucose drink
  • draw blood 1 hr after drink.
    usd to determine gestational diabetes (24-28wks usually)
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10
Q

what during pregnancy can result in wernickes encephalopathy

A

hyperemesis gravidarum

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11
Q

why is there increased occurance of hemorrhoids during pregnancy? what is the treatment

A
  • increase pelvic venous pressure
  • can lead to rectal vein caricosities
  • tx - topical anethetics, stool softeners, warm soaks.
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12
Q

what is the risk factors for neural tube defects

A
  • FmHx
  • MTHFR mutation
  • aneuploidy
  • DM
  • hyperthermia
  • medications (seizure meds)
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13
Q

at what point should a patient be offered a targeted sonography with or without fetal echocardiography and fetal karyotyping

A

if nuchal translucency is >3.5mm

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14
Q

what elevated hormone may suggest down syndrome

A

elevated hCG and Inhibin

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15
Q

what is the Most sensitive and specific screening test for common fetal aneuploidies

A

cell free DNA testing

this is not equivalent to Diagnostic testing.

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16
Q

what are the possible complications of amniocentesis

A
  • pregnancy loss (1 in 300-500)
  • amniotic fluid leakage
  • chorioamnionitis
  • needle injuries to fetus
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17
Q

what are the relative CI to chorionic Villi sampling

A
  • vaginal bleeding
  • actival genital tract infection
  • extreme uterine antee- or retroflexion
  • body habitus precluding visualizaiton
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18
Q

how common is pregnancy loss in Chorionic villus sampling

A

2%

doesnt sound like alot but i feel like thats alot omg

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19
Q

when are limb reduction defects more and less likely to occur during chorionic villus sampling

A
  • more likely during week 7
  • less likely at >10 weeks (occurs 1 in 1000)
20
Q

vaginal mucosa change of dark bluish-red

A

chadwick sign

21
Q

what is the significance of the gestational sac on an ultrasound

A

first sonographic evidence of pregnancy

22
Q

what is the significance of a tolk sac on ultrasound

A

confirms a non-ectopic pregnancy

23
Q

what is the most accurate tool for gestational age

A

the first trimester crown rump length

24
Q

what is naegele’s rule and when is it used

A

estimates delivery date
(LMP+7 days - 3 months = EDD)

25
Q

what is kleihauer betke

A

a test used to assess the presence of fetal RBCs in maternal circulation

26
Q

what can cause pigmentary retinopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice and sensorineural deafness amonst other issues

A

rubella

“CCHEEP”
- Congenital heart defects and CNS problems
- Hepatosplenomegaly and jaundice
- Eye defect (cataracts)
- ear defects (sensorineural deafness
- Pigmentary retinopathy

27
Q

what disease is diagnosed via venereal disease research lab test or rapid plasma reagins?

A

syphillis

28
Q

what is the 1 hour glucola test used for

A

screening for gestational diabetes

29
Q

what vaccination is given in the 3rd trimester so that immunity can be passed along

A

TDaP

30
Q

what prenatal complication can result in wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

hyperemesis gravidarum

31
Q

a patient who is 22 weeks pregnant presents for a checkup and reports increased vaginal discharge. what is the name for this and what causes it?

A

leukorrhea, caused by increased estrogen which causes thinning and increased secretion of mucus in the cervical glands. this leads to increased vaginal discharge but is not usually pathological

32
Q

a serum or amniotic elevation in alpha feto protein is associated with what?

A

neural tube defects

33
Q

the most SENSITIVE test for this diagnosis is a 2nd trimester fetal US

A

neural tube defects

34
Q

when are nuchal translucency and serum analytes obtained and what are they used for

A

done in first trimester
used for screening for down syndrome

35
Q

elevated hCG and decreased PAPP-A are associated with what

A

down syndrome

36
Q

decreased hCG and decreased PAPP-A are associated with what

A

trisomy 13 and 18

37
Q

What is in a quad screen in the 2nd trimester?

i always forget this

A

hCG
AFP
Unconjugated estriol
inhibin (elevated = down syndrome)

38
Q

what is the most sensitive and specific screening test for common fetal aneuploidies

A

cell free DNA

(not equivalent to diagnostic testing which is amniocentesis)

39
Q

complications include vaginal spotting, infection, and limb reduction defect.

A

complications of performing CVS

also includes pregnancy loss:(

40
Q

complications include cord bleeding, fetal-maternal bleeding and fetal bradycardia

A

fetal blood sampling

also includes pregnancy loss :(

41
Q

what is the primary adaptive response to stress

A

decline in fetal growth rate

42
Q

what is the secondary adaptive response to stress

A
43
Q

what is the protocol for a patient with a BPP of 6

A
44
Q

what is the protocol for a patient with a BPP of 2

A
45
Q

in this test the umbilical artery, middle cerebral artery and ductus venosus are all measured

A

doppler velocimetry

46
Q

indications for this test include fetal anemia, IUGR, and isoimmunization

A

MCA velocimetry

Women's health trigger (23 decks)

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