Preflight Flashcards

1
Q

How many hours of cross-country flight time as PIC are required for an instrument rating?

A

50 hours, with 10 hours in an airplane.

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2
Q

How many hours of actual or simulated instrument time are required for an instrument rating?

___ hours, with ___ hours from an authorized instructor.

A

40 hours, with 15 hours from an authorized instructor.

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3
Q

What specific instrument flight training is required within 2 calendar months before the practical test for an instrument rating?

A

3 hours of instrument flight training in an airplane appropriate to the instrument-airplane rating.

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4
Q

What are the cross-country flight requirements for an instrument rating?

A

A cross-country flight of 250 NM with an authorized instructor under IFR, with a flight plan filed, involving an instrument approach at each airport and 3 different kinds of approaches.

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5
Q

When is an instrument rating required for a pilot?

“I Can Always See Clear Night Conditions”

I.
C.
At night (when carrying passengers for hire over ___ NM)
S___________ ___________ (between sunset and sunrise)
Conditions below _____________ WX minimums
N.

A

IFR (Instrument Flight Rules)
Class A airspace
At night (when carrying passengers for hire over 50 NM)
Special VFR (between sunset and sunrise)
Conditions below VFR WX minimums
Night (when carrying passengers for hire)

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6
Q

What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC under IFR?

A

A flight review, 3 takeoffs and landings in the last 90 days, and within the last 6 months: 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting/tracking courses.

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7
Q

Can a pilot use a flight training device for IFR currency without an instructor present?

A

Yes, as long as the device represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges.

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8
Q

Is an instructor required when using a flight simulator for acquiring instrument aeronautical experience?

A

Yes, an authorized instructor must be present to observe and verify the time and content.

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9
Q

How can a pilot regain instrument currency if it has lapsed for over 6 months? (Past the grace period)

A

By completing an instrument proficiency check with an examiner, authorized instructor, or FAA-approved person.

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10
Q

What is the difference between being “current” and being “proficient” as a pilot?

A

“Current” means meeting minimum FAA requirements, while “proficient” means being capable and competent in conducting a flight.

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11
Q

What qualifications must a safety pilot have?

A

At least a private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings and an appropriate medical certificate. If under IFR, the safety pilot must hold an instrument rating and be instrument current.

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12
Q

Can a BasicMed authorized pilot act as a safety pilot?

A

Only if the pilot is acting as PIC.

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13
Q

Can an instrument-rated pilot fly IFR under BasicMed?

A

Yes, as long as the aircraft is approved for IFR operations and the pilot holds an instrument rating and is instrument current.

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14
Q

When can a pilot log instrument time?

A

When operating the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument conditions.

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15
Q

What should be included in each logbook entry when logging instrument time?

A

The location and type of each instrument approach and the name of the safety pilot, if required.

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16
Q

What conditions must exist to log “actual” instrument flight time?

A

Operating solely by reference to instruments under IMC conditions.

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17
Q

What is the definition of “flight time”?

Pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own _____________ for flight and ends when the aircraft comes to _______________ after landing.

A

Pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.

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18
Q

What requirements must be met before a pilot can log an instrument approach for currency or training?

A

The pilot must operate solely by reference to instruments and be established on each required segment to the MDA or DA/DH.

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19
Q

What are the four methods to conduct and log instrument approaches (IAPs)?

___________ instrument conditions,
_____________ instrument conditions with a _____________ pilot,
_____________ instrument conditions in an FAA-approved device,
Or a _____________ of these methods.

A

Actual instrument conditions,
Simulated instrument conditions with a safety pilot,
Simulated instrument conditions in an FAA-approved device,
or a combination of these methods.

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20
Q

Is it required to fly the entire approach procedure to log it for currency?

A

No, if radar vectored to the final approach course or cleared by ATC, the pilot can log the IAP.

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21
Q

Does the FAA require the ceiling to be at MDA or DA/DH to log an IAP in IMC?

A

No, the pilot can log the IAP if transitioning from IMC to VMC or executing a missed approach at MAP or DA/DH.

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22
Q

What does the PAVE checklist help pilots assess during preflight?

A

Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, and External pressures.

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23
Q

How does a “personal minimums” checklist help a pilot?

A

It helps control risk by setting limits unique to the pilot’s experience and proficiency.

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24
Q

What must a pilot-in-command be familiar with before an IFR flight?

A

NOTAMs, weather, traffic delays, runway lengths, alternatives, fuel requirements, performance data (NWKRAFT).

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25
Q

What are the fuel requirements for IFR flight?

A

Enough fuel to the first airport of intended landing, then to an alternate, plus 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

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26
Q

What checks should be made before an IFR flight using GPS?

**“I Don’t Need Really Good Navigation Guidance”
**

Each word corresponds to a key check:

**I **-
D -
**N **-
R -
G -
**N **-)

A

I - Installation (Verify GPS installation)
D - Database (Database currency)
N - NOTAMs (Review NOTAMs)
R - RAIM (RAIM availability)
G - Ground-based NAVAIDs (Ground-based NAVAIDs status)
N - Navigation Guidance (Ensure GPS manuals are onboard)

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27
Q

What is RAIM and its function?

A

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring ensures adequate GPS signals and alerts the pilot if they do not meet safe navigation criteria.

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28
Q

When is a RAIM check required for non-WAAS equipped aircraft?

A

Before IFR flight to ensure GPS RAIM availability for the intended route.

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29
Q

When is a RAIM check required for WAAS-equipped aircraft?

A

When flying outside the U.S. or where WAAS coverage is not available.

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30
Q

What should be done if there is a predicted RAIM outage of more than 5 minutes?

A

Delay, cancel, or reroute the flight to meet RAIM requirements.

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31
Q

Name one method to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirement.

A

Contact a Flight Service Station for RAIM information.

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32
Q

Name another method to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirement.

A

Use the FAA Service Availability Prediction Tool (SAPT).

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33
Q

Name a third method to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirement.

A

Use a third-party interface incorporating FAA RAIM prediction data.

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34
Q

Name a fourth method to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirement.

A

Use the receiver’s installed RAIM prediction capability.

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35
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is airworthy?

A

The pilot-in-command.

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36
Q

What instruments and equipment are required for IFR operations?

A

Generator/alternator, radios, sensitive altimeter, ball, clock, attitude indicator, rate of turn, directional gyro, DME/RNAV (FL240+).

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37
Q

What inspections are required for an aircraft used in IFR operations?

A

Annual, AD compliance, VOR check (30 days), 100-hour (if for hire/instruction), altimeter/static (24 months), transponder (24 months), ELT (12 months).

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38
Q

How do you determine if an aircraft without an MEL is airworthy with inoperative equipment?

A

Check if the equipment is required by VFR-day type certification, KOEL, 14 CFR 91.205, or ADs.

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39
Q

Can portable electronic devices be operated on an aircraft?

A

Not on air carrier/commercial aircraft or under IFR, except certain devices like voice recorders and pacemakers.

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40
Q

Are electronic flight bags (EFBs) approved for use instead of paper charts?

A

Yes, if the information is current, up-to-date, and a backup is available.

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41
Q

What documents are required on board an aircraft before flight?

A

Airworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, Radio Station License (if international), Operating Limitations, Weight and Balance, Compass Deviation Card, External Data Plate/Serial Number.

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42
Q

What additional documentation is required for an aircraft with IFR-approved GPS?

A

Airplane Flight Manual Supplement and Cockpit Reference Guide.

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43
Q

How often must GPS databases be updated?

A

Navigation database every 28 days, obstacle database every 56 days, terrain/airport maps as needed.

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44
Q

Can a GPS with an expired database be used for IFR navigation? What specifically can’t it be used for?

A

For enroute IFR operations, if waypoints are verified against a current source. Not for IFR approaches.

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45
Q

Can pilots update GPS databases themselves?

A

Yes, if updates can be done from the flight deck without tools or disassembly.

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46
Q

Is an alternate means of navigation required for IFR GPS navigation?

A

Yes, for non-WAAS equipment; WAAS receivers do not require additional equipment.

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47
Q

How can a pilot determine the approved operations for a GPS receiver?

A

Refer to the FAA-approved AFM and AFM supplements.

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48
Q

Can handheld GPS receivers be used for IFR operations?

A

No, they are only for situational awareness during IFR.

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49
Q

What is the function of static discharge wicks on an aircraft?

They reduce ____________ interference from corona discharge caused by precipitation static.

A

They reduce radio interference from corona discharge caused by precipitation static.

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50
Q

When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan?

A

Prior to departure from within or entering controlled airspace if weather is below VFR minimums.

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51
Q

When is it mandatory to use the ICAO flight plan format?

For RNAV __________ and _____________, all IFR flights ______________ and recommended for domestic IFR flights.

A

For RNAV SIDs and STARs, all IFR flights** departing U.S. airspace,** and recommended for domestic IFR flights.

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52
Q

When will ATC delete a departure flight plan not activated?

A

A minimum of 2 hours after the proposed departure time or EDCT.

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53
Q

When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?

A

Anytime in VFR conditions outside Class A airspace.

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54
Q

Can you depart VFR and pick up your IFR clearance in the air?

A

Yes, but you must maintain VFR, terrain, and obstruction clearance until IFR clearance is received.

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55
Q

What altitude does the requested altitude on an IFR flight plan represent?

A

The planned cruising level for the first or entire portion of the route.

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56
Q

What does the planned cruise speed on an ICAO flight plan represent?

A

The true airspeed for the first or whole cruising portion of the flight.

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57
Q

What are the alternate airport requirements for IFR flight?

A

1-2-3 Rule: If 2,000 ft ceiling and 3 SM visibility from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, no alternate needed; otherwise, alternate minimums apply.

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58
Q

How do you determine forecast weather at ETA if there’s no Terminal Area Forecast?

A

Use the Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA) and the Zulu Time slider bar.

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59
Q

Do you need to file an alternate if your destination has no instrument approach procedure but the weather is good?

A

Yes, an alternate must be filed if there is no published instrument approach at the destination.

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60
Q

Does ATC know your filed alternate airport?

A

No, alternate information is not presented to controllers. You can divert to a different alternate than filed.

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61
Q

What is the definition of “ceiling”?

The ___________ above the ____________ surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as __________, ____________, or _____________.

A

The height above the Earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as broken, overcast, or obscuration.

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62
Q

What minimums are used on arrival at the alternate airport?

A

The minimums specified in the published instrument approach procedure for that airport.

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63
Q

What restriction applies to filing an alternate with non-WAAS GPS equipment?

A

The alternate must have an approach procedure that does not require the use of GPS.

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64
Q

What approaches can you plan to use at the alternate with WAAS equipment?

A

Any approach authorized for WAAS avionics, with certain restrictions.

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65
Q

What restrictions apply to using WAAS avionics at the alternate airport?

Flight planning must use __________ or ___________ minima, or non-precision minima for conventional approaches with “or ____” in the title.

A

Flight planning must use LNAV or circling minima, or non-precision minima for conventional approaches with “or GPS” in the title.

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66
Q

What are preferred routes and where can they be found?

A

Routes between busier airports to increase system efficiency, listed in the Chart Supplement U.S.

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67
Q

What information do Enroute Low-Altitude Charts provide?

Navigation under IFR below _______ feet MSL, revised every ____ days, with magnetic courses and nautical mile distances.

A

Navigation under IFR below 18,000 feet MSL, revised every 56 days, with magnetic courses and nautical mile distances.

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68
Q

What information do Enroute High-Altitude Charts provide?

Navigation at or above 18,000 feet MSL, including ___________ routes, ____________ NAVAIDs, selected airports, revised every ____ days.

A

Navigation at or above 18,000 feet MSL, including jet routes, VHF NAVAIDs, selected airports, revised every 56 days.

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69
Q

What are area charts used for?

Showing ___________ terminal areas at a ____________ scale, included with subscriptions to U.S. Low charts, revised every ____ days.

A

Showing congested terminal areas at a large scale, included with subscriptions to U.S. Low charts, revised every 56 days.

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70
Q

Where can updated information about changes to aeronautical charts be found?

A

Chart Supplement U.S., published every 56 days.

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71
Q

What useful information for route planning can be found in the Chart Supplement U.S.?

“SPAG-FAV”

Special ____________
P____________ Routes
A____________ Frequencies
GPS ___ Routes
________ Frequencies
A____________ Chart Bulletins
V_____ Checkpoints

A

“SPAG-FAV”

Special Notices
Preferred Routes
ARTCC Frequencies
GPS Q Routes
FSS Frequencies
Aeronautical Chart Bulletins
VOR Checkpoints

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72
Q

How does a pilot determine the status of an instrument approach light system at the destination airport?

A

Check the Chart Supplement U.S. and NOTAMs or consult an FSS briefer.

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73
Q

What are NOTAMs?

____________-____________ ____________ information not known sufficiently in advance for chart publication, affecting flight decisions.

A

Time-critical aeronautical information not known sufficiently in advance for chart publication, affecting flight decisions.

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74
Q

What is a (D) NOTAM?

Information requiring wide ____________ via telecommunication, about enroute __________, ___________, __________, services, and procedures.

A

Information requiring wide dissemination via telecommunication, about enroute navaids, airports, facilities, services, and procedures.

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75
Q

What is an FDC NOTAM?

____________ flight information changes to __________ charts, procedures, and airspace usage.

A

Regulatory flight information changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage.

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76
Q

What is a Pointer NOTAM?

____________ or ____________ out another NOTAM, aiding users in cross-referencing important information.

A

Highlights or points out another NOTAM, aiding users in cross-referencing important information.

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77
Q

What is a Military NOTAM?

A

Pertains to navigational aids and airports used by U.S. military services.

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78
Q

What is an SAA NOTAM?

A

Issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside published times or when required.

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79
Q

What keywords might be found in (D) NOTAMs?

A

RWY, TWY, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV, COM, SVC, AIRSPACE, ODP, SID, STAR, CHART, DATA, IAP, VFP, ROUTE, SPECIAL, SECURITY, (U), (O).

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80
Q

Where can NOTAM information be obtained?

A

FSS, NOTAM search website, flight briefing website, FIS-B via ADS-B In.

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81
Q

How can a pilot obtain the latest GPS NOTAMs?

A

Request from an FSS briefer or check the NOTAM search website.

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82
Q

What do the terms “UNRELIABLE” and “MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE” indicate for GPS and WAAS NOTAMs?

Expected ___________ ___________ ___________ might not be available, but pilots can continue operations if GPS service is available.

A

Expected level of service might not be available, but pilots can continue operations if GPS service is available.

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83
Q

When flight planning an RNAV route, where should the route begin and end?

Over appropriate arrival and departure ____________ ___________ or navigation aids for the altitude stratum.

A

Over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or navigation aids for the altitude stratum.

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84
Q

What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?

A

Altimeter, vertical-speed indicator, and airspeed indicator.

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85
Q

How does an altimeter work?

Measures the ___________ ___________ of ambient air using ____________ capsules, displaying it in terms of feet or meters above a selected pressure level.

A

Measures the absolute pressure of ambient air using aneroid capsules, displaying it in terms of feet or meters above a selected pressure level.

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86
Q

What type of errors is the altimeter subject to?

____________ errors, non-standard _____________ and pressure, extreme _____________ errors, high pressure to low pressure, and low pressure to high pressure.

A

Mechanical errors, non-standard temperature and pressure, extreme cold errors, high pressure to low pressure, and low pressure to high pressure.

87
Q

What is the maximum allowable error for an altimeter in IFR flight?

A

If off by more than 75 feet from field elevation with correct pressure set, it is unreliable.

88
Q

Define and state how to determine indicated altitude, true altitude, absolute altitude, pressure altitude, and density altitude.

Indicated Altitude:

Read directly from the ___________.

True Altitude:

Vertical distance above ____________ ____________ (MSL).

Absolute Altitude:

____________ distance above ground level (AGL).

Pressure Altitude:

Indicated altitude with altimeter set to ______________.

Density Altitude:

____________ altitude corrected for ______________ temperature.

A

Indicated Altitude:

Read directly from the altimeter.

True Altitude:

Vertical distance above sea level (MSL).

Absolute Altitude:

Vertical distance above ground level (AGL).

Pressure Altitude:

Indicated altitude with altimeter set to 29.92 in. Hg.

Density Altitude:

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

89
Q

Does adjusting the altimeter’s Kollsman window affect the altitude displayed to ATC? Why?

A

No, the encoding altimeter sends pressure altitude data to the transponder, unaffected by Kollsman adjustments.

90
Q

How does the airspeed indicator operate?

Measures the difference between ___________ pressure from the ___________ ___________ and atmospheric pressure from the ___________ ___________.

A

Measures the difference between ram pressure from the** pitot tube** and atmospheric pressure from the static source.

91
Q

What are the limitations of the airspeed indicator?

It requires proper ____________ in the ____________ ____________ system.

A

It requires proper airflow in the pitot/static system.

92
Q

What errors is the airspeed indicator subject to?

P_________ error, D_________ error, and C____________ error.

A

Position error, density error, and compressibility error.

93
Q

What are the different types of aircraft speeds?

A

Indicated Airspeed (IAS), Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), Equivalent Airspeed (EAS), True Airspeed (TAS).

94
Q

What do the color codes on the airspeed indicator dial indicate?

A

White arc: flap operating range. Green arc: normal operating range. Yellow arc: caution range. Red line: never exceed speed.

95
Q

How does the vertical-speed indicator work?

Measures rate of ____________ change using an ____________ and a ____________ ______________ to indicate climb or descent.

A

Measures rate of pressure change using an aneroid and a calibrated leak to indicate climb or descent.

96
Q

What are the limitations of the vertical-speed indicator?

Not accurate until __________; sudden __________ changes cause erroneous readings.

A

Not accurate until stabilized; sudden attitude changes cause erroneous readings.

97
Q

What could be the problem if, during a climb, the altimeter and VSI indicate a climb, but the airspeed indicator shows increasing airspeed?

A

Pitot tube blockage.

98
Q

What might be the problem if the VSI indicates zero, the airspeed indicator is inaccurate, and the altimeter is frozen during a climb?

A

Static system blockage.

99
Q

What is the approximate freezing level if the air temperature is +6°C at an airport elevation of 1,200 feet with a standard lapse rate?

A

4,200 MSL.

100
Q

What corrective actions should be taken if the pitot tube or static port freezes?

A

Pitot tube: Turn on pitot heat. Static port: Use alternate air or break the VSI glass.

101
Q

What instrument indications are expected when using alternate static pressure vented inside the airplane?

Altimeter: ____________ than actual altitude.
Airspeed: ___________ than actual airspeed.
VSI: momentary ____________ then stabilizes.

A

Altimeter: higher than actual altitude.
Airspeed: greater than actual airspeed.
VSI: momentary climb then stabilizes.

102
Q

What instruments contain gyroscopes?

A

Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and turn coordinator/indicator.

103
Q

What power sources are commonly used for gyroscopic instruments?

A

Electrical, pneumatic, venturi tube, wet-type vacuum pump, dry-air pump systems.

104
Q

How does the vacuum system operate?

Spins the ____________ by drawing air against ________________ vanes, like a turbine, typically using an _____________-driven pump.

A

Spins the gyro by drawing air against rotor vanes, like a turbine, typically using an engine-driven pump.

105
Q

What are two important characteristics of gyroscopes?

A

Rigidity and precession.

106
Q

How does the turn coordinator operate?

Uses ____________ to indicate direction and _____________ of turn; the ______________ measures slip or skid.

A

Uses precession to indicate direction and rate of turn; the inclonometer measures slip or skid.

107
Q

What information does the turn coordinator provide?

Rate of ____________, rate of ____________, ____________ of turn, and ____________ of turn (slip or skid).

A

Rate of turn, rate of roll, direction of turn, and quality of turn (slip or skid).

108
Q

What is the power source for the turn coordinator?

A

Typically electrically powered, but some can be air-driven or dual-powered.

109
Q

How does the heading indicator work?

Uses ____________; the ____________ in a vertical plane keeps the _____________ card fixed relative to the rotor.

A

Uses rigidity in space; the rotor in a vertical plane keeps the compass card fixed relative to the rotor.

110
Q

What are the limitations of the heading indicator?

Typically, limits are around ____ degrees of ____________ and _____________; it may tumble if exceeded, though many modern instruments do not tumble.

A

Typically, limits are around 55 degrees of pitch and bank; it may tumble if exceeded, though many modern instruments do not tumble.

111
Q

What type of error is the heading indicator subject to?

____________, causing it to drift from the set heading, potentially up to ___ degrees per hour.

A

Precession, causing it to drift from the set heading, potentially up to 15 degrees per hour.

112
Q

How does the attitude indicator work?

The ___________ is mounted on a _____________ plane, and the _____________ bar remains fixed relative to the ____________ horizon as the aircraft moves.

A

The gyro is mounted on a horizontal plane, and the horizon bar remains fixed relative to the true horizon as the aircraft moves.

113
Q

What are the limitations of the attitude indicator?

Bank limits are usually ____°-____°, and pitch limits are ____°-_____°. It may tumble if limits are exceeded, though many modern indicators do not tumble.

A

Bank limits are usually 100°-110°, and pitch limits are 60°-70°. It may tumble if limits are exceeded, though many modern indicators do not tumble.

114
Q

Is the attitude indicator subject to errors?

Yes, slight ___________ indication during rapid ____________ and nose-down during rapid _____________; small ____________ and _____________ errors after ____° turns.

A

Yes, slight nose-up indication during rapid acceleration and nose-down during rapid deceleration; small bank and pitch errors after 180° turns.

115
Q

How does the magnetic compass work?

A

Magnets mounted on the compass card align with the Earth’s magnetic field.

116
Q

What limitations does the magnetic compass have?

A

It can tilt and become erratic at bank angles over 18 degrees.

117
Q

What are the various compass errors?

O________, D________, V___________, and _____________ errors (acceleration error and northerly/southerly turning error).

A

Oscillation, deviation, variation, and dip errors (acceleration error and northerly/southerly turning error).

118
Q

What is oscillation error in a magnetic compass?

___________ movement caused by ____________ or ____________ control technique.

A

Erratic movement caused by turbulence or rough control technique.

119
Q

What is deviation error in a magnetic compass?

Error due to ___________ and ____________ disturbances in the aircraft.

A

Error due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft.

120
Q

What is variation error in a magnetic compass?

___________ difference between ___________ north and _____________ north.

A

Angular difference between true north and magnetic north.

121
Q

What is acceleration error in a magnetic compass?

On ____________/_______________ headings, accelerating shows a turn ___________, and decelerating shows a turn __________ (ANDS).

A

On east/west headings, accelerating shows a turn north, and decelerating shows a turn south (ANDS).

122
Q

What is northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?

The compass __________ during a turn to the north due to magnetic dip, requiring correction.

A

The compass lags during a turn to the north due to magnetic dip, requiring correction.

123
Q

What is southerly turning error in a magnetic compass?

The compass __________ during a turn to the south due to magnetic dip, requiring correction.

A

The compass leads during a turn to the south due to magnetic dip, requiring correction.

124
Q

What does PFD stand for and what is its function?

A

Primary Flight Display; replaces traditional instruments with a digital display showing horizon, airspeed, altitude, etc.

125
Q

What does MFD stand for and what is its function?

A

Multi-Function Display; shows navigation data, moving maps, and other information, including PFD data if needed.

126
Q

What does AHRS stand for and what is its function?

A

Attitude and Heading Reference System; provides attitude, heading, and yaw information.

127
Q

What does ADC stand for and what is its function?

__________ ____________ ___________; processes __________ pressure and __________ data to provide altitude, airspeed, and vertical speed.

A

Air Data Computer; processes air pressure and temperature data to provide altitude, airspeed, and vertical speed.

128
Q

What does FMS stand for and what is its function?

__________ __________ __________; manages __________ routes, approaches, and calculates __________ data like fuel consumption.

A

Flight Management System; manages navigation routes, approaches, and calculates flight data like fuel consumption.

129
Q

What does FD stand for and what is its function?

__________ __________; provides __________ instructions on the flight display for the pilot to follow.

A

Flight Director; provides steering instructions on the flight display for the pilot to follow.

130
Q

What does TAWS stand for and what is its function?

A

Terrain Awareness and Warning System; warns of potential terrain conflicts using GPS and altimetry data.

131
Q

What does TIS stand for and what is its function?

A

Traffic Information Service; provides alerts about nearby aircraft using ATC radar data.

132
Q

What is the function of a magnetometer?

Measures the Earth’s __________ __________ to determine __________ heading and relays it to the __________.

A

Measures the Earth’s magnetic field to determine aircraft heading and relays it to the AHRS.

133
Q

Does an aircraft have to remain stationary during AHRS initialization?

A

Some AHRS systems must be initialized on the ground; others can initialize while taxiing or in-flight.

134
Q

What happens to the remaining display if one (PFD or MFD) fails?

A

The remaining display may revert to show both primary flight instruments and engine instruments.

135
Q

What other systems are affected by a display failure?

A

Navigation, communication, and GPS capability may be partially lost; refer to AFM/POH.

136
Q

What happens if the ADC fails?

Inoperative_______________, _______________, and _______________ speed indicators, shown by _______________ on the PFD.

A

Inoperative airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed indicators, shown by red Xs on the PFD.

137
Q

What happens if the AHRS fails?

A

The attitude indicator on the PFD will show an inoperative (red X).

138
Q

How will a magnetometer failure affect the AHRS?

A

Heading information will be lost.

139
Q

After an alternator failure, how long will the main battery last?

A

It depends on electrical load and battery condition; it may last an hour or only a few minutes.

140
Q

What is the function of the standby battery in aircraft with electronic flight instrumentation?
Provides power to _____________ systems when the main battery fails, usually keeping the ___________ operational.

A

Provides power to essential systems when the main battery fails, usually keeping the PFD operational.

141
Q

After alternator and main battery failure, what items will the standby battery power?
“Always Assume Powerful Navigation Continues Safely”

A____________ (Always)
A____________ (Assume)
P____________ (Powerful)
N____________ radio #1 (Navigation)
C____________ radio #1 (Continues)
S____________ indicator light (Safely)

A

AHRS (Always)
ADC (Assume)
PFD (Powerful)
Navigation radio #1 (Navigation)
Communication radio #1 (Continues)
Standby indicator light (Safely)

142
Q

At what rate does atmospheric pressure decrease with altitude?

A

Approximately 1” Hg per 1,000 feet.

143
Q

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

A

15°C and 29.92” Hg.

144
Q

Describe the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere.

Low pressure: ____________, ____________, ____________.

High pressure: ____________, ____________, ______________.

A

**Low pressure: **inward, upward, counterclockwise.
**High pressure: **outward, downward, clockwise.

145
Q

What weather can you expect when flying towards a low-pressure system? A high-pressure system?

A

Low pressure: cloudiness, precipitation, bad weather. High pressure: dissipation of cloudiness, good weather.

146
Q

Describe the different types of fronts.

A

Cold front, occluded front (cold and warm), warm front, stationary front.

147
Q

What weather is typically associated with a cold front? A warm front?

Cold front: ___________, heavy ___________, ___________ visibility, ___________ winds, ___________ drop.

Warm front: ___________ clouds, ___________, ___________ ceilings, ___________visibility, ___________ rise.

A

Cold front: cumulonimbus, heavy rain, poor visibility, gusting winds, temperature drop.

Warm front: stratiform clouds, drizzle, low ceilings, poor visibility, temperature rise.

148
Q

What is a “trough”?

An elongated area of ___________ atmospheric pressure, associated with ___________ air, ___________, and ___________.

A

An elongated area of low atmospheric pressure, associated with rising air, cloudiness, and precipitation.

149
Q

What is a “ridge”?

An elongated area of ___________ atmospheric pressure, associated with ___________ air and ___________ weather.

A

An elongated area of high atmospheric pressure, associated with descending air and good weather.

150
Q

What is a dryline and why is it important?

A boundary separating ___________ and ___________ air masses, often associated with ___________ thunderstorms and ___________ when it moves eastward.

A

A boundary separating moist and dry air masses, often associated with severe thunderstorms and tornadoes when it moves eastward.

151
Q

Why do surface winds generally flow across isobars at an angle?

A

Due to surface friction.

152
Q

When temperature and dew point are close together, what type of weather is likely?

A

Visible moisture such as clouds, dew, or fog.

153
Q

What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?

A

The stability of the atmosphere.

154
Q

Explain the difference between a stable and an unstable atmosphere.

A stable atmosphere ___________ ___________ motion, while an unstable atmosphere allows ___________ air movements, affecting cloud formation and weather patterns.

A

A stable atmosphere resists vertical motion, while an unstable atmosphere allows vertical air movements, affecting cloud formation and weather patterns.

155
Q

How do you determine the stability of the atmosphere?

Stability is determined by ________ lapse rates; increasing lapse rates ________ stability, while decreasing lapse rates ___________ stability.

A

Stability is determined by temperature lapse rates; increasing lapse rates decrease stability, while decreasing lapse rates increase stability.

156
Q

List the effects of stable and unstable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation, and visibility.

Stable: ____________ clouds, ___________ air, steady ____________, _____________ visibility.

Unstable: _____________ clouds, _____________ air, _____________ precipitation, _____________ visibility.

A

Stable: stratiform clouds, smooth air, steady precipitation, poor visibility.
Unstable: cumuliform clouds, turbulent air, showery precipitation, good visibility.

157
Q

What are the two main categories of aircraft icing?

A

Structural icing and induction icing.

158
Q

Name the three types of structural ice that may occur in flight.

A

Clear icing, rime icing, mixed icing.

159
Q

Describe the types of icing found in stratiform and cumuliform clouds.

Stratiform: _____________ and _____________.
Cumuliform: _____________ or _____________ with rime in upper levels.

A

Stratiform: rime and mixed.
Cumuliform: clear or mixed with rime in upper levels.

160
Q

What is necessary for structural icing to occur?

A

Visible moisture and temperatures at or below 0°C.

161
Q

What are the intensity categories of aircraft structural icing?

A

Trace, light, moderate, severe.

162
Q

During preflight planning, what type of meteorological information should you be aware of with respect to icing?
“Freezing Can Form Troublesome Precipitation”

F_____________ locations (Freezing)
C_____________ layers (Can)
F_____________ levels (Form)
T_____________ and pressure (Troublesome)
P_____________ types and locations (Precipitation)

A

Front locations (Freezing)
Cloud layers (Can)
Freezing levels (Form)
Temperature and pressure (Troublesome)
Precipitation types and locations (Precipitation)

163
Q

What is the definition of the term “freezing level” and how can you determine where that level is?

The lowest _____________ where the ______________ temperature reaches ___°C. Determined using GFA, PIREPs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, and other weather charts.

A

The lowest altitude where the air temperature reaches 0°C. Determined using GFA, PIREPs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, and other weather charts.

164
Q

During preflight planning, how can you mitigate the total risk encountered en route when the possibility of operating in or around icing conditions exists?

A

Consider climb performance, icing exit strategies, fuel requirements, alternate airports with sufficient runway lengths, and additional fuel for icing systems.

165
Q

What are the factors necessary for a thunderstorm to form and what are the three stages of thunderstorm development?

A

Sufficient water vapor, unstable lapse rate, lifting action. Stages: cumulus, mature, dissipating.

166
Q

What are “squall line” thunderstorms?

A ___________-_____________, ____________ band of active thunderstorms, often developing ahead of a _____________ front, presenting severe weather hazards to aircraft.

A

A non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms, often developing ahead of a cold front, presenting severe weather hazards to aircraft.

167
Q

How does fog form?

A

When the temperature and dew point of the air become identical or nearly so.

168
Q

Name several types of fog.

A

Radiation fog, advection fog, upslope fog, frontal fog, steam fog.

169
Q

What causes radiation fog to form?

_____________ sky, little or no _____________, high relative _____________; typically forms at _____________ or near daybreak.

A

Clear sky, little or no wind, high relative humidity; typically forms at night or near daybreak.

170
Q

What is advection fog, and where is it most likely to form?

Fog formed when ____________ air moves over ____________ ground or water, common along ____________ areas and deep in continental areas.

A

Fog formed when moist air moves over colder ground or water, common along coastal areas and deep in continental areas.

171
Q

Define upslope fog.
Fog formed by ____________, ____________ air being ____________ as it moves up ____________ terrain, common along the eastern slopes of the Rockies.

A

Fog formed by moist, stable air being cooled as it moves up sloping terrain, common along the eastern slopes of the Rockies.

172
Q

How does steam fog form?

When very ____________ air moves over relatively ____________ water, causing ____________ to evaporate and re-condense as rising fog.

A

When very cold air moves over relatively warm water, causing moisture to evaporate and re-condense as rising fog.

173
Q

**Explain how frontal (or precipitation-induced) fog forms.
**
When ____________, _____________ air over a _____________ causes _____________ and _____________, saturating the cold air below and forming fog.

A

When warm, moist air over a front causes clouds and precipitation, saturating the cold air below and forming fog.

174
Q

**Other than fog, what are several other examples of IFR weather producers?
**
Low _____________ (stratus), ___________, ____________, blowing _______________, and ______________.

A

Low clouds (stratus), haze, smoke, blowing obstructions, and precipitation.

175
Q

What is the process for obtaining a good weather briefing prior to a flight?

A
  1. Watch TV or check the internet for weather patterns several days prior. 2. Get an outlook briefing the day before. 3. Call Flight Service or use 1800wxbrief for a standard briefing close to departure. 4. Call FSS for an abbreviated briefing just before takeoff if needed.
176
Q

What are some other sources of weather information?

A

Leidos Flight Services (1800wxbrief.com), private industry sources, and Flight Information Services (FIS-B via ADS-B In).

177
Q

What pertinent information should a weather briefing include?

A VSC END WAN

*“A Very Simple Checklist Ensures No Dangers With A Notam.”
*
Breaking it down:

A -
V -
S -
C -
E -
N -
D -
W -
A -
N -

A

A - Adverse conditions
V - VFR flight not recommended
S - Synopsis
C - Current conditions
E - Enroute forecast
N - NOTAMs
D - Destination forecast
W - Winds aloft
A - ATC delays
N - NOTAMs

178
Q

How can a pilot obtain updated weather information while en route?

A

FSS on 122.2 or RCO frequency, ATIS/ASOS/AWOS, datalink weather (FIS-B), and ATC (workload permitting).

179
Q

What is Flight Information Service (FIS) and how does it work?

FIS-B is a ground broadcast service provided through ______________ over the 978 MHz UAT data link, offering _____________ and _____________ information to properly-equipped aircraft.

A

FIS-B is a ground broadcast service provided through ADS-B over the 978 MHz UAT data link, offering weather and aeronautical information to properly-equipped aircraft.

180
Q

What is a METAR?

A

A METAR is an aviation routine weather report providing weather conditions at a specific site and time, updated hourly. A SPECI is a special weather report for significant weather changes.

181
Q

Describe the basic elements of a METAR.

A

Type of report, station identifier, date/time, modifier, wind, visibility, RVR, weather phenomena, sky condition, temperature/dew point, altimeter, and remarks.

182
Q

What are some types of weather observing programs?

A

Manual observations, AWOS, AWOS broadcasts, ASOS/AWSS.

183
Q

What are PIREPs (UA), and where are they usually found?

A

Pilot reports (PIREPs) provide real-time in-flight weather conditions. Available from ATC, FSS, and online at aviationweather.gov/airep.

184
Q

What is a terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF)?

A concise statement of expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation within a _____ SM radius from an airport’s runway complex, using METAR weather code.

A

A concise statement of expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation within a 5 SM radius from an airport’s runway complex, using METAR weather code.

185
Q

Describe the basic format of a TAF.

“TIDV Forecast With Sky Changes”

Type of ____________
I____________ station ID
D____________ /** T**____________ of origin
V____________ period
____________ details
With W_____________ V_______________ weather
S______________ Condition
Change indicators

A

T - Type of report
I - ICAO station identifier
D - Date/time of origin
V - Valid period
Forecast - Forecast details
With - Wind, visibility, weather
Sky - Sky condition
Changes - Change indicators

186
Q

What is an aviation area forecast?

A ____________ ____________ forecast for enroute weather over a specified ____________, issued for the Gulf of Mexico, the Caribbean Sea, and Alaska, covering ____-____ hours.

A

A plain language forecast for enroute weather over a specified region, issued for the Gulf of Mexico, the Caribbean Sea, and Alaska, covering 18-24 hours.

187
Q

Describe the Graphical Forecast for Aviation (GFA).
Web-based graphics providing _____________, _____________, and _____________ from ____ hours in the past to ____ hours in the future for the CONUS, up to FL480.

A

Web-based graphics providing observations, forecasts, and warnings from 14 hours in the past to 15 hours in the future for the CONUS, up to FL480.

188
Q

What forecasts are available under the “Forecast” tab of the GFA?

“TCC PTT WI”

“The Captain Checks Pilots To Trust Weather Info”

T -
C -
C -
P - PCPN/WX
T - TS (______________)
T -
W -
I -

A

T - TAF
C - CIG/VIS
C - Clouds
P - PCPN/WX
T - TS (Thunderstorms)
T - Turbulence
W - Winds
I - Ice

189
Q

What weather products are available under the “Observations/Warning” tab of the GFA?

“MPC PR”

“My Pilots Check Precipitation Radar”

A

METAR, PCPN/WX, CIG/VIS, PIREP, RAD/SAT.

190
Q

What are the four types of Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories?

A

SIGMET (WS), convective SIGMET (WST), AIRMET (WA), and Center Weather Advisory (CWA).

191
Q

What is a convective SIGMET?

A convective SIGMET implies severe or greater _______________, severe _______________, and low-level _______________ _______________ due to severe thunderstorms, _______________ thunderstorms, a line of thunderstorms, or heavy precipitation affecting _____%+ of an area.

A

A convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear due to severe thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms, a line of thunderstorms, or heavy precipitation affecting 40%+ of an area.

192
Q

What is a SIGMET?

A SIGMET advises of non-convective weather hazardous to all aircraft, such as severe _______________, _______________, _______________ storms, _______________, and _______________ ash.

A

A SIGMET advises of non-convective weather hazardous to all aircraft, such as severe icing, turbulence, dust storms, sandstorms, and volcanic ash.

193
Q

What is an AIRMET?

A

An advisory of significant weather at lower intensities than SIGMETs, including IFR, mountain obscuration, turbulence, surface winds, icing, and freezing levels.

194
Q

What are the different types of AIRMETs?

A

AIRMET Sierra (IFR and mountain obscuration), AIRMET Tango (turbulence and strong winds), AIRMET Zulu (icing and freezing levels).

195
Q

What is a G-AIRMET?

A _______________ _______________ of weather hazards less severe than SIGMETs, issued at regular intervals, showing _______________, _______________, _______________, _______________ obscurations, and more.

A

A graphical advisory of weather hazards less severe than SIGMETs, issued at regular intervals, showing turbulence, icing, IFR, mountain obscurations, and more.

196
Q

What is a winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FB)?

A

A forecast of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at specified times, altitudes, and locations, produced four times daily for various regions.

197
Q

What valuable information can be determined from a winds and temperatures aloft forecast?

A

Most favorable altitude, areas of possible icing, temperature inversions, turbulence.

198
Q

What is a Center Weather Advisory (CWA)?

A

An aviation warning for adverse weather conditions expected within the next 2 hours, valid for a maximum of 2 hours.

199
Q

Give examples of weather charts you will use during the flight planning process.

A

Surface Analysis Chart, Weather Depiction Chart, Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, Short-Range Surface Prognostic Chart, Convective Outlook Chart, Constant Pressure Analysis Chart, Freezing Level Graphics.

200
Q

What is a surface analysis chart?

A

A charted analysis of surface weather observations, depicting sea-level pressure, positions of highs, lows, ridges, troughs, fronts, and boundaries like drylines.

201
Q

Describe a ceiling and visibility analysis (CVA).

A

A real-time analysis of current ceiling and visibility conditions across the CONUS, updated every 5 minutes, providing ceiling height, surface visibility, and flight category designation.

202
Q

Define the terms: LIFR, IFR, MVFR, and VFR.

A

LIFR: ceiling <500 feet and/or visibility <1 mile. IFR: ceiling 500 to <1,000 feet and/or visibility 1 to <3 miles. MVFR: ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles. VFR: ceiling >3,000 feet and visibility >5 miles.

203
Q

What are Short-Range Surface Prognostic charts?

A

Charts providing a forecast of surface pressure systems, fronts, and precipitation for 2-1/2 days, issued four times daily, covering the 48 contiguous states and coastal waters.

204
Q

Describe a U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prog chart.

A

A forecast of aviation weather hazards for the continental U.S. and coastal waters up to FL240, depicting weather categories, turbulence, and freezing levels, issued four times daily.

205
Q

Describe a Mid-Level Significant Weather (SIGWX) chart.

A

A chart providing a forecast of significant enroute weather phenomena from 10,000 feet MSL to FL450, depicting hazardous weather elements, issued four times daily.

206
Q

What information may be obtained from the U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prog charts?

A

Forecasts of significant enroute weather phenomena from FL250 to FL630, including thunderstorms, turbulence, icing, jet streams, and other hazards, issued four times daily.

207
Q

What is a convective outlook chart?

A

A chart providing the potential for severe and non-severe convection over the next 8 days, including tornadoes, wind gusts, and hail threats, issued by the SPC.

208
Q

What are constant pressure level forecasts?

A

Forecasts depicting weather (e.g., wind) at specified constant pressure levels, used to provide an overview of weather patterns and jet stream locations, issued four times daily.

209
Q

Describe a constant pressure level forecast.

A

A computer model depiction of weather patterns at specified pressure levels, showing wind direction, wind speed, and temperature, used to understand weather patterns and jet streams.

210
Q

What significance do height contour lines have on a constant pressure chart?

A

Contours depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft, with closely spaced contours indicating strong winds.

211
Q

What significance do isotherms have on a constant pressure chart?

A

Isotherms show horizontal temperature variations, helping to determine if the flight will encounter warmer or colder air and possible icing conditions.

212
Q

What is the significance of the isotach lines on a constant pressure chart?

A

Isotachs show constant wind speed, separating higher from lower speeds, and highlighting strong wind gradients and zones.

213
Q

What information does a freezing level graphics chart provide?

A

It shows the height in hundreds of feet MSL of the lowest freezing levels, updated hourly, with forecast graphics updated every three hours.

214
Q

What information can a pilot obtain from current and forecast icing products (CIP and FIP)?

A

CIP provides hourly diagnoses of icing conditions; FIP provides three-dimensional forecasts of icing potential, updated hourly for up to 3 hours into the future.