Departure Flashcards
What does 14 CFR §91.3 state about the responsibility and authority of the pilot in command (PIC)?
The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of the aircraft.
Who shares the responsibility of operational and safety-related decisions with the PIC during flight?
No one; the PIC is solely responsible.
What is the right-of-way rule for IFR flights according to 14 CFR 91.113?
Vigilance to see and avoid other aircraft must be maintained.
What must be reported under IFR for equipment malfunction in controlled airspace?
Loss of VOR, TACAN, ADF, ILS receiver capability, GPS anomalies, communication impairment, and any equipment affecting safety.
How can an IFR clearance be obtained at an airport with an ATC tower?
From ground control or a specific clearance delivery frequency.
What does “cleared as filed” mean in an IFR clearance?
It means the IFR clearance is based on the filed route with little or no revision.
What items are included in an abbreviated IFR clearance?
Clearance limit, route, initial altitude, departure frequency, transponder code.
What does “clearance void time” mean in an IFR clearance?
If the flight has not departed by a specified time, the clearance is void.
What is the purpose of “hold for release” in an IFR clearance?
To delay an aircraft’s departure for traffic management reasons.
What are the IFR takeoff minimums under 14 CFR Part 91?
None specified.
What takeoff minimums apply under 14 CFR Parts 121, 125, 129, or 135 if not prescribed under Part 97?
Two engines or less: 1 statute mile visibility; more than two engines: ½ statute mile visibility.
What should a pilot ensure regarding weather when determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight?
Weather should be no less than the lowest published minimums for any approach at the departure airport.
What are some strategies to mitigate risk during low IMC takeoff and departure?
Use personal minimums, assess obstacles, check takeoff minimums, use ODPs, and consider 14 CFR Part 121/135 minimums.
What is the primary reason for establishing departure procedures (DPs)?
To provide obstacle clearance protection.
What are the two types of DPs?
ODPs (Obstacle Departure Procedures) and SIDs (Standard Instrument Departures).
What are the two types of SIDs?
Pilot navigation SIDs and radar vector SIDs.
What criteria ensure obstruction clearance during departure?
Cross departure end of runway at 35 feet, climb to 400 feet before turning, and maintain a 200 FPNM climb gradient.
What is a diverse vector area (DVA)?
An area where ATC provides random radar vectors during an uninterrupted climb to ensure obstacle clearance.
Where can departure procedures (DPs) be found?
In the IFR Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures section, Section L, of the Terminal Procedures Publications (TPPs).
What does “climb via SID” mean in an ATC clearance?
Follow the SID’s lateral path, speed, and altitude restrictions as cleared.
How can a pilot determine if takeoff minimums are non-standard or if DPs are published for an airport?
Look for the “triangle T” symbol on the instrument procedure chart notes section.
What should a pilot consider to ensure terrain and obstacle separation before an IFR departure?
Terrain and obstacles near the departure airport, available ODPs, visual obstacle avoidance, degraded climb performance, and engine loss actions.
Is a Part 91 pilot required to follow a published ODP if not cleared by ATC?
No, compliance with an ODP is optional for Part 91 pilots unless cleared by ATC.
What should a pilot consider if a climb gradient exceeds 200 feet per nautical mile?
Determine if higher takeoff minima or specific departure routes are needed to avoid obstacles.
Is the rate-of-climb in fpnm based on true airspeed or groundspeed?
Groundspeed.
How is the rate-of-climb in fpnm converted to fpm?
Groundspeed divided by 60 minutes times climb gradient equals feet per minute.
What is the recommended climb rate procedure when given a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC?
Climb promptly, optimally to 1,000 feet below the assigned altitude, then at 500-1,500 fpm.
What does RNAV 1 and RNP 1 NavSpecs require for SIDs and ODPs?
Maintain a total system error of not more than 1 NM for 95% of the flight time.
What is a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA) procedure?
A departure option to visually conduct climbing turns over the airport to a specific altitude in VMC.
Who is responsible for terrain and obstacle clearance when vectored off an ODP by ATC?
ATC assumes responsibility for terrain and obstacle clearance.
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment according to 14 CFR 91.171?
VOT check, radio repair station test signal, VOR ground checkpoint, VOR airborne checkpoint, dual VOR system check, or over a prominent landmark.
What is the allowable error for a VOR test signal (VOT) check?
±4°
How accurate must a VOR reading be when checked at a ground checkpoint?
±4°
What is the maximum permissible variation between two VOR systems when performing a dual system check?
4°
What must be recorded after performing a VOR accuracy check?
Date, place, bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other reliable record.
Where can a pilot find the locations of VOR airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints, and VOT testing stations?
In the Chart Supplement U.S.
How should a pilot check VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT?
Tune to 108.0 MHz, CDI centered should read 0° with FROM or 180° with TO.
Where is Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment required?
In Class A, B, C airspace, above Class B/C up to 10,000 feet MSL, Class E above 10,000 feet MSL, within 30 miles of a Class B airport, and over the Gulf of Mexico above 3,000 feet MSL.
What is the VFR transponder code?
1200
What transponder code indicates an emergency?
7700
What transponder code should be used for a communication failure?
7600
What transponder code should be used for a hijacking?
7500
What should a pilot do with the transponder in the event of a two-way communications failure?
Set the transponder to Mode A/3, Code 7600.
Does an incorrect altimeter setting affect Mode C/S transponder and ADS-B Out altitude information?
No, it does not affect transmitted altitude information but affects the true altitude flown.
What is TIS-B in ADS-B systems?
Traffic Information Services–Broadcast, providing traffic information from ATC surveillance systems to ADS-B In-equipped aircraft.
What is FIS-B in ADS-B systems?
Flight Information Service–Broadcast, providing weather and aeronautical information over 978 MHz UAT data link to ADS-B In-equipped aircraft.
Where can a pilot find information about facilities available at a particular airport?
In the Chart Supplement U.S.
What does ALSF-1 stand for?
Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing Lights (ILS Cat-I configuration)
What does SSALF stand for?
Simplified Short Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing Lights
What does MALSR stand for?
Medium Intensity Approach Light System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights
What does REIL stand for?
Runway End Identifier Lights
What does MIRL stand for?
Medium Intensity Runway Lighting
What does PAPI stand for?
Precision Approach Path Indicator
What color are runway edge lights?
White, except yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length on instrument runways.
What are the color combinations for airport rotating beacons for a lighted land airport?
White and Green
What does the operation of a rotating beacon during daylight hours in Class D airspace usually indicate?
Ground visibility less than 3 miles and/or ceiling less than 1,000 feet.
Where can information about runway lengths, widths, and weight-bearing capacities be found?
In the Chart Supplement U.S.
What are runway touchdown zone markings?
Groups of rectangular bars in pairs about the runway centerline providing distance information in 500-foot increments.
What is the purpose of runway aiming point markings?
To serve as a visual aiming point for landing aircraft.
How far does the touchdown zone extend on a runway?
The first 3,000 feet from the threshold.
How can an ILS critical area be identified?
By holding position markings consisting of two yellow solid lines connected by pairs of solid lines extending across the taxiway.
What does RWSL stand for?
Runway Status Lights system
Describe runway hold short markings.
Four yellow lines—two solid and two dashed—spaced six or twelve inches apart, extending across the width of the taxiway or runway.
What is an airport surface “hot spot”?
A problem area on an airport with increased risk during surface operations, often complex intersections.
Are pilots automatically authorized to cross runways intersecting their taxi route?
No, a separate clearance is required for each runway crossing.
How can pilots maintain situational awareness during taxi operations?
Use current airport diagrams, monitor ATC instructions, focus outside, cross-reference heading indicator, and verbally clear left/right before crossing hold short lines.
What are pre-taxi clearance procedures? How do you determine if they are available?
Pre-taxi clearance procedures allow pilots to receive IFR clearances before taxiing. Availability can be determined from the Chart Supplement U.S. or by contacting ATC.
What responsibilities does a pilot have concerning readback of ATC clearances and instructions?
Pilots must read back ATC clearances and instructions to confirm understanding, especially runway assignments, altitudes, and headings.
Is an ATC clearance an authorization for a pilot to deviate from any rule, regulation, or minimum altitude?
No, an ATC clearance does not authorize deviation from rules, regulations, or minimum altitudes.
What significance does a “release” time have for an IFR flight?
A “release” time specifies the earliest time an aircraft is authorized to depart to ensure proper spacing and traffic management.
You calculate your ground speed in the climb to be 90 knots. What minimum rate-of-climb in feet per minute are you required to maintain if a SID requires a climb gradient of 600 feet per NM to 9,000 feet?
600 FPNM at 90 knots requires 900 FPM. (600 feet per NM * 1.5 NM/min).
What is the difference between a VFR Over-The-Top clearance and a VFR-On-Top clearance?
VFR Over-The-Top is an operation above clouds with VFR conditions above and below. VFR-On-Top is an IFR clearance allowing VFR altitudes in VMC.
If an ODP is published for your airport, are you required to fly it? Can ATC assign an ODP to you?
No, Part 91 pilots are not required to fly it. Yes, ATC can assign an ODP.
Are you required to accept an intersection takeoff if ATC assigns it due to departure delays?
No, pilots can decline an intersection takeoff if they are not comfortable with it.
Is ATC responsible for providing you vectors around weather shown on your in-cockpit NEXRAD while on a SID?
No, ATC is not responsible for avoiding weather. The pilot should request deviations if needed.
