PRELIMS

Question 1

Indicate whether the following peptides are hydrophilic
or hydrophobic:
a. MLWILSS
b. VAIKVLIL
c. CSKEGCPN
d. SSIQKNET
e. YAQKFQGRT
f. AAPLIWWA
g. SLKSSTGGQ

Answer 1

a. MLWILAA — hydrophobic
b. VAIKVLIL — hydrophobic
c. CSKEGCPN — hydrophilic
d. SSIQKNET — hydrophilic
e. YAQKFQGRT — hydrophilic
f. AAPLIWWA — hydrophobic
g. SLKSSTGGQ — hydrophilic

Question 2

. Is the following peptide positively or negatively
charged at neutral pH?
GWWMNKCHAGHLNGVYYQGGTY

Answer 2

Answer: The peptide is positively charged

Question 3

Consider an RNA template made from a 2:1 mixture
of C:A. What would be the three amino acids most
frequently incorporated into protein?

Answer 3

Answer: Proline (CCA), histidine (CAC), and
threonine (ACC) would be most frequently
incorporated.

Question 4

What is the peptide sequence encoded in
AUAUAUAUAUAUAUA . . .?

Answer 4

Answer: The peptide sequence would alternate
isoleucine (AUA) and tyrosine (UAU):
IYIYI. . .

Question 5

Write the anticodons 5’ to 3’ of the following amino
acids:
a. L
b. T
c. M
d. H
e. R
f. I

Answer 5

Answers:
a. L — UAA, CAA,AAG, GAG, UAG, CAG
b. T — AGU, GGU, UGU, CGU
c. M — CAU
d. H — AUG, GUG
e. R — ACG, GCG, UCG, CCG
f. I — AAU, GAU

Question 6

A protein contains the sequence LGEKKW
CLRVNPKGLDESKDYLSLKSKYLLL. What is the likely function of this protein? (Note: See
Box A3-4.)

Answer 6

Answer: This protein has a leucine residue at se
quential 7th positions forming a leucine zipper,
found in transcription factors.

Question 7

A histone-like protein contains the sequence:
PKKGSKKAVTKVQKKDGKKRKRSRK. What
characteristic of this sequence makes it likely to
associate with DNA?

Answer 7

This protein is positively charged, which would facilitate association with negatively charged DNA

Question 8

A procedure for digestion of DNA with a restriction
enzyme includes a final incubation step of 5 minutes
at 95ºC. What is the likely purpose of this final step?

Answer 8

The 95ºC incubation will inactivate the protein, preventing its activity in subsequent
steps of the assay.

Question 9

What is a ribozyme?

Answer 9

A ribozyme is an RNA molecule that can metabolize other molecules like an enzyme.

Question 10

Name the nonprotein prosthetic groups for the
following conjugated proteins:
glycoprotein
lipoprotein
metalloprotein

Answer 10

glycoprotein — sugars
lipoprotein — lipids
metalloprotein — metal atoms

Question 11

Calculate the DNA concentration in µg/mL from the following information:
a. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.307
b. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:50
dilution = 0.307
c. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.172
d. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.088

Answer 11

a. 0.307 X 50 ug/mL = 15.35 ug/mL
15.35 ug/mL X 100 = 1535 ug/mL
b. 0.307 X 50 ug/mL = 15.35 ug/mL
15.35 ug/mL X 50 = 767.5 ug/mL
c. 0.172 X 50 ug/mL = 8.60 ug/mL
8.60 ug/mL X 100 = 860 ug/mL
d. 0.088 X 50 ug/mL = 4.40 ug/mL
4.40 ug/mL X 100 = 440 ug/mL

Question 12

If the volume of the above DNA solutions was
0.5 mL, calculate the yield for (a) – (d)

Answer 12

a. 1535 ug/mL 0.5 mL = 767.5ug
b. 767.5 ug/mL 0.5 mL = 383.8 ug
c. 860 ug/mL 0.5 mL = 430 ug
d. 440 ug/mL 0.5 mL = 220 u

Question 13

After agarose gel electrophoresis, a 0.5 µg aliquot of DNA isolated from a bacterial culture produced only a faint smear at the bottom of the gel lane. Is this an acceptable DNA sample?

Answer 13

This amount of bacterial DNA should produce a bright smear near the top of the gel lane. This DNA is probably degraded and is therefore unacceptable.

Question 14

Contrast the measurement of DNA concentration by
spectrophotometry with analysis by fluorometry with
regard to staining requirements and accuracy.

Answer 14

Spectrophotometry requires no DNA staining. Fluorometry requires staining of DNA to
generate a fluorescent signal. Fluorometry may
be more accurate than spectrophotometry, since
double-stranded DNA must be intact to stain and
generate a signal, whereas single nucleotides will
absorb light in spectrophotometry.

Question 15

Calculate the RNA concentration in µg/mL from the
following information:
a. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.307.
b. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:50
dilution = 0.307.
c. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.172.
d. Absorbance reading at 260 nm from a 1:100
dilution = 0.088.

Answer 15

a. 0.307 X 40 ug/mL = 12.28 ug/mL
12.28 ug/mL X 100 = 1228 ug/mL
b. 0.307 X 40 ug/mL = 12.28 ug/mL
12.28 ug/mL X 50 = 614 ug/mL
c. 0.172 X 40 ug/mL = 6.88 ug/mL
6.88 ug/mL X 100 = 688 ug/mL
d. 0.088 X 40 ug/mL = 3.52 ug/mL
3.52 ug/mL X 100 = 352 ug/mL

Question 16

An RNA preparation has the following absorbance
readings:
A260 = 0.208
A280 = 0.096
Is this RNA preparation satisfactory for use?

Answer 16

The A260/A280 ratio is 0.208/0.096 = 2.17.
This RNA preparation is satisfactory for use.

Question 17

A blood sample was held at room temperature for
5 days before being processed for RNA isolation. Will this sample likely yield optimal RNA?

Answer 17

This sample will likely not yield optimal RNA due to degradation and changes in gene expression at room temperature.

Question 18

Name three factors that will affect yield of RNA from a paraffin-embedded tissue sample.

Answer 18

Isolation of RNA from fixed tissue is especially affected by the type of fixative used, the age/length of storage of the tissue, and the preliminary handling of the original specimen

Question 19

You wish to perform an electrophoretic resolution of
your restriction enzyme–digested DNA. The size of
the expected fragments ranges from 100 to 500 bp.
You discover two agarose gels polymerizing on the
bench. One is 0.5% agarose; the other is 2% agarose.
Which one might you use to resolve your fragments?

Answer 19

The 2% agarose is best for this range of
fragment sizes.

Question 20

After completion of the electrophoresis of DNA frag
ments along with the proper molecular-weight stan
dard on an agarose gel, suppose (a) or (b) below was
observed. What might be explanations for these?
a. The gel is blank (no bands, no molecular-weight
standard).
b. Only the molecular weight standard is visible.

Answer 20

a. Since the molecular-weight standard is not
visible, something is wrong with the general
electrophoresis process. Most likely, staining
with ethidium bromide was omitted.
b. The presence of the molecular-weight standard
indicates that the electrophoresis and staining
were performed properly. In this case, the
DNA fragments were not loaded, or the
method used to produce the fragments was
unsuccessful

Question 21

How does PFGE separate larger fragments more efficiently than standard electrophoresis?

Answer 21

PFGE forces large fragments through
the gel matix by repeatedly changing the direction
of the electric current, thus realigning the sample
with spaces in the gel matrix.

Question 22

A 6% solution of 19:1 acylamide is mixed, deaerated,
and poured between glass plates for gel formation.
After an hour, the solution is still liquid. What might
be one explanation for the gel not polymerizing?

Answer 22

The nucleating agent and/or the polymerization catalyst were not added to the gel solution.

Question 23

A gel separation of RNA yields aberrantly migrating
bands and smears. Suggest two possible explanations
for this observation

Answer 23

This RNA could be degraded. Alternatively, improper gel conditions were used to separate the RNA.

Question 24

Why does DNA not resolve well in solution (without
a gel matrix)?

Answer 24

Particles move in solution based on their
charge/mass ratio. As the mass of DNA increases,
slowing migration, its negative charge increases,
counteracting the effect of mass.

Question 25

Why is SyBr green I less toxic than EtBr

Answer 25

SyBr green is a minor groove binding
dye. It does not disrupt the nucleotide sequence of
DNA. EtBr is an intercalating agent that slides in
between the nucleotide bases in the DNA and can
cause changes in the nucleotide sequence (mutations) in DNA.

Question 26

What are the general components of loading buffer
used for introducing DNA samples to submarine gels?

Answer 26

Gel loading buffer contains a density
agent to facilitate loading of sample into the wells
underneath the buffer surface and a tracking
dye to follow the migration of the DNA during
electrophoresis.

Question 27

Name two dyes that are used to monitor migration of
nucleic acid during electrophoresis.

Answer 27

Bromphenol blue and xylene cyanol
green are two of several tracking dyes.

Question 28

When a DNA fragment is resolved by slab gel electrophoresis, a single sharp band is obtained. What is the
equivalent observation had this fragment been fluorescently labeled and resolved by capillary electrophoresis?

Answer 28

Capillary electrophoresis results will be
a single peak on an electropherogram.

Question 29

A master mix of all components (except template)
necessary for PCR contains what basic ingredients?

Answer 29

Components of a standard PCR reaction mix include dNTPs, oligonucleotide primers, a
buffer of proper pH and mono- and divalent cation concentration, and polymerase enzyme.

Question 30

The final concentration of Taqpolymerase is to be
0.01 units/µL in a 50 µL PCR. If the enzyme is
supplied as 5 units/µL,how much enzyme would you
add to the reaction?
a. 1 µL
b. 1 µL of a 1:10 dilution of Taq
c. 5 µL of a 1:10 dilution of Taq
d. 2 µL

Answer 30

Use VCVC to determine the volume of
enzyme:
0.01 50 = 5 x
x= (0.01 50)/5 = 0.1 µL
Option b would deliver 0.1 µL enzyme.

Question 31

Primer dimers result from

Answer 31

Primer dimmers occur when primers hybridize to each other at the 3’ ends (option d).

Question 32

Which control is run to detect contamination in PCR?

Answer 32

A reaction mix with all components except template (reagent blank, d) is used to
monitor for contamination.

Answer: Positive, negative, Molecular weight marker

Question 33

Nonspecific extra PCR products can result from
a. mispriming
b. high annealing temperatures
c. high agarose gel concentrations
d. omission of MgCl2 from the PCR

Answer 33

Nonspecific products occur when
primers bind to regions other than the intended
target (a). Omission of magnesium could possibly
produce mispriming but more likely will prevent enzyme function.

Question 34

Using which of the following is an appropriate way to
avoid PCR contamination?
a. High-fidelity polymerase
b. Hot-start PCR
c. A separate area for PCR setup
d. Fewer PCR cycles

Answer 34

A separate area for PCR setup

Question 35

What are the three steps of a standard PCR cycle?

Answer 35

The three steps of the PCR cycle are denaturation, annealing, and extension.

Question 36

How many copies of a target are made after 30 cycle of PCR?

Answer 36

2^30

Question 37

Which of the following is a method for purifying a
PCR product?
a. Treat with uracil N glycosylase.
b. Add divalent cations.
c. Put the reaction mix through a spin column.
d. Add DEPC.

Answer 37

Spin columns (c) are used to purify PCR products from other components of the reaction mix.

Question 38

In contrast to standard PCR, real-time PCR is
a. quantitative
b. qualitative
c. labor-intensive
d. sensitive

Answer 38

Quantitative

Question 39

In real-time PCR, fluorescence is not generated by
which of the following?
a. FRET probes
b. TaqMan probes
c. SYBR green
d. Tth polymerase

Answer 39

Tth polymerase (d) does not fluoresce.

Question 40

How does nested PCR differ from multiplex PCR?

Answer 40

Nested PCR requires two rounds of replication. Multiplex PCR is a single PCR reaction where more than one product is made using
multiple primer sets

Question 41

What replaces heat denaturation in strand displacement amplification?

Answer 41

In strand displacement amplification, a nick in the double-stranded product is used to prime replication, rather than denaturation and primer binding.

Question 42

An unlabeled collection tube with a requisition for a factor V Leiden test is received in the laboratory.

Answer 42

Notify the supervisor and reject the specimen.

Question 43

After PCR, the amplification control has failed to yield a product.

Answer 43

Check the original DNA or RNA preparation. If it is adequate, repeat the amplification.
If not, reisolate the nucleic acid.

Question 44

An isolated DNA sample is to be stored for at least
6 months.

Answer 44

Store at –70°C in a tightly sealed tube.

Question 45

A bone marrow specimen arrives at the end of a shift
and will not be processed for the Bcl-2 translocation until the next day.

Answer 45

Place the specimen in the refrigerator.

Question 46

The temperature of a refrigerator set at 8°C (±2°C)
reads 14°C.

Answer 46

Recheck the temperature after a few hours. If it does not return to range, notify the supervisor.

Question 47

A PCR test for the BCR/ABL translocation was negative for the patient sample and for the sensitivity control.

Answer 47

Repeat the PCR with the addition of a new sensitivity control.

Question 48

A fragile X test result has been properly reviewed and reported

Answer 48

File the test results, documents, and associated autoradiographs together in the laboratory archives.

Question 49

A bottle of reagent alcohol with a 3 in the red diamond on its label is to be stored.

Answer 49

Place the alcohol bottle in a safety
storage cabinet for flammable liquids.

Question 50

The expiration date on a reagent has passed.

Answer 50

Discard the reagent. If it can be used for nonclinical purposes, label and store it in a separate area away from patient testing reagents.

Question 51

Test results are to be faxed to the ordering physician

Answer 51

Fax the results with a cover sheet containing the proper disclaimer.

Question 52

Among a group of properly labeled containers, there
is a container similar to the others, but unlabeled.

Answer 52

Do not use the material in the unlabeled container. Consult the institutional safety representative for proper disposal of the contents.

Question 53

A blood sample is received in a serum tube for PML-RARa testing by PCR

Answer 53

Notify the supervisor that the specimen cannot be tested and explain the collection error
(wrong/no anticoagulant).

Question 54

The laboratory is reporting a gene mutation replacing glycine at position 215 with alanine. The results are written 215G→A in the test report.

Answer 54

Correct the test report to A215G before verification by the laboratory director.

Question 55

The laser on a complex instrument malfunctions

Answer 55

Call the instrument manufacturer. Do not try to access the laser.

Question 56

A test result falls outside of the analytical measurement range of the validated method

Answer 56

If the result exceeds the range, dilute the specimen and retest. If the results are below
the range, report the results as less than the lower limit of the assay.

Question 57

Reference standards are reading higher than their designated concentrations.

Answer 57

Calibrate the instrument/detection system using the reference standards.

Question 58

A new FDA-approved test does not perform as expected

Answer 58

Do not use the test. Contact the manufacturer. Consider an alternate test system

Question 59

A solution containing radioactive waste has been
stored in a properly protected area for 10 half-lives
of the isotope.

Answer 59

The solution may be safely discarded;
however, contact the institutional safety department before discarding. Document all radioactive waste disposal.

Question 60

There is no available proficiency test for a new method developed in the laboratory.

Answer 60

Establish an agreement with another laboratory to trade samples for testing. Use
split samples from reference standards. Compare results with a reference in-house method,
regional pools, previously assayed material, clinical evaluation, or other documented means

Question 61

A research investigator asks for a patient specimen

Answer 61

Notify the supervisor. Do not release patient material without proper consent and
patient safety review board approval.

Question 62

What characteristic of the genetic code facilitates identification of open reading frames in DNA sequences?

Answer 62

Out-of-frame or chance coding sequences tend to be short, often ending in a stop codon

Question 63

Compare and contrast EIA with western blots for detection of protein targets

Answer 63

EIA is a liquid handling method and more easily automated than western blot. EIA is performed with immobilized antibodies exposed to test fluid. In western blot, antibodies or antigens are resolved by electrophoresis before exposure to test fluid.

Question 64

On a size exclusion column, large molecules
will elute _______________ (before/after) small
molecules.

Answer 64

before

Question 65

MALDI methods separate ions by
a. molecular volume
b. mass
c. charge
d. mass and charge

Answer 65

Mass and Charge

Question 66

What is a heteroduplex?

Answer 66

A heteroduplex is a double-stranded nucleic acid with one or more noncomplementary
bases.

Question 67

Which of the following methods would be practical to
use to screen a large gene for mutations?
a. SSP-PCR
b. SSCP
c. PCR-RFLP
d. DGGE
e. FP-TDI

Answer 67

DGGE (d) would be practical to use to screen a large gene for mutations as it can scan several hundred base pairs at a time.

SSCP is limited by the size and GC content of fragments that can be accurately analyzed. The remaining
methods are designed to detect known point
mutations

Question 68

What is the effect on the protein when a codon sequence is changed from TCT to TCC?

Answer 68

There would be no effect on the protein as both TCT and TCC code for serine.

Question 69

After an automated dye primer sequencing run, the
electropherogram displays consecutive peaks of the
following colors:
red, red, black, green, green, blue, black, red, green,
black, blue, blue, blue

Answer 69

TTGAACGTAGCCC

Question 70

A dideoxy sequencing electropherogram displays
bright (high, wide) peaks of fluorescence, obliterating
some of the sequencing peaks. What is the most likely
cause of this observation? How might it be corrected

Answer 70

The likely cause is the presence of unincorporated labeled dideoxynucleotides or dye
blobs. Cleaning the sequencing ladder with spin
columns, ethanol precipitation, or bead binding
will correct this problem

Question 71

In a manual sequencing reaction, the sequencing ladder on the polyacrylamide gel is very bright and read
able at the bottom of the gel, but the larger (slower migrating) fragments higher up are very faint. What is
the most likely cause of this observation? How might
it be corrected?

Answer 71

The loss of longer products is caused by an overly high dideoxynucleotide/deoxynucleotide
ratio. The problem can be corrected by lowering
the concentration of dideoxynucleotides in the
sequencing reaction.

Question 72

Which of the following is not next-generation
sequencing?
a. 454 sequencing
b. tiled microarray
c. SOLID system
d. Illumina Genome Analyzer

Answer 72

b. tiled microarray

Question 73

Which of the following projects would require mass array sequencing?
a. Mapping the hemochromatosis gene
b. Sequencing a viral genome
c. Characterization of a diverse microbial
population
d. Typing a single bacterial colony

Answer 73

Characterization of a diverse microbial population (c) would require high throughput
sequencing

Question 74

Which of the following genes would be analyzed
to determine whether an isolate of Staphylococcus
aureus is resistant to oxacillin?
a. mecA
b. gyrA
c. inhA
d. vanA

Answer 74

mecA. S. aureus developed resistance to antibiotics that target its penicillin-binding
protein (PBP1) by replacing PBP1 with PBP2a encoded by the mecA gene. PBP2a found in
methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) has a low binding affinity for methicillin.

Question 75

Which of the following is a genotypic method used
to compare two isolates in an epidemiological
investigation?
a. Biotyping
b. Serotyping
c. Ribotyping
d. Bacteriophage typing

Answer 75

Ribotyping

Question 76

For which of the following organisms must caution be
exercised when evaluating positive PCR results
because the organism can be found as normal flora in
some patient populations?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. HIV
c. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer 76

Streptococcus pneumoniae. Although PCR is specific for S. pneumoniae, the clinical significance of a positive PCR assay is question
able because a significant portion of the population (especially children) is colonized with the
organism and PCR cannot discern between colonization and infection.

Question 77

Which of the following controls are critical for ensuring that amplification is occurring in a patient sample and that the lack of PCR product is not due to the
presence of inhibitors?

Answer 77

Amplification control. The amplification control should always generate a product, even in the absence of the target.

Question 78

A PCR assay was performed to detect Bordetella per
tussis on sputum obtained from a 14-year-old girl who has had a chronic cough. The results revealed two bands, one consistent with the internal control and the other consistent with the size expected for amplification of the B. pertussis target. How should these
results be interpreted?

Answer 78

The girl has clinically significant B.
pertussis infection. Molecular-based assays are used almost exclusively for analysis of microorganisms such as N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis, and B. pertussis.

Question 79

Which of the following is a disadvantage of molecular
based testing?
a. Results stay positive longer after treatment than
do cultures.
b. Results are available within hours.
c. Only viable cells yield positive results.
d. Several milliliters of specimen must be submitted
for analysis.

Answer 79

Results stay positive longer after
treatment than do cultures. Molecular-based results can detect both living and dead organ
isms. A positive result due to dead or dying organisms complicates interpretation of
treatment efficacy.

Question 80

A molecular-based typing method that has high typing capacity, reproducibility and discriminatory
power, moderate ease of performance, and good
to-moderate ease of interpretation is
a. repetitive elements
b. PFGE
c. plasmid analysis
d. PCR-RFLP

Answer 80

PFGE

Question 81

A patient has antibodies against HCV and a viral
load of 100,000 copies/mL. What is the next test that
should be performed on this patient’s isolate?
a. Ribotyping
b. PCR-RFLP
c. Hybrid capture
d. Inno-LiPA HCV genotyping

Answer 81

Inno-LiPA HCV genotyping. The
viral load and the HCV genotype are used to determine the therapeutic protocol, both type
of drug(s) as well as duration. Methods available in the laboratory for HCV genotyping are PCR with RFLP analysis and reverse hybridization

Question 82

A positive result for HPV type 16 indicates
a. high risk for antibiotic resistance
b. low risk for cervical cancer
c. high risk for cervical cancer

Answer 82

High risk for cervical cancer. Of
the sexually transmitted types of HPV, 12 to 15 oncogenic genotypes have strong association
with cervical cancers and are considered high
risk (HR) HPV types.

Question 83

This method is recommended for smear preparations of bronchial aspirates and fresh sputum

A.Pull apart - serous fluid specimen
B. Smear preparation - blood smear
C. Touch preparation - aka impression technique
D. Spreading

Answer 83

Spreading

Question 84

Which of the ff concentration is ideal and preferred for
glutaraldehyde in immunoelectron microscopy?
A. 0.10%
B. 3% - associated conc
C. 10%
D. 0.25%

Answer 84

0.25%

Question 85

Fixation time can be cut down by using the ff, except:
A. Heat
B. Cold temp
C. Agitation
D. Microwave

Answer 85

Cold Temp

Question 86

The majority of non-fatty unfixed tissues are
sectioned well at temperatures between ___ and ____.

Answer 86

-10C, -25C

Question 87

Best fixative tissue for tissues containing iron
pigments?
A. Zenker’s Fluid - ginagamit more on the content of
mercury fluoride: liver, spleen, connective tissue
and nerve fiber
B. Formol corrosive - aka formol sublimate, belongs to
aldehyde fixative, preferably for post-mortem tissue
C. 10% Buffered Neutral Formal
D. Picric Acid - e

Answer 87

10% NBF

Question 88

What type of metallic fixative is specifically used for
Wharton’s jelly and umbilical cord?
A. Lead fixative - contains large amounts of
mucopolysaccharide, esp. Acid mucopolysaccharide
B. Mercuric Chloride fixative - damages integrity of
tissue, preferably umbilical cord
C. Chromate Fixative - for carbohydates
D. Picrate Fixative - for histones and basic proteins

Answer 88

Lead Fixative

Question 89

This section may be cut from tissues that have been
fixed and frozen with CO2 or for fresh tissues frozen
with a cryostat.
A. Celloidin section
B. Frozen section
C. Paraffin section
D. Gelatin section
E. NOTA

Answer 89

Frozen section

Question 90

Sections are not left on the water bath for a long time
due to:
A. To avoid undue expansion of the tissue
B. To avoid distortion of tissue
C. Both
D. NOTA

Answer 90

To avoid undue expansion of the tissue and to avoid distortion of the tissue
BOTH

Question 91

Brittle or hard tissues are caused by:
A. Prolonged fixation
B. Paraffin is too soft
C. Compress section
D. Sections are too thin
E. NOTA

Answer 91

Prolonged Fixation

Question 92

Select which among the ff is a common component
of an aqueous media together with its correct use
A. Glycerol-prevent cracking
B. Glycerin-prevent drying
C. Gum Arabic- increase Refractive Index
D. Sugar-solidify medium

Answer 92

Glycerol

Question 93

Which of the ff defined as the rapid freezing of tissue
A. Quenching
B. Desiccation - removal of ice water molecules
C. Sublimation - transferring of frozen tissue block
using a vacuum
D. NOTA

Answer 93

Quenching

Question 94

Process of removing ice water molecules
A. Quenching
B. Desiccation
C. Sublimation
D. NOTA

Answer 94

Dessication

Question 95

Special processing technique for histochemical
evaluation involving enzyme studies.
A. Freeze-drying
B. Freeze-substitution
C. Both
D. NOTA

Answer 95

NOTA - Special processing technique (?)
AOTA

Question 96

Prolonged decalcification of tissues is liable to ____
and lead to ____?

Answer 96

Prevent hydrolysis; macerate tissues

Question 97

It permits excellent staining, and is also suitable for
most routine surgical specimens but is relatively slow.
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Phloroglucin-Nitric Acid
C. Perenyi’s Fluid - 2-7 days but not excellent in
staining
D. Formic Acid - takes 2-7 days to decalcify
E. AOTA

Answer 97

Formic Acid

Question 98

What is the specific pH used for Citric-Acid-Citrate
Buffer solution?

Answer 98

A. 4.5 - to neutralize and protect specimen from the
acidic component of solution

Question 99

The following are disadvantages of Diethylene
Dioxide, except:
A. Expensive
B. Tend to ribbon poorly
C. Not miscible in xylol
D. Causes toxic action
E. NOTA

Answer 99

C. Not miscible in xylol - miscible dapat

Question 100

Connective tissues are subdivided into four
categories. One of these is cartilage. Which of the ff best
describe hyaline cartilage?
A. Found in external ear and epiglottis - external
B. Contains fibroblasts and chondrocytes -
fribrocartilage
C. Most common cartilage - hyaline: larynx, brocnhioles,
and nodules
D. Derived from areolar tissues - adipose tissues
E. AOTA

Answer 100

C. Most common cartilage - hyaline: larynx, bronchioles,
and nodules

Question 101

It is a semi-translucent, ground glass or hyaline
substance made up of chondroitin
A. Fibrin
B. Fibrinoid
C. Hyalin
D. Amyloid

Answer 101

D. Amyloid

Question 102

Open muscle biopsies are usually received from the
operating room in a surgical clamp for orientation and
divided in three parts. What specific segment is fixed in
glutaraldehyde and is submitted for electron
microscopy?
A. Middle segment
B. Small segment
C. Large segment
D. Remaining segment
E. NOTA

Answer 102

B. Small segment

Question 103

This type of glial cell represents the major
supporting cells in the brain.
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia - major phagocytic cell
C. Myelin - insulating layer that modifies nerve
conduction
D. Ependymal cell - located in the line of ventricles of
the brain

Answer 103

A. Astrocytes

Question 104

Clearing is done by:
A. 10 dips in alcohol
B. Gradual run through decreasing concentration of
alcohol
C. 2 changes of xylol, 2 hours each
D. 2 or 3 changes of xylene for 1 hour

Answer 104

D. 2 or 3 changes of xylene for 1 hour

Question 105

What is the appropriate requirement for the
transportation of specimens intended for frozen
sections?
A. Frozen within 4 hrs
B. Transported on formalin-dampened gauze
C. Transported on top of warm water
D. Transported on saline-dampened gauze
E. NOTA

Answer 105

D. Transported on saline-dampened gauze

Question 106

Freeze-drying may be used for special studies,
except:
A. Use of specialized silver stains
B. Scanning electron microscopy
C. Immunocytochemistry
D. Microspectrofluorimetry
E. NOTA

Answer 106

A. Use of specialized silver stains

Question 107

It is a special processing technique that can be used
when chemical fixation is to be avoided. It is a process
of dehydration through subjecting the frozen tissue to
Rossman’s formula or in 1% acetone.
A. Freeze-drying
B. Freeze-substitution
C. Cryostat
D. Formalin Fixation
E. AOTA

Answer 107

Freeze-substitution

Question 108

The ff are procedures done in teasing or
dissociation, except:
A. Forcibly compressing slide to another slide
B. Immersing the specimen in isotonic solution
C. Separating by direct or zigzag spread using
applicator stick
D. Transferred into a slide and mounted as a wet
preparation

Answer 108

A. Forcibly compressing slide to another slide - Crushing (Squash preparation

Question 109

The ff statements describe the process of fixation,
except:
A. Removal of calcium ions
B. Prevent autolysis and putrefaction
C. Preserve morphologic integrity of cell
D. Harden the tissue

Answer 109

A. Removal of calcium ions - Dehydration

Question 110

Metallic fixatives are one of the four major groups of
fixative and it includes the ff:
A. Formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde - aldehyde
B. Mercuric chloride, picric acid
C. Osmium tetroxide, potassium permanganate -
oxidizing fixative
D. Methanol, ethanol - alcohol-based fixative

Answer 110

B. Mercuric chloride, picric acid

Question 111

Select which among the ff association between
difficulties by improper fixation and its cause is correct:
A. Tissue blocks are brittle; prolonged fixation
B. Removal of substances soluble in fixing agents;
incomplete washing of fixative
C. Presence of artefact pigments on tissue sections;
wrong choice of fixative
D. Shrinkage and swelling of cells; incomplete fixation

Answer 111

A. Tissue blocks are brittle; prolonged fixation

Question 112

It is an example of decalcifying agent that decalcifies
and soften tissues at the same time.
A. Phloroglucin-nitric acid - decalcifying soln
B. Molliflex - softener only
C. Perenyi’s fluid
D. Neutral EDTA

Answer 112

C. Perenyi’s fluid

Question 113

Choose the answer with the correct association
between the difficulties encountered and its cause or the
fault that is made
A. Frozen tissue chips into fragments when cut;
freezing is not adequate
B. Frozen tissue crumbles and comes off the block
holder when cut; tissue is frozen too much
C. Tissue shrinks away from wax when trimmed;
insufficient infiltration
D. Tissue is opaque and there is presence of alcohol;
insufficient clearing

Answer 113

D. Tissue is opaque and there is presence of alcohol;
insufficient clearing

Question 114

During the handling and fixation of specimens, there
are general precautions that are needed to be followed.
One of the precautions is to avoid slow freezing because
this may cause:
A. Formation of ice crystal artefacts
B. Damage to cellular organelles
C. Release enzymes
D. Diffuse soluble components of the cell

Answer 114

A. Formation of ice crystal artefacts

Question 115

Which of the ff will affect the speed of penetration of
the clearing agent?
A. Temperature
B. Viscosity
C. PH
D. AOTA

Answer 115

B. Viscosity

Question 116

Which of the following is paired correctly?
a. Presence of artifact pigments on tissue
sections - incomplete fixation (Incomplete washing of fixative dapat)
b. Tissue blocks are brittle and hard -
incomplete fixation (Prolonged fixation)
c. Tissue are soft and feather like in
consistency - incomplete fixation
d. Shrinkage and swelling of cells and tissue
structure - incomplete fixation (Overfixation)

Answer 116

c. Tissue are soft and feather like in
consistency - incomplete fixation

Question 117

What type of metallic fixative is specifically used in
wharton’s jelly and umbilical cord?
a. Lead fixative - contains large amounts of
mucopolysaccharide, esp. Acid mucopolysaccharide
b. Mercuric Chloride fixative - damages integrity of tissue, preferably umbilical cord
c. Chromate Fixative - for carbohydates
d. Picrate Fixative - for histones and basic
proteins

Answer 117

a. Lead fixative - contains large amounts of
mucopolysaccharide, esp. Acid mucopolysaccharide

Question 118

The clearing agent turns milky as soon as the tissue
is placed in. What is the reason behind it?
a. Prolonged fixation
b. Incomplete fixation
c. Clearing agent is not completely removed
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

Answer 118

NOTA - Incomplete dehydration dapat

Question 119

Prolonged decalcification of tissues is liable to ___
and lead to ____
a. Good staining: Complete dehydration
b. Maceration of tissues: prevent hydrolysis
c. Prevent hydrolysis: macerate tissues
d. Complete dehydration: good staining

Answer 119

c. Prevent hydrolysis: macerate tissues

Question 120

What is the decalcifying agent that also acts as a
tissue softener?
a. Aqueous phenol solution
b. Perenyi’s fluid
c. Phloroglucin nitric acid
d. Moliflex

Answer 120

b. Perenyi’s fluid

Question 121

The most simple, reliable, and convenient way of
measuring the extent of decalcification
a. Chemical test
b. Radiological
c. Mechanical test
d. Physical test

Answer 121

A. Chemical test

Question 122

The very slow decalcifying agents
a. Ion exchange resins
b. Chelating agents
c. Acids
d. Electrical ionization

Answer 122

b. Chelating agents

Question 123

This is a type of decalcifying agent that may be
used as a simple solution with a recommended
concentration of 5 - 10%?
a. Trichloroacetic acid
b. Chromic acid
c. Nitric acid
d. Formic acid

Answer 123

d. Formic acid

Question 124

Fixation time can be cut down by using the following
except:
a. Heat
b. Cold temperature
c. Microwave
d. Agitation

Answer 124

b. Cold temperature

Question 125

This clearing agent can cause aplastic anemia
a. Benzene
b. Xylol
c. Toluene
d. Chloroform

Answer 125

a. Benzene

Question 126

It is a method whereby cut tissues, preferably fresh
are cut into pieces and brought into contact and
pressed to the surface of a clean slide
a. Spreading
b. Pull apart
c. Touch preparation
d. Smear preparation

Answer 126

c. Touch preparation

Question 127

The tissue is soft when the block is trimmed, what
causes this?
a. Incomplete embedding
b. Incomplete dehydration
c. Incomplete fixation
d. Incomplete clearing

Answer 127

c. Incomplete fixation

Question 128

Which of the following should not be done in the
cryostat procedure?
a. Slow freezing
b. Temperatures near -20C
c. Freezing quickly
d. Using fresh tissues for freezing

Answer 128

a. Slow freezing - Can produce Ice artifacts

Question 129

What causes the presence of artifact pigments on
tissue sections during fixation?
a. Wrong choice of fixative
b. Prolonged fixation
c. Incomplete washing of fixative
d. Incomplete fixation

Answer 129

c. Incomplete washing of fixative

Question 130

The commonly used concentration for
formaldehyde.
a. 0.10%
b. 0.25%
c. 3%
d. 10%

Answer 130

d. 10%

Question 131

Fixatives that may react with histones and basic
proteins -
a. Mercuric chloride fixative
b. Neutral buffer
c. Glutaraldehyde
d. Chromate fixative
e. NOTA

Answer 131

NONE OF THE ABOVE - PICRATES

Question 132

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a
good fixative
a. Permits rapid and even penetration of
tissues
b. Inhibits bacterial decomposition and
autolysis
c. Capable of removing calcium salts from
the tissue without considerable destruction
d. It must produce minimum shrinkage of
tissue

Answer 132

c. Capable of removing calcium salts from
the tissue without considerable destruction
Pang dehydration ‘yan lods!

Question 133

Which of the following is not a characteristics of
smooth muscle tissue
a. Arranged closely to form sheets
b. Spindle- shaped cells with central nuclei
c. Presence of intercalated discs
d. No striations

Answer 133

c. Presence of intercalated discs - Pang Skeletal muscle (Cardiac)

Question 134

The universal molecular fixative, known as UMFIX,
is a mixture of ___ and ___, and is an excellent and
cost-effective alternative to formalin.
a. Methanol: polyethylene glycol
b. Glutaraldehyde: aceton
c. Ethanol: glycerol
d. Picric acid: carbowax

Answer 134

a. Methanol: polyethylene glycol

Question 135

It is an apparatus used in fresh tissue microtomy?
a. Ultrathin microtome
b. Cryostat
c. Microtome
d. Electron microtomy

Answer 135

b. Cryostat

Question 136

What is the type/ form of fixation whereby a primary
fixed tissue is placed in an aqueous solution of 2.5
3% potassium dichromate for 24 hours?
a. Heat fixation
b. Post chromatization
c. Secondary fixation
d. Primary fixation

Answer 136

b. Post chromatization

Question 137

Which method of fresh tissue examination is used
for cancer diagnosis?
a. Crushing
b. Smear preparation
c. Frozen section
d. Ceasing

Answer 137

B. Smear preparation

Question 138

It is a special way of preserving tissues by
quenching and sublimation
a. Cryostat procedure
b. Freeze- substitution
c. Cold knife procedure
d. Freeze- drying

Answer 138

d. Freeze- drying

Question 139

All of the following has more than one function in
tissue processing, except:
a. Cetrahydrofuran
b. Acetone
c. Dioxane
d. Triethyl phosphate

Answer 139

D. Triethyl phosphate

Question 140

Which type of tissue can transmit electrical signals
from sensory receptors to effectors
a. Skeletal muscle tissue
b. Connective tissue
c. Cardiac muscle tissue
d. Epithelial tissue
e. NOTA

Answer 140

Nervous tissue - NOTA

Question 141

50-70% alcohol is used to wash which type of
fixative?
a. Picric acid
b. Formalin
c. Osmic acid
d. Mercury chloride

Answer 141

Picric acid and Bouins

Question 142

A type of fresh tissue examination that allows cells
to be transferred directly to a slide for examination
of phase contrast microscopy without destroying the
intracellular relationship
a. Pull apart
b. Streaking
c. Squash preparation
d. Impression smear

Answer 142

d. Impression smear

Question 143

This section is normally utilized when a rapid
diagnosis of the tissue is required
a. Plastic section
b. Frozen section
c. Paraffin section
d. Celloidin section
e. Stat section

Answer 143

Frozen Section! Alam na alam mo ‘yan buddybear!

Question 144

Best fixative for tissues containing iron pigments
a. 10% BNF
b. Formol corrosive
c. Zenker’s fluid
d. Picric acid

Answer 144

10% NBF

Question 145

Uses an “en bloc” technique
a. Virchow
b. Letulle
c. Gohn
d. Rokitansky

Answer 145

Gohn

Virchow - one by one
Lettulle - en mass
Rokitansky - in situ

Question 146

Term used for the change in body temperature after
death until it reaches the ambient temperature
a. Post mortem
b. Livor mortis
c. Putrefaction
d. Algor mortis

Answer 146

d. Algor mortis

Question 147

Which of the following is the primary preliminaries
for post mortem examination?
a. Written consent from the next of kin-abide
by the extent of restrictions allowed
b. Death certificate (blue form)
c. Medical abstract/ clinical data
d. Medicolegal clearance
i. 1 and 4
ii. 1 amd 2
iii. 1, 2 and 3
iv. AOTA

Answer 147

iv. AOTA

Question 148

Which of the following is correct about the post
mortem examination?
a. After death examination of the body and
dissection of its internal organs to confirm
or determine the cause of death
b. Autopsy can uncover the existence of
diseases not detected during life
c. Determine the extent of injuries may have
contributed to a person’s death
d. Autopsy can cover the existence of
disease that are detected during life
e. Determine the extent of injuries that may
not have contributed to a person’s death
i. 1 and 5
ii. 3 and 4
iii. 1, 2 and 3
iv. 1 and 4

Answer 148

1 and 4!

Question 149

POther term for “livor mortis” which is the settling of
the blood lower portion of the body
a. Bruising
b. Condensation
c. Suggillation
d. AOTA

Answer 149

c. Suggillation

Question 150

This section may be cut from tissues that have been
fixed and frozen with CO2 or for fresh tissues frozen
with a cryostat.
A. Celloidin section
B. Frozen section
C. Paraffin section
D. Gelatin section
E. NOTA

Answer 150

Frozen section

Question 151

Sections are not left on the water bath for a long time
due to:
A. To avoid undue expansion of the tissue
B. To avoid distortion of tissue
C. Both
D. NOTA

Answer 151

To avoid undue expansion of the tissue and to avoid distortion of the tissue
BOTH

Question 152

Select which among the ff is a common component
of an aqueous media together with its correct use
A. Glycerol-prevent cracking
B. Glycerin-prevent drying
C. Gum Arabic- increase Refractive Index
D. Sugar-solidify medium

Answer 152

Glycerol

Question 153

What is the specific pH used for Citric-Acid-Citrate
Buffer solution?

Answer 153

A. 4.5 - to neutralize and protect specimen from the
acidic component of solution

Question 154

It is a semi-translucent, ground glass or hyaline
substance made up of chondroitin
A. Fibrin
B. Fibrinoid
C. Hyalin
D. Amyloid

Answer 154

D. Amyloid

Question 155

Open muscle biopsies are usually received from the
operating room in a surgical clamp for orientation and
divided in three parts. What specific segment is fixed in
glutaraldehyde and is submitted for electron
microscopy?
A. Middle segment
B. Small segment
C. Large segment
D. Remaining segment
E. NOTA

Answer 155

B. Small segment

Question 156

This type of glial cell represents the major
supporting cells in the brain.
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia - major phagocytic cell
C. Myelin - insulating layer that modifies nerve
conduction
D. Ependymal cell - located in the line of ventricles of
the brain

Answer 156

A. Astrocytes

Question 157

Clearing is done by:
A. 10 dips in alcohol
B. Gradual run through decreasing concentration of
alcohol
C. 2 changes of xylol, 2 hours each
D. 2 or 3 changes of xylene for 1 hour

Answer 157

D. 2 or 3 changes of xylene for 1 hour

Question 158

Choose the answer with the correct association
between the difficulties encountered and its cause or the
fault that is made
A. Frozen tissue chips into fragments when cut;
freezing is not adequate
B. Frozen tissue crumbles and comes off the block
holder when cut; tissue is frozen too much
C. Tissue shrinks away from wax when trimmed;
insufficient infiltration
D. Tissue is opaque and there is presence of alcohol;
insufficient clearing

Answer 158

D. Tissue is opaque and there is presence of alcohol;
insufficient clearing

Question 159

Which of the ff will affect the speed of penetration of
the clearing agent?
A. Temperature
B. Viscosity
C. PH
D. AOTA

Answer 159

B. Viscosity

Question 160

This clearing agent can cause aplastic anemia
a. Benzene
b. Xylol
c. Toluene
d. Chloroform

Answer 160

a. Benzene

Question 161

Dirty knife edge can cause this fault

Answer 161

Sections roll up

Question 162

Sections adhere to knife or other parts of the microtome can be caused by? Except:

Knife edge is dirty
Knife edge is dull
Knife is too high
Knife tilt is too low

Answer 162

Knife tilt is too low

Question 163

Celloidin section does cut come off in ribbons

Answer 163

False

Do not come off in ribbons dapat

Question 164

Ultrathin microtome is widely known for cutting sections for electron microtome. What is the specific type of knives used in this type of microtome

Answer 164

Diamond knives

Question 165

Optimum temperature of the water bath that is used to float tissue cut from the microtome

Answer 165

45-50C

Question 166

For proper cutting, specific clearance angle must be used. Which of the ff angle is considered as the most effective

Answer 166

0-15 degrees

Question 167

Process in histotechnology involves trimming and cutting embedded tissues into uniformly thin slices or sections

Answer 167

Microtomy

Question 168

Kind of microtome that is ideal to use for unembedded frozen section

Answer 168

Freezing microtome

Question 169

Microtome for paraffin embedded tissue

Answer 169

Rocking microtome for large and rotary for small

Question 170

Microtome for celloidin sections

Answer 170

Sliding microtome

Question 171

There are certain safety measures in handling the microtome to avoid accidents. What safety measure could be done to avoid getting injured when changing blocks?

Answer 171

Use hand wheel lock

Question 172

What kind of microtome knife is used for cutting
resin blocks for electron microscopy?

Answer 172

Diamond knives

Question 173

Which of the ff are important measures that are needed to be performed after embedding the tissue blocks and solidifying the paraffin wax, except:

Take out both the thin and thick sections
Remove the wax Block from the mold
Note the identification number
Cut off the excess wax

Answer 173

Take out both the thin and thick sections

Question 174

Becomes milky when incomplete dehydration

Answer 174

Xylene

Question 175

What factor should be met when doing the floatation of section

Answer 175

Water should be free from bubbles

Question 176

Celloidin embedding is another technique besides paraffin embedding. Compared with paraffin embedding, what could be its advantage in tissue processing?

Answer 176

Completely avoids the use of heat

Question 177

Possible reason why there is an uneven or unequal
thickness of the sections produced
a. Clamp set screw on knife or block holder is loose
b. Blocks are too large
c. Tilt of knife is too great
d. Blocks are too hard
e. AOTA
f. NOTA

Answer 177

Tilt of knife is too great

Question 178

Part of microtome where tissue is held in position

Answer 178

Block holder

Question 179

Most dangerous type of microtome due to the movable exposed knife

Answer 179

Standard-sliding microtome

Question 180

Biconcave and plane-concave knifes are both used for paraffin sections. THe less concave side of plane-concave knife is used for celloidin embedded tissue blocks

Answer 180

Both statement are correct

Plane concave - celloidin
Biconcave - paraffin
-Glass and diamond knives - EM

Question 181

The static electricity is due to low atmospheric
humidity because of

Answer 181

Sections adhere to the knife
Knife edge is dull
Knife tilt is too great
knife edge is dirty

AOTA

Question 182

A type of block-out mold that is made up of interlocking plates resting on flat metal base

Answer 182

Compound embedding unit

Two L-Shaped brass arranged on a flat metal - Leuckhart’s
Special stainless steel base mold fitted with plastic - Plastic embedded rings and base mold

Question 183

Apparatus used in fresh tissue microtomy

Answer 183

Cryostat

Question 184

Double embedding is done by infiltrating tissue with ____ then _____

Answer 184

Celloidin - paraffin

Question 185

A process in which the edge of the coverslip is sealed

Answer 185

Ringing

Question 186

Removal of gross nick on the knife edge to remove blemishes and grinding the cutting edge of the knife on a stone

Answer 186

Honing - heel to toe
Types of honing:
Belgium yellow - Manual sharpening when cutting edge has been rendered blunt
Arkansas - Gives more polishing effect
Fine carborundum - much coarser

Stropping is removing the “burr” - toe to heel

Question 187

Type of processing where impregnation can be performed involves wax impregnation under negative atmospheric pressure

Answer 187

Vacuum embedding

Question 188

Method of staining that is responsible for the staining of living cells by INJECTING the dye into any part of the animal body

Answer 188

Intravital staining

Question 189

Microtome should be covered when no one is using it to avoid accumulation of dust and dirt all over the machine which may interfere with the normal sectioning of tissue

Answer 189

True

Question 190

Application of different color stain to provide contrast and background

Answer 190

Metachromic staining

Question 191

Vegetable dye extracted from certain LICHENS which are normally colorless and is mainly used for staining elastic fibers

Answer 191

Orcein

Question 192

Serves as a link or bridge between the tissue and the dye

Answer 192

Mordant

Question 193

The blockholder moves the block holder either towards the knife or away from the knife

Answer 193

Coarse handwheel

Question 194

Most common staining method utilized for microanatomical studies of tissues

Answer 194

H and E

Question 195

Process by which an active coloring agent is formed by the oxidation of hematoxylin

Answer 195

Ripening

Question 196

Substances with define atomic grouping and are capable of producing visible colors

Answer 196

Chromopores

Question 197

A good regressive stain used in nuclear staining , in exfoliative cytology and for staining of sex chromosomes

Answer 197

Harris hematoxylin

Question 198

Process whereby the tissue constituents are demonstrated in section by direct interaction with a dye producing coloration of the active tissue component

Answer 198

Histological staining

Question 199

Medium used for methylene blue-stained nerve preparation and as a general purpose aqueous mountant

Answer 199

Apathy’s medium

Question 200

Cant be used for the preparation of body cavity effusion except:
10% formalin
70% ethanol
Sodium citrate
Heparin

Answer 200

Heparin

CANT BE USED FOR BODY CAVITY EFFUSION YUNG 10%F, 70% ETHANOL, and SODIUM CITRATE

Question 201

Exfoliative cytology is recommended for the

Answer 201

Detection of precancerous cervical lesions

Question 202

Papanicolau method uses the following stains except:

Harris hematoxylin
OG6
Eosin azure 60
AOTA

Answer 202

Eosin azure 60

EA-65 is used
EA50 for gynecological

Question 203

Papanicolaou method has the following advantages
except:
a. Excellent nuclear staining is identified
b. Transparent pink staining of cytoplasm
allows overlapping cells to be identified
c. Color range is predictable and of great
value in classification of cells
d. Valuable in comparing cellular
appearances in smears with their
counterpart

Answer 203

b. Transparent pink staining of cytoplasm
allows overlapping cells to be identified

Question 204

It is the junction of endocervical mucosa where the majority of cervical carcinoma arises

Answer 204

T-zone (transformation zone)

Question 205

Saccomano preservative is made up of:
a. 95% alcohol
b. 50% alcohol
c. Ether
d. Carbowax
i. 1 and 2
ii. 2 and 4
iii. 1, 2 and 3
iv. 1 and 4

Answer 205

2 and 4
50% alcohol and Carbowax

Question 206

BOAT shaped cells with FOLD ON EDGES

Answer 206

Navicular cells

Question 207

Used for hormonal evaluation

Answer 207

Lateral vaginal scrape

Question 208

All of the following are true about parabasal except:
a. Round to oval cells
b. 45-50 um
c. Smaller than intermediate cells
d. Found after menopause

Answer 208

45-50um

Mature superficial cell yan

15-30 parabasal

Question 209

True acidophilia is a characteristic of superficial vaginal cells under ___ influence

Answer 209

Estrogen

ESPI -Estrogen = Superficial cells
Progesterone = Intermediate cells

Question 210

Which of the following is/ are true regarding periodic
acid schiff?
a. Produces a red magenta/ purplish pink color
b. Intensity of reaction is directly proportional
to the sugar content
c. Specific for glycol/ glycol amino group
d. Oxidizes 1,2 glycol group of
polysaccharides and mucin

Answer 210

a. Produces a red magenta/ purplish pink color

Question 211

Complex, water-soluble phtalocyanine dye used for acid mucopolysaccharide

Answer 211

Alcian blue

Question 212

This method of staining bone is based on the
deposition of thionin precipitate within the lacunae
and bone canaliculi using 0.125% thionin.

Answer 212

Scmorl’s spicro-thionin method

Question 213

chief solvents used for stains

Answer 213

Ethyl alcohol and Phenol

Question 214

Which of the following statements is true regarding
sputum smear preparation?
a. Obtain at least 2 consecutive morning
sputum specimen
b. Collect early morning sputum by a deep
cough in a wide-mouthed jar containing
50% ethyl alcohol and 2% carbowax
c. Absence of alveolar macrophages
suggests unsatisfactory specimen
d. Due to the hardening effect of alcohol,
specimen fixed in said solution should be
sent to the laboratory and smears should
be made without delay

Answer 214

b. Collect early morning sputum by a deep
cough in a wide-mouthed jar containing
50% ethyl alcohol and 2% carbowax
c. Absence of alveolar macrophages
suggests unsatisfactory specimen
d. Due to the hardening effect of alcohol,
specimen fixed in said solution should be
sent to the laboratory and smears should
be made without delay

Question 215

Which of the following statements is false regarding
smear preparation of breast secretion
a. Cytologic examination of nipple discharge
has an extremely low diagnostic yield for
the diagnosis of breast carcinoma.
b. Spontaneous nipple discharge is usually a
result of hormonal imbalance in young
patients, and when the secretion is bloody
a benign intraductal papilloma should be
considered clinically.
c. The nipple discharge is usually due to a
benign breast lesion such as duct ectasia
and papilloma, or due to endocrine
problems.
d. Place the labeled slide upon the nipple and
draw it quickly across the nipple. If more
than a drop is collected, use another slide
to smear with a spreading technique..
e. Secretions obtained from both breasts can
be put in the same slide.

Answer 215

d. Place the labeled slide upon the nipple and
draw it quickly across the nipple. If more
than a drop is collected, use another slide
to smear with a spreading technique..

e. Secretions obtained from both breasts can
be put in the same slide.

Question 216

Which of the following describes lysochromes
a. Water soluble dyes
b. Do not contain auxochrome
c. Natural dye
d. Strongly stains proteins
e. AOTA

Answer 216

Does not contain auxochrome

Question 217

It is an aqueous detergent, used for mounting
sections, that is diluted in 1:10 distilled water
a. poly-L-lysine
b. Dried albumin
c. Starch paste
d. APES

Answer 217

a. poly-L-lysine

Question 218

This is an acidic dye that stains a basic group of
tissues, particularly basic proteins and histones
a. Alkaline fast green
b. Phosphates
c. Gomori calcium method
d. Peraceticalcian blue

Answer 218

Alkaline fast green

Question 219

All of the following are stains used for collagen
except:
a. Van gieson’s stain
b. Mallory’s stain
c. Feulgen technique
d. Azocarmine method

Answer 219

Feulgen technique

Question 220

Which of the following statements are considered
unsatisfactory for interpretation,and recommended
for repeat collection of the cervicovaginal samples,
except
a. If there is an Inadequate number of
parabasal cells
b. If there is an adequate number of cells
from the T-zone
c. Specimen submitted is without a
requisition
d. Less than 50% of the cells obscures
contain blood or inflammation cells and squamous
e. Endocervical cells and squamous metaplastic cells are not seen

Answer 220

B and D

Question 221

Staining method of choice for exfoliative cytology
a. Giemsa stain
b. Papanicolaou stain
c. Romanowsky stain
d. Wright-Giemsa stain

Answer 221

b. Papanicolaou stain

Question 222

Cajal’s Gold sublimate method is used for

Answer 222

Astrocytes

Question 223

Which of the following materials are usually seen in the pap’s smear of diabetic patient

Answer 223

YEAST

Question 224

First sudan dye to be introduced into histochemistry

Answer 224

Sudan III

Question 225

Which of the following involves the oxidation of
methylene blue, resulting in loss of methyl group
and leaving lower homologues of the dye and de
aminized oxidation products.
a. Accentuating
b. Mordanting
c. Blueing
d. Polychroming

Answer 225

d. Polychroming

Question 226

Which of the following stain the Cryptococcus
neoformans
a. Southgate mucicarmine techniques
b. Levaditi’s method
c. Lendrum’s method
d. Orcein Method

Answer 226

Southgate mucicarmine techniques

Question 227

The most Common aqueous mounting media used
are the following EXCEPT:
a. Water
b. Farrant’s Medium
c. Glycerin
d. Canada Balsam

Answer 227

Canada balsam

Question 228

What aqueous mounting medium has the substance
Sodium Merthiolate in their formula?
a. Brun’s Fluid
b. Farrant’s medium
c. Apathy’s Medium
d. Glycerin

Answer 228

b. Farrant’s medium

Question 229

Which among the following is the most commonly
used adhesive?
a. Starch Paste
b. Gelatin (1%)
c. Mayer’s Egg Albumin
d. Dried Albumin

Answer 229

c. Mayer’s Egg Albumin

Question 230

Which of the following is used as a methods of
staining axons and neuronal processes by using a
primary “ sensitizing” solution?
a. Bodian’s stain
b. Bielschowsky’s Techniques

Answer 230

b. Bielschowsky’s Techniques

Question 231

Iron Hematoxylin
a. Enhances the combination of the dye with the nucleus
b. Colors the nucleus black
c. Used for progressive staining
d. All of the above
e. A and B

Answer 231

e. A and B

Question 232

Which of the following are true of staining, except?
a. Shows a hypochromic characteristic for neoplastic and malignant cells
b. It is the process that renders the different tissue components more visible through variation in color
c. Promotes easier optical differentiation
d. Accomplished by the use of dyes and stains

Answer 232

a. Shows a hypochromic characteristic for neoplastic and malignant cells