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PMP > Predictive Method Terms > Flashcards

Predictive Method Terms Flashcards

1
Q

The _________ methodology focuses on a linear and sequential approach to project management.

A

Predictive

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2
Q

In predictive project management, _________ are detailed and fixed before execution begins.

A

Requirements

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3
Q

_________ refers to the series of phases that a project goes through from initiation to closure.

A

Project Life Cycle

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4
Q

_________ is the process of formally recognizing the completion of the project or phase.

A

Closing

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5
Q

True or False: Predictive methodology is best suited for projects with well-defined requirements and scope.

A

True

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6
Q

True or False: In predictive project management, changes to scope are easily accommodated during execution.

A

False

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7
Q

True or False: The predictive methodology focuses on flexibility and iterative cycles.

A

False

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8
Q

True or False: The critical path method is often used in predictive project management to schedule tasks.

A

True

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9
Q

True or False: In predictive project management, stakeholder engagement is only required at the beginning of the project.

A

False

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10
Q

Define predictive project management and explain its key characteristics.

A

Predictive project management is a methodology that follows a linear and sequential approach where all project phases are planned in detail before execution begins. It is best suited for projects with stable and well-defined requirements.

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11
Q

What is a baseline in predictive project management?

A

A baseline is a reference point used to measure project performance against the original scope, schedule, and budget.

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12
Q

Explain the significance of the critical path in predictive project management.

A

The critical path is the sequence of tasks that determines the shortest possible project duration. It is essential for identifying tasks that directly impact the project’s completion time.

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13
Q

What is the primary purpose of a project charter in predictive methodology?

A

The project charter formally authorizes the project, defines objectives, and identifies key stakeholders.

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14
Q

Define the term “work breakdown structure” (WBS).

A

A work breakdown structure is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work into smaller, manageable components.

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15
Q

Can predictive project management be used for projects with high levels of uncertainty?

A

No, predictive project management is better suited for projects with stable and well-defined requirements.

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16
Q

Does the planning phase in predictive project management accommodate frequent changes?

A

No, the planning phase aims for a fixed and detailed plan that minimizes changes.

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17
Q

Is stakeholder engagement less critical in predictive project management compared to agile methodologies?

A

No, stakeholder engagement is critical in all methodologies to ensure project success.

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18
Q

If a project finishes under budget but fails to meet stakeholder needs, is it considered successful in predictive methodology?

A

No, success is determined by meeting objectives and stakeholder satisfaction, not just cost performance.

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19
Q

Does predictive project management allow for overlapping phases?

A

No, phases in predictive methodology are typically sequential, with one phase completing before the next begins.

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20
Q

_________ and _________ are organizational influences that affect project success, categorized as either external or internal factors.

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs), Organizational Process Assets (OPAs)

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21
Q

_________ is the process of collecting, recording, and analyzing data to identify trends or inform decisions during the project.

A

Data Analysis

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22
Q

A formal _________ is required to modify the project baseline in predictive methodology.

A

Change Request

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23
Q

True or False: Organizational Process Assets include policies, procedures, and historical information useful for managing projects.

A

True

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24
Q

True or False: Enterprise Environmental Factors are entirely controlled by the project manager.

A

False

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25
Q

True or False: Data analysis techniques are optional in predictive project management.

A

False

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26
Q

The five project management process groups are __________, __________, __________, __________, and __________.

A

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing

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27
Q

__________ is used to define a project or phase and authorize the start of a project.

A

Initiating

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28
Q

__________ involves creating a detailed course of action required to meet project objectives.

A

Planning

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29
Q

__________ data is raw data about the status of work without analysis applied to it.

A

Work performance data

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30
Q

__________ factors can influence, constrain, or enhance project management options.

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF)

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31
Q

True or False: The closing process group involves tracking and regulating the project’s performance.

A

False. The closing process group involves formally completing the project, not tracking performance.

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32
Q

True or False: Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF) are always external to the organization.

A

False. Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF) can be internal or external.

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33
Q

True or False: The project management plan has 18 components, including 14 plans and 4 baselines.

A

True

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34
Q

True or False: Variance analysis is used to identify the root cause of a problem in a project.

A

False. Variance analysis compares planned vs. actual performance, not identifying root causes.

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35
Q

True or False: Work performance reports are outputs of executing processes.

A

False. Work performance reports are outputs of monitoring and controlling processes.

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36
Q

Define: The actions or methods used to transform inputs into outputs in a process.

A

Tools and Techniques

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37
Q

Define: A document updated throughout the project to reflect changes or additions.

A

Updates

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38
Q

Define: Factors like political climate, legal restrictions, or financial considerations affecting projects.

A

External Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF)

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39
Q

The structured approach of analyzing alternatives for decision-making.

A

Alternative analysis

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40
Q

Define: The end result of efforts in a project process.

A

Outputs

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41
Q

Which process group includes developing the Project Charter: Executing or Initiating?

A

Initiating

42
Q

Does the acronym ITTO stand for “Integrated Tools, Techniques, and Outputs”?

A

No. ITTO stands for Inputs, Tools, Techniques, and Outputs.

43
Q

Can work performance data, by itself, provide comprehensive insights for decision-making?

A

No. Work performance data, by itself, is not sufficient for decision-making; analysis is needed.

44
Q

Is brainstorming a data analysis or data gathering method?

A

Data gathering.

45
Q

Are Organizational Process Assets static and unchangeable?

A

No. Organizational Process Assets (OPA) are dynamic and can be updated throughout a project.

46
Q

The __________ is created during the “Develop Schedule” process.

A

Schedule baseline

47
Q

Corrective action is taken to __________ the project, while preventive action ensures the project __________.

A

Bring the project back on track; stays on track.

48
Q

__________ is when a project manager facilitates group discussions to generate ideas.

A

Facilitation

49
Q

An autocratic decision-making approach relies on __________.

A

One individual

50
Q

__________ diagrams are a visual method used in data representation.

A

Flowcharts

51
Q

__________ is the process of determining the length of activities during project planning.

A

Estimate Activity Durations

52
Q

__________ focuses on ensuring project deliverables meet quality requirements.

A

Quality Management

53
Q

A __________ lists all identified risks and their responses.

A

Risk register

54
Q

__________ are additional project-related documents not part of the management plan.

A

Project documents

55
Q

__________ involves gathering data from stakeholders to understand their needs.

A

Questionnaires and surveys

56
Q

True or False: ITTO is an acronym for Inputs, Tools, Techniques, and Outputs.

A

True

57
Q

True or False: All ITTOs are unique across the 49 processes.

A

False. Many processes share the same ITTOs.

58
Q

True or False: Outputs from one process can often serve as inputs for another process.

A

True

59
Q

True or False: The ITTO framework is intended for memorization.

A

False. The ITTO framework is meant to be understood, not memorized.

60
Q

True or False: Tools and Techniques are the methods used to transform outputs into inputs.

A

False. Tools and Techniques transform inputs into outputs, not the other way around.

61
Q

You have a team conflict during the project. Which interpersonal skill would be most applicable?

A

Conflict management.

62
Q

A checklist is provided to identify stakeholder requirements. Which data gathering method does this represent?

A

Checklist

63
Q

You compare actual project performance against planned performance. Which type of data are you using?

A

Work performance information

64
Q

To finalize the project, you need a comprehensive status report. Which document do you prepare?

A

Work performance report

65
Q

An organization uses templates and historical data to assist project teams. What is this an example of?

A

Organizational Process Assets (OPAs)

66
Q

Describe a scenario where qualitative risk analysis would be preferred over quantitative risk analysis.

A

Qualitative risk analysis is preferred when risk prioritization is needed without numerical analysis (e.g., evaluating likelihood and impact of risks qualitatively).

67
Q

Explain the difference between corrective action and defect repair with examples.

A

Corrective action example: Updating a schedule to meet deadlines; Defect repair example: Fixing a faulty component.

68
Q

Illustrate how a stakeholder register might impact planning and executing processes.

A

A stakeholder register can impact planning by identifying stakeholders’ interests and priorities, aiding communication and resource planning.

69
Q

Discuss the role of expert judgment in developing a risk management plan.

A

Expert judgment is used to draw on specialized knowledge for risk identification and management strategies.

70
Q

Provide an example of when voting (majority wins) is used in decision-making.

A

Voting (majority wins) is used in situations like selecting a vendor based on team preferences.

71
Q

What term refers to assets like templates, historical information, and process guidelines?

A

Organizational Process Assets (OPA)

72
Q

What term describes external influences such as political climate and legal restrictions?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF)

73
Q

What is the process of grouping related project activities into manageable sections?

A

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

74
Q

What tool might be used to analyze the root cause of a recurring issue?

A

Root Cause Analysis (RCA)

75
Q

What is a primary tool used to optimize project schedules or track deliverables?

A

Project Management Information System (PMIS)

76
Q

The ______ process group is used to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

A

Monitoring and Controlling

77
Q

______ is an internal enterprise environmental factor that includes a company’s established communication channels.

A

Organizational communication channels

78
Q

True/False: Organizational Process Assets (OPA) include financial considerations external to the project.

A

False. Financial considerations are part of external Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF), not OPA.

79
Q

True/False: Root Cause Analysis is used to identify the main underlying reason for a particular event.

A

True. It is a method for analyzing data to uncover core causes.

80
Q

What is “an automated system used to help project managers optimize schedules or track documents and deliverables”?

A

Project Management Information System (PMIS)

81
Q

Which process group is responsible for creating the Work Performance Report?

A

None. Work Performance Reports are derived from Monitoring and Controlling processes, but no single process group is solely responsible.

82
Q

The project manager used ______ to identify the most suitable communication tools based on organizational structure.

A

Expert Judgment

83
Q

A team member suggests using a fishbone diagram to understand why a project phase failed. Which project management activity does this pertain to?

A

Data Representation

84
Q

If you are conducting variance analysis, which process are you likely involved in?

A

Monitoring and Controlling

85
Q

Define “Corrective Action” in the context of project management.

A

Actions taken to ensure the project gets back on track when deviations occur.

86
Q

Complete the sequence: Initiating, Planning, ______, Monitoring and Controlling, Closing.

A

Executing

87
Q

Compare and contrast internal and external Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF).

A

Internal EEFs include organizational culture and resource availability, while external EEFs encompass political climate and industry standards.

88
Q

If a project manager skips the Planning phase and directly moves to Executing, what are the likely consequences?

A

Poor scope definition, resource mismanagement, and potential project delays due to unanticipated risks.

89
Q

A project manager fails to update the OPA during a project phase. What are the implications for future projects?

A

Loss of valuable historical information and reduced efficiency in planning future projects.

90
Q

Break down the steps involved in transforming work performance data into work performance reports.

A

1) Gather raw data, 2) Analyze it to create work performance information, 3) Compile the information into comprehensive reports.

91
Q

What may happen if the stakeholder engagement plan is ignored during project execution?

A

It could lead to unmet expectations, resistance to project outcomes, and potential failure of project deliverables.

92
Q

How can the concept of organizational culture in EEFs influence the choice of conflict management techniques?

A

Organizational culture determines acceptable communication styles, authority levels, and problem-solving approaches, guiding conflict resolution methods.

93
Q

Why is it critical to include variance analysis in the Monitoring and Controlling process group?

A

To identify deviations from the baseline, enabling corrective actions to align the project with its goals.

94
Q

Scenario: A team member suggests using a brainstorming session to identify risks for a new project.

Question: Which data gathering technique is the team member proposing, and how does it contribute to risk management?

A

The team member is proposing brainstorming. This technique involves gathering diverse ideas from stakeholders to identify potential risks comprehensively.

95
Q

Scenario: The project manager notices significant delays in schedule milestones during project execution.

Question: What process should the project manager initiate to evaluate the delays and take corrective actions?

A

The project manager should initiate variance analysis under the Monitoring and Controlling process group to evaluate the delays and implement corrective actions.

96
Q

Scenario: During the planning phase, the organization decides to incorporate an external consultant to assist with developing the quality management plan.

Question: Which tool or technique is being used in this scenario, and why is it valuable?

A

Expert Judgment. It is valuable because external consultants bring specialized knowledge and experience that can improve the quality management plan’s accuracy and effectiveness.

97
Q

Scenario: A project involves multiple international teams, each with distinct communication preferences and schedules.

Question: What should the project manager prioritize in the planning phase to address this complexity, and which document will outline these strategies?

A

The project manager should prioritize developing the Communication Management Plan, which will outline strategies for managing diverse communication needs effectively.

98
Q

Scenario: A new government regulation is announced midway through a project, potentially affecting project deliverables.

Question: What actions should the project manager take to address this change, and which factors should be considered?

A

The project manager should evaluate the regulation’s impact on scope, cost, and timeline and issue a change request if necessary. Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF), such as legal restrictions and compliance standards, should be considered.

99
Q

Scenario: A team member suggests using a fishbone diagram to investigate recurring defects in a deliverable.

Question: Which data representation method is being proposed, and in which process group might it be used?

A

The fishbone diagram (cause-and-effect diagram) is being proposed. It is typically used in the Monitoring and Controlling process group to analyze quality issues.

100
Q

Scenario: Stakeholders are dissatisfied with the project deliverables due to unmet expectations, despite the deliverables meeting the documented scope.

Question: What process was likely insufficient, and what corrective action should the project manager take?

A

Stakeholder engagement planning was likely insufficient. The project manager should revisit the Stakeholder Engagement Plan and improve communication to align stakeholder expectations.

101
Q

Scenario: The project team frequently misses updates on key risks despite a documented risk management plan.

Question: Which additional project management document could be implemented or revised to improve the tracking of risks?

A

The Risk Register should be implemented or updated to ensure all risks are actively tracked, evaluated, and managed throughout the project.

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