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Red Book Instrument > Departure > Flashcards

Departure Flashcards

1
Q

What does 14 CFR §91.3 state about the responsibility and authority of the pilot in command (PIC)?

A

The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of the aircraft.

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2
Q

Who shares the responsibility of operational and safety-related decisions with the PIC during flight?

A

No one; the PIC is solely responsible.

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3
Q

What is the right-of-way rule for IFR flights according to 14 CFR 91.113?

A

Vigilance to see and avoid other aircraft must be maintained.

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4
Q

What must be reported under IFR for equipment malfunction in controlled airspace?

A

Loss of VOR, TACAN, ADF, ILS receiver capability, GPS anomalies, communication impairment, and any equipment affecting safety.

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5
Q

How can an IFR clearance be obtained at an airport with an ATC tower?

A

From ground control or a specific clearance delivery frequency.

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6
Q

What does “cleared as filed” mean in an IFR clearance?

A

It means the IFR clearance is based on the filed route with little or no revision.

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7
Q

What items are included in an abbreviated IFR clearance?

A

Clearance limit, route, initial altitude, departure frequency, transponder code.

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8
Q

What does “clearance void time” mean in an IFR clearance?

A

If the flight has not departed by a specified time, the clearance is void.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of “hold for release” in an IFR clearance?

A

To delay an aircraft’s departure for traffic management reasons.

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10
Q

What are the IFR takeoff minimums under 14 CFR Part 91?

A

None specified.

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11
Q

What takeoff minimums apply under 14 CFR Parts 121, 125, 129, or 135 if not prescribed under Part 97?

A

Two engines or less: 1 statute mile visibility; more than two engines: ½ statute mile visibility.

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12
Q

What should a pilot ensure regarding weather when determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight?

A

Weather should be no less than the lowest published minimums for any approach at the departure airport.

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13
Q

What are some strategies to mitigate risk during low IMC takeoff and departure?

A

Use personal minimums, assess obstacles, check takeoff minimums, use ODPs, and consider 14 CFR Part 121/135 minimums.

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14
Q

What is the primary reason for establishing departure procedures (DPs)?

A

To provide obstacle clearance protection.

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15
Q

What are the two types of DPs?

A

ODPs (Obstacle Departure Procedures) and SIDs (Standard Instrument Departures).

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16
Q

What are the two types of SIDs?

A

Pilot navigation SIDs and radar vector SIDs.

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17
Q

What criteria ensure obstruction clearance during departure?

A

Cross departure end of runway at 35 feet, climb to 400 feet before turning, and maintain a 200 FPNM climb gradient.

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18
Q

What is a diverse vector area (DVA)?

A

An area where ATC provides random radar vectors during an uninterrupted climb to ensure obstacle clearance.

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19
Q

Where can departure procedures (DPs) be found?

A

In the IFR Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures section, Section L, of the Terminal Procedures Publications (TPPs).

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20
Q

What does “climb via SID” mean in an ATC clearance?

A

Follow the SID’s lateral path, speed, and altitude restrictions as cleared.

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21
Q

How can a pilot determine if takeoff minimums are non-standard or if DPs are published for an airport?

A

Look for the “triangle T” symbol on the instrument procedure chart notes section.

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22
Q

What should a pilot consider to ensure terrain and obstacle separation before an IFR departure?

A

Terrain and obstacles near the departure airport, available ODPs, visual obstacle avoidance, degraded climb performance, and engine loss actions.

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23
Q

Is a Part 91 pilot required to follow a published ODP if not cleared by ATC?

A

No, compliance with an ODP is optional for Part 91 pilots unless cleared by ATC.

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24
Q

What should a pilot consider if a climb gradient exceeds 200 feet per nautical mile?

A

Determine if higher takeoff minima or specific departure routes are needed to avoid obstacles.

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25
Q

Is the rate-of-climb in fpnm based on true airspeed or groundspeed?

A

Groundspeed.

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26
Q

How is the rate-of-climb in fpnm converted to fpm?

A

Groundspeed divided by 60 minutes times climb gradient equals feet per minute.

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27
Q

What is the recommended climb rate procedure when given a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC?

A

Climb promptly, optimally to 1,000 feet below the assigned altitude, then at 500-1,500 fpm.

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28
Q

What does RNAV 1 and RNP 1 NavSpecs require for SIDs and ODPs?

A

Maintain a total system error of not more than 1 NM for 95% of the flight time.

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29
Q

What is a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA) procedure?

A

A departure option to visually conduct climbing turns over the airport to a specific altitude in VMC.

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30
Q

Who is responsible for terrain and obstacle clearance when vectored off an ODP by ATC?

A

ATC assumes responsibility for terrain and obstacle clearance.

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31
Q

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment according to 14 CFR 91.171?

A

VOT check, radio repair station test signal, VOR ground checkpoint, VOR airborne checkpoint, dual VOR system check, or over a prominent landmark.

32
Q

What is the allowable error for a VOR test signal (VOT) check?

A

±4°

33
Q

How accurate must a VOR reading be when checked at a ground checkpoint?

A

±4°

34
Q

What is the maximum permissible variation between two VOR systems when performing a dual system check?

A

4°

35
Q

What must be recorded after performing a VOR accuracy check?

A

Date, place, bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other reliable record.

36
Q

Where can a pilot find the locations of VOR airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints, and VOT testing stations?

A

In the Chart Supplement U.S.

37
Q

How should a pilot check VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT?

A

Tune to 108.0 MHz, CDI centered should read 0° with FROM or 180° with TO.

38
Q

Where is Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment required?

A

In Class A, B, C airspace, above Class B/C up to 10,000 feet MSL, Class E above 10,000 feet MSL, within 30 miles of a Class B airport, and over the Gulf of Mexico above 3,000 feet MSL.

39
Q

What is the VFR transponder code?

A

1200

40
Q

What transponder code indicates an emergency?

A

7700

41
Q

What transponder code should be used for a communication failure?

A

7600

42
Q

What transponder code should be used for a hijacking?

A

7500

43
Q

What should a pilot do with the transponder in the event of a two-way communications failure?

A

Set the transponder to Mode A/3, Code 7600.

44
Q

Does an incorrect altimeter setting affect Mode C/S transponder and ADS-B Out altitude information?

A

No, it does not affect transmitted altitude information but affects the true altitude flown.

45
Q

What is TIS-B in ADS-B systems?

A

Traffic Information Services–Broadcast, providing traffic information from ATC surveillance systems to ADS-B In-equipped aircraft.

46
Q

What is FIS-B in ADS-B systems?

A

Flight Information Service–Broadcast, providing weather and aeronautical information over 978 MHz UAT data link to ADS-B In-equipped aircraft.

47
Q

Where can a pilot find information about facilities available at a particular airport?

A

In the Chart Supplement U.S.

48
Q

What does ALSF-1 stand for?

A

Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing Lights (ILS Cat-I configuration)

49
Q

What does SSALF stand for?

A

Simplified Short Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing Lights

50
Q

What does MALSR stand for?

A

Medium Intensity Approach Light System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights

51
Q

What does REIL stand for?

A

Runway End Identifier Lights

52
Q

What does MIRL stand for?

A

Medium Intensity Runway Lighting

53
Q

What does PAPI stand for?

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator

54
Q

What color are runway edge lights?

A

White, except yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length on instrument runways.

55
Q

What are the color combinations for airport rotating beacons for a lighted land airport?

A

White and Green

56
Q

What does the operation of a rotating beacon during daylight hours in Class D airspace usually indicate?

A

Ground visibility less than 3 miles and/or ceiling less than 1,000 feet.

57
Q

Where can information about runway lengths, widths, and weight-bearing capacities be found?

A

In the Chart Supplement U.S.

58
Q

What are runway touchdown zone markings?

A

Groups of rectangular bars in pairs about the runway centerline providing distance information in 500-foot increments.

59
Q

What is the purpose of runway aiming point markings?

A

To serve as a visual aiming point for landing aircraft.

60
Q

How far does the touchdown zone extend on a runway?

A

The first 3,000 feet from the threshold.

61
Q

How can an ILS critical area be identified?

A

By holding position markings consisting of two yellow solid lines connected by pairs of solid lines extending across the taxiway.

62
Q

What does RWSL stand for?

A

Runway Status Lights system

63
Q

Describe runway hold short markings.

A

Four yellow lines—two solid and two dashed—spaced six or twelve inches apart, extending across the width of the taxiway or runway.

64
Q

What is an airport surface “hot spot”?

A

A problem area on an airport with increased risk during surface operations, often complex intersections.

65
Q

Are pilots automatically authorized to cross runways intersecting their taxi route?

A

No, a separate clearance is required for each runway crossing.

66
Q

How can pilots maintain situational awareness during taxi operations?

A

Use current airport diagrams, monitor ATC instructions, focus outside, cross-reference heading indicator, and verbally clear left/right before crossing hold short lines.

67
Q

What are pre-taxi clearance procedures? How do you determine if they are available?

A

Pre-taxi clearance procedures allow pilots to receive IFR clearances before taxiing. Availability can be determined from the Chart Supplement U.S. or by contacting ATC.

68
Q

What responsibilities does a pilot have concerning readback of ATC clearances and instructions?

A

Pilots must read back ATC clearances and instructions to confirm understanding, especially runway assignments, altitudes, and headings.

69
Q

Is an ATC clearance an authorization for a pilot to deviate from any rule, regulation, or minimum altitude?

A

No, an ATC clearance does not authorize deviation from rules, regulations, or minimum altitudes.

70
Q

What significance does a “release” time have for an IFR flight?

A

A “release” time specifies the earliest time an aircraft is authorized to depart to ensure proper spacing and traffic management.

71
Q

You calculate your ground speed in the climb to be 90 knots. What minimum rate-of-climb in feet per minute are you required to maintain if a SID requires a climb gradient of 600 feet per NM to 9,000 feet?

A

600 FPNM at 90 knots requires 900 FPM. (600 feet per NM * 1.5 NM/min).

72
Q

What is the difference between a VFR Over-The-Top clearance and a VFR-On-Top clearance?

A

VFR Over-The-Top is an operation above clouds with VFR conditions above and below. VFR-On-Top is an IFR clearance allowing VFR altitudes in VMC.

73
Q

If an ODP is published for your airport, are you required to fly it? Can ATC assign an ODP to you?

A

No, Part 91 pilots are not required to fly it. Yes, ATC can assign an ODP.

74
Q

Are you required to accept an intersection takeoff if ATC assigns it due to departure delays?

A

No, pilots can decline an intersection takeoff if they are not comfortable with it.

75
Q

Is ATC responsible for providing you vectors around weather shown on your in-cockpit NEXRAD while on a SID?

A

No, ATC is not responsible for avoiding weather. The pilot should request deviations if needed.

Red Book Instrument (11 decks)

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