Prenatal care - Hx, PE and Dx Flashcards

1
Q

System for measuring prenatal care adequacy

A

Kessner index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Time frame for the three trimesters

A
  • First – first 14 weeks
  • Second – through 28 weeks
  • Third – 29th to 42nd week

Note: 3 periods of 14 weeks each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Frequency of prenatal check-up

A
  • Monthly until 28 weeks (1st two trimesters)
  • Every 2 weeks until 36 weeks
  • Weekly > 36 weeks (near term)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Initial prenatal work-up

A
  • CBC
  • Blood typing
  • Urine culture
  • OGTT
  • HBsAg
  • RPR
  • Pap smear
  • Rubella IgG
  • Biometry
  • BPP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

75 g OGTT is best done when? Why?

A
  • When
    • At 24-28 weeks
  • Why
    • HPL is produced at this time which causes insulin resistance, lipolysis and increased fatty acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

UTZ work-up schedule

A
  • < 12 weeks
    • TVS
  • 12 to 28 weeks
    • Biometry
  • 28 to 34 weeks
    • Biometry, BPP
  • > 34 weeks
    • Biometry, BPP, NST (closed cervix), IPM (open cervix)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

10 danger signs of pregnancy

A
  1. Headache
  2. Blurring of vision
  3. Prolonged vomiting
  4. Epigastric pain
  5. Nondependent edema
  6. Fever
  7. Dysuria
  8. Watery discharge
  9. Blood discharge
  10. Decreased fetal movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F. Twin gestation count as 2 parity

A
  • False
    • Count multiples as 1 parity, but TPAL is affected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F. Stillbirths is counted as parity

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F. Twin abortion is counted as 1 A in TPAL

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Women with complicated pregnancies often require return visits at ___ intervals.

A

1- to 2-week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What if OGTT finding is elevated? What if normal?

A
  • One positive, take note of the level (manage)
  • If negative, repeat at 28 and 32 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Timing for the following tests

  • Fetal aneuploidy screening
  • Serum screening for neural-tube defects
  • Vaginal and rectal GBS cultures
A
  • Fetal aneuploidy screening
    • 11 to 14 weeks and/or at 15 to 20 weeks
  • Serum screening for neural-tube defects
    • 15 to 20 weeks
  • Vaginal and rectal GBS cultures
    • 35 to 37 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Source of swab for GBS

A

Rectovaginal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In DM, laboratory testing between ___ is the most sensitive approach

A

24 to 28 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Age

  • Young primigravida
  • Elderly primigravida
A
  • Young primigravida
    • ≤ 17 y/o
  • Elderly primigravida
    • ≥ 35 y/o
17
Q

High risk pregnancy patients

A
  • Extreme of age
  • Pregnant with medical complications
  • Poor OB history
  • Placenta previa
  • Pregnant with gynecologic tumors
  • Pregnant with coexisting trophoblastic disease or had trophoblastic disease within the last year
  • Patients with problems with fetal aging, structure, and size
  • Poly- or oligohydramnios
18
Q

Who are considered to have poor OB history?

A
  • 2 consecutive abortions
  • 3 or more repeated abortions
  • History of preterm delivery
  • History of term/preterm fetal death in utero
  • History of term/preterm neonatal death
  • Previous baby with congenital anomaly
19
Q

Smoking increases risk for:

A
  1. Placenta previa
  2. Abruptio placenta
  3. PROM
  4. Preterm delivery
  5. SGA neonate
  6. Spontaneous abortion
  7. Fetal death
  8. Fetal anomalies
20
Q

Illicit drug increases risk for:

A
  1. IUGR
  2. SGA
21
Q

Partner violence increases risk for:

A
  1. Preterm delivery
  2. IUGR
  3. Perinatal death
22
Q

Leopolds maneuver grips

A
  • L1 - Fundal grip
  • L2 - Umbilical grip
  • L3 - Pawlick’s grip
  • L4 - Pelvic grip
  • Memory aid:*
  • FUPP
23
Q

The uterus becomes an abdominal organ at what AOG?

A

12 weeks

24
Q

Fundal grip findings

A
  • What fetal pole occupies the fundus?
    • Irregular. nodular
      • Feet (cephalic presentation)
    • Hard, round, ballotable, mobile
      • Head (breech presentation)
25
Q

Umbilical grip findings

A
  • On which side is the back?
    • Linear, convex, bony ridge
      • Back
    • Numerous nodulation
      • Extremities
26
Q

Pawlick’s grip findings

A
  • What fetal part lies above the pelvic inlet?
    • Head engaged
      • Feel shoulder, fixed, knob-like
    • Head not engaged
      • Feel round, ballotable mass
27
Q

Pelvic grip findings

A
  • On which side is the cephalic prominence?
    • Opposite side as the back
      • Head is flexed
    • Same side as the back
      • Head is extended
  • Engaged or not
    • Engage if hands are parallel and does not meet
    • Not engaged if hands converge
28
Q

Tdap vaccine

  • Route
  • Dose
  • When given
A
  • Route
    • IM
  • Dose
    • 3 doses at 0, 1 and 6–12 months plus booster every 10 years or once per pregnancy
  • When given
    • Between 27–36 weeks
29
Q

Influenza vaccine

  • Route
  • Dose
  • When given
A
  • Route
    • IM
  • Dose
    • Once a year
  • When given
    • preferably between February to June
30
Q

Hepatitis B vaccine

  • Route
  • Dose
  • When given
A
  • Route
    • IM
  • Dose
    • 3 doses
  • When given
    • 0, 1 and 6 months
31
Q

Safe or contraindicated?

  • Rabies
  • MMRV
  • Meningococcus
  • Varicella
  • HPV
  • Pneumococcus
  • Hepatitis A
A
  • Rabies
    • Safe
  • MMRV
    • Contraindicated
  • Meningococcus
    • Safe (given in outbreak)
  • Varicella
    • Ig (post-exposure)
  • HPV
    • Contrainficated
  • Pneumococcus
    • If asplenic or with cardiac disease
  • Hepatitis A
    • Pre- or post-exposure