Predicting Employee Performance: The Predictor Problem Flashcards

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1
Q

In the context of selecting predictors of job performance, _________________ refers to the extent to which performance on a measure is unaffected by measurement error, while ____________ refers to the degree to which the measure assesses what it was designed to asses.

A
  • Reliability
  • Validity
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2
Q

There are three types of validity: _______________, __________________, and __________________; the type of greatest concern depends on the nature and purpose of the predictor. In I/O, a predictor’s _____________ validity is usually of particular interest.

A
  • Content
  • Construct
  • Criterion-related
  • Criterion-related
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3
Q

There are ___ steps involved in evaluating a predictor’s criterion-related validity.

A

7.

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4
Q

Step 1: ___________________: Identify the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics required for successful job performance.

A

Conduct a job analysis.

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5
Q

Step 2: ________________ - Select/develop a predictor that measures the attributes identified by the job analysis.

A

Select or develop the predictor.

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6
Q

Step 3: ____________________ - Administer the predictor to a sample of job applicants (predictive validity) or current employees (concurrent validity); obtain criterion information for all individuals in the sample.

A

Administer the predictor and assess the criterion.

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7
Q

Step 4: ___________________ - Calculate the criterion-related validity coefficient to determine if there is a statistically significant relationship between predictor and criterion scores.

A

Correlate the predictor and criterion scores.

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8
Q

Step 5: __________________ - Determine if the predictor will have adverse impact - i.e., if use of the predictor will discriminate against a legally protected class of individuals.

A

Check for adverse impact.

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9
Q

Step 6: ____________________ - Determine if use of the predictor will increase the proportion of correct decisions.

A

Evaluate incremental validity.

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10
Q

Step 7: _________________ - Perform steps 3 through 6 with a new sample. Because all of the chance factors that maximized the original validity coefficient are not present in the second sample, the cross-validation coefficient is usually smaller than the original coefficient. This phenomenon is referred to as _______________.

A
  • Cross-validate
  • Shrinkage
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11
Q

Title ___ of the _______________ Acts of 1964 and other legislation prohibit discrimination in hiring, placement, training, promotion, and retention on the basis of race, religion, gender, national origin, age, or disability. The provision of these laws are enforced by the ____________________ (EEOC), which issued the Unified Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.

A
  • VII
  • Civil Rights
  • Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
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12
Q

As defined by the Uniform Guidelines, a selection test or other employment procedure is discriminating against members of a legally protected group - i.e., is having an ______________ - when use of that procedure results in a substantially different selection, ____________, or promotion rate for members of that group.

A
  • Adverse impact
  • Placement
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13
Q

The ________________ is often used to determine if a procedure is having an adverse impact. The hiring rate for the majority group is multiplied by 80% to determine the minimum hiring rate for the minority group. As an example, if use of a test results in a 50% hiring rate for African Americans and 90% rate for whites, the test would be having an adverse impact for African Americans because 90% times 80% is 72%, which is greater than the hiring rate for African Americans.

A

80% (Four-Fifths) Rule.

Bonus: The 4/5 Rule requires that for a finding of adverse impact, a pattern of discrimination must be established.

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14
Q

______________________ occurs when a measure is valid for one group but is not valid (or is significantly less valid) for another group. The characteristic that distinguishes between the two groups - e.g., gender, race, or age - is referred to as a ____________ variable.

A
  • Differential validity
  • Moderator
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15
Q

_____________ occurs when members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on the predictor than members of another group, but the difference in predictor scores is NOT related to differences in scores on the criterion.

A

Unfairness.

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16
Q

When the plaintiff in a class-action suit demonstrates that an employment procedure is having an adverse impact, the burden of proof has traditionally been on the _______________ to show that use of the procedure _______ discriminatory.

A
  • Employer
  • Is not
17
Q

Defense against ruling of adverse impact: _____________ - The employer must not only prove that the measure is job-related, but must also show that its use is required for the safe and efficient operation of the business.

A

Business necessity.

18
Q

Defense against ruling of adverse impact: _________________ - The employer can show that the characteristic in question is an essential determinant of the genuineness of the job or when a person’s gender, etc., must be taken into consideration to maintain community standards of morality or propriety.

A

Bona Fide Occupational Qualification (BFOQ).

19
Q

__________________ refers to the increase in decision-making accuracy an employer will achieve by using the predictor to make selection decisions.

A

Incremental validity.

20
Q

The _______________ is the ratio of job openings to job applicants. For example, a ratio of 1:50 indicates that there is one job opening for every 50 job applicants. A _____ ratio is preferred since it allows an employer to be more selective when making hiring decisions.

A
  • Selection ratio
  • Low
21
Q

The ______________ is the percent of employees who are performing satisfactorily without use of the proposed predictor and ranges in value from 0 to 1.0. ______________ rates (rates close to .50) are associated with the greatest incremental validity.

A
  • Base rate
  • Moderate
22
Q

The _________________ can be used to estimate the percent of new hires that will be successful as employees given various combinations of validity coefficients, selection ratios, and base rates.

A

Taylor-Russel Tables.

23
Q

When using _______________, predictor scores are weighted and summed to yield an estimated criterion score, with each predictor’s weight being determined by its correlation with criterion and with the other predictors. This strategy is compensatory, since exceptional performance on one predictor can offset poor performance on another predictor.

A

Multiple regression.

24
Q

In contrast to multiple regression, the _________________ method is noncompensatory, which means that a minimum score on each predictor must be obtained before a job applicant will be considered for selection. This technique can be used in conjunction with multiple regression by first selecting only those people who score above the minimum score on all predictors and then using the multiple regression equation to predict each selected person’s criterion score.

A

Multiple cutoff.

25
Q

__________________: When using this technique, predictors are administered one at a time in a predetermined order, with each predictor being administered only if the previous one has been successfully passed or completed. An advantage of this is that it saves time and money since all of the predictors are not administered to all individuals.

A

Multiple (Successive) Hurdles.

26
Q

________________________: These consistently produce the highest validity coefficients across jobs and job settings. However, validity coefficients for these measures vary somewhat, depending on the objectivity of the criterion.

A

General Mental (Cognitive) Ability Tests.

27
Q

___________________: These are good predictors of job performance, with reported validity coefficients being similar to or even larger than those for measures of GMA. However, these are job specific and are useful only when applicants have had previous job training or experience.

A

Job Knowledge Tests.

28
Q

__________________: These can be useful predictors in organizational settings, although the studies are not entirely consistent with regard to the relative validities of global and specific personality traits. In terms of global traits, of the “______________” personality traits (neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness), _______________ has been found to be the best predictor of job performance across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures.

A
  • Personality Tests
  • “Big 5”
  • Conscientiousness
29
Q

_________________: The use of these in organizations is based on the premise that applicants whose interest profiles resemble those of successful employees will perform best on the job. However, usefulness of these as selection tools is limited because they are susceptible to faking and because they have been found to be more valid for predicting job choice, satisfaction, and persistence than job success.

A

Interest tests.

30
Q

__________________: The use of this as a selection tool is based on the assumption that the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior. The validity of this is maximized when items are derived empirically.

A

Biodata (Biographical Data).

31
Q

The _________________, a type of empirically derived form, contains multiple-choice questions that not only assess an applicant’s job history but also his/her family background, economic history, health, attitudes, values, etc. One disadvantage of this and other empirically derived forms is that they often contain items that lack face validity because they do not “look like” they are related to job performance. As a consequence, applicants may resist answering items because they perceive them to be an invasion of privacy.

A

Biographical Information Blank (BIB).

32
Q

________________: These are, by far, the most commonly used method for obtaining information about job applicants, although they generally have lower levels of reliability and validity than many other selection techniques.

A

Interviews.

33
Q

________________ require an individual to perform tasks similar or identical to those actually performed on the job and are most commonly used to select applicants for jobs requiring clerical, mechanical, or technical skills.

A

Work samples.

34
Q

When used to evaluate applicants who do not have previous experience in order to evaluate their capacity to benefit from training, work samples include a structured period of learning and evaluation and are referred to as _________________.

A

Trainability tests.

35
Q

Work samples are also sometimes used as part of a ____________________(RJP), which may include a written description of the job, a video, discussion with current workers, and other strategies. An assumption underlying the use of RJPs is that disillusionment with the job is a primary cause of turnover, and that reducing unrealistic job expectations will increase job satisfaction and commitment and lower turn over rates.

A

Realistic Job Preview (RJP).

36
Q

____________________ are used to evaluate managerial-level personnel, most often to determine if lower-level managers should be promoted to higher-level psoitions or to identify a manager’s needs for training and personal development. Participants are evaluated by a team on a number of dimensions and with a variety of techniques.

A

Assessment centers.

37
Q

The _____________________ is probably the best known of the situational tests; it requires participants to take action on letters, memos, brief reports, etc., that are typical of those those actually encountered by managers.

A

In-basket test.

38
Q

Another commonly used situational test is ____________________, which involves having five or six participants work together without an assigned leader to solve a job-related problem or discuss a job-related issue.

A

Leaderless group discussion.