Preaeanaesthesia test PQ Flashcards
Premedication
A. Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia
B. Pharmacological intervention prior to recovery of general anesthesia
C. Pharmacological intervention after induction of general anesthesia
D. Pharmacological intervention after recovery of general anesthesia
A. Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia
Calming A. Analgesia B. Anxiolysis C. Sedation D. Anesthesia
C. Sedation
Reduction of fear A. Analgesia B. Anxiolysis C. Sedation D. Anesthesia
B. Anxiolysis
Pain relief A. Analgesia B. Anxiolysis C. Sedation D. Catalepsy
A. Analgesia
Catalepsy may be caused by A. Ketamine B. Propofol C. Fentanyl D. Xylazine
A. Ketamine
Neuroleptanalgesia. Pick the false answer
A. Superficial ‘sleeping’
B. Analgesia
C. Caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination
D. Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination
D. Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination
Anesthesia types. Pick the false answer A. Local B. Regional C. Subtotal D. General
C. Subtotal
General anesthesia criteria. Pick the false answer A. Inhalational B. Hypnosis C. Analgesia D. Muscle relaxation
A. Inhalational
Balanced anesthesia. Pick the false answer
A. Achievable with a single ‘monoanesthetic’ drug
B. Consciousness may be steered with anesthetics
C. Pain may be controlled by analgesics
D. Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants
A. Achievable with a single ‘monoanesthetic’ drug
Dissociative anesthesia. Pick the false answer A. Thalamocortical dissociation B. Limbic depression C. Peripheral analgesia D. Alteration of consciousness
B. Limbic depression
Phenothiazines may cause life-threatening hypotension in… A. Dobermanns B. Boxers C. Staffordshire terriers D. Greyhounds
B. Boxers
Brachycephalic breeds need… Pick the false answer A. Preoxigenation B. Short induction C. Fast intubation D. Early extubation
D. Early extubation
MDR-1 gene defect is detected in… Pick the false answer A. Australian shepherd B. English shepherd C. German shepherd D. Pug
D. Pug
Preanesthetic circulatory examination. Pick the false answer A. Mucous membranes B. Capillary refill time C. Spleen size D. Pulse frequency and quality
C. Spleen size
Preanesthetic heart function examination. Pick the false answer A. Auscultation B. Electrocardiography C. Ultrasonography D. Hearth muscle biopsy
D. Hearth muscle biopsy
Preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam. Pick the false answer A. Parasitological examination of feces B. White blood cell count and hematocrit C. Total plasma protein D. Urea, Crea and ALT
A. Parasitological examination of feces
ASA 1. Pick the false answer A. Healthy state B. Symptom-free state C. Low anesthesia risk D. Age: 0 day – 8 years
D. Age: 0 day – 8 years
ASA 2. Pick the false answer A. Mild systemic disease B. No apparent functional disorders C. Low anesthesia risk D. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years
D. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years
ASA 3. Pick the false answer A. Severe systemic disease B. Visible functional impairment C. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years D. Not life-threatening status
C. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years
ASA 4. Pick the false answer A. Severe systemic disease B. Constant threat to life C. Age: 0–3 days or over 10 years D. Age: 6–16 years
D. Age: 6–16 years
CEPOD classification. Pick the false answer
A. I: immediate, life-saving intervention
B. II: urgent intervention
C. III: planned for near future
D. IV: no time for classification
D. IV: no time for classification
Preanesthetic fasting. Pick the false answer
A. Usually 6 hours
B. Less than 6 hours in very young patients
C. More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs
D. Only 2 hours in emergency patients
D. Only 2 hours in emergency patients
Advantages of premedication. Pick the false answer A. Decreases stress, fear and aggression B. Lowers anesthetic demand C. Decreases drug expenditure and costs D. Increases the excitation phase
D. Increases the excitation phase
Steps of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer A. Premedication B. Induction C. Stadium analgesiae D. Recovery
C. Stadium analgesiae
Effects of premedication. Pick the false answer
A. Decreases pain, stress, fear, aggression
B. Increases O2-demand
C. Decreases anesthetic dosage, side effects, costs
D. Eliminates excitation stage
B. Increases O2-demand
Reasons for vein cannulation. Pick the false answer A. Drug administration B. Fluid therapy C. Emergency access D. Monitoring core temperature
D. Monitoring core temperature
Preferred drugs for induction. Pick the fals answer
A. Anesthetics with moderate (or NO) side effects
B. Rapid onset of action
C. Long duration
D. Short duration or counteractable
C. Long duration
Maintenance of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer A. Intramuscular B. Intravenous C. Inhalational D. Epidural
D. Epidural
Role of the anesthesiologist. Pick the fals answer A. Control the depth of anesthesia B. Patient monitoring C. Reduce surgical time D. Maintain homeostasis
C. Reduce surgical time
Stages of narcosis (I-IV). Pick the fals answer
A. Stadium analgesiae = induction phase
B. Stadium excitationis = excitatory phase
C. Stadium tolerantiae = surgical narcosis
D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis
D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis
Characteristics of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer A. Unconsciousness B. Lack of perception C. Analgesia D. Muscle rigidity
D. Muscle rigidity
Atropine is used for treatment… Pick the fals answer
A. Bradycardia caused by opioids
B. Reflex-bradycardia caused by D2-agonists (high BP)
C. AV- and SA-blocks
D. Increased gland-secretion and bronchospasm
B. Reflex-bradycardia caused by D2-agonists (high BP)
ACP effects. Pick the fals answer A. Calming B. Vasodilation C. Depression of thermoregulation D. Emetic
D. Emetic
ACP effects. Pick the fals answer E. Decreases BP F. Antihistaminic G. Depression of platelet function H. Analgesic
H. Analgesic
Diazepam and midazolam. Pick the fals answer
A. For old animals with poor general condition
B. Can be antagonized by atipamezole
C. Decrease anxiety, relax muscles
D. High dose causes respiratory depression
B. Can be antagonized by atipamezole
Alpha2-agonists. Pick the fals answer A. Alphaxalone and alphadolone B. Detomidine C. Medetomidine and dexmedetomidine D. Xylazine
A. Alphaxalone and alphadolone
Alpha2-agonists. Pick the fals answer A. Sedative B. Analgesic C. Emetic D. Not antagonisable
D. Not antagonisable
Medetomidine, xylazine. Pick the fals answer
A. Using a general dose, phases of sedation, induction and maintenance can not be separated
B. Can be antagonized by flumazenil
C. Not recommended for old and cardiac and diabetic patients
D. Cause circulatory and respiratory depression
B. Can be antagonized by flumazenil
Opioid drugs. Pick the false answer A. Morphine and fentanyl B. Buprenorphine and butorphanol C. Tramadol and thiopental D. Naloxone (as antagonist)
C. Tramadol and thiopental
Opioid receptors. Pick the false answer A. µ (mu) B. κ (kappa) C. o (omicron) D. G (delta)
C. o (omicron)
Fentanyl. Pick the false answer A. Full agonist opioid drug B. 15–30 minutes duration of effect C. Do not combine with propofol D. May be reduced
C. Do not combine with propofol
Morphine. Pick the false answer A. Full agonist opioid drug B. 4–6 hours duration of effect C. Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients D. May be reduced
C. Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients
Opioids. Pick the false answer
A. Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect
B. Major analgesics
C. Side effects are bradycardia and respiratory depression
D. Can be antagonized by naloxone
A. Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect
Full opioid agonist A. Morphine B. Buprenorphine C. Butorphanol D. Tramadol
A. Morphine
Full opioid agonist E. Naloxone F. Buprenorphine G. Butorphanol H. Fentanyl
H. Fentanyl
Short duration of action A. Morphine B. Buprenorphine C. Fentanyl D. Fentanyl patch
C. Fentanyl
Partial µ-agonist A. Morphine B. Buprenorphine C. Butorphanol D. Fentanyl
B. Buprenorphine
Partial µ-antagonist and κ-agonist A. Morphine B. Buprenorphine C. Butorphanol D. Fentanyl
C. Butorphanol
Weak µ-agonist A. Morphine B. Buprenorphine C. Butorphanol D. Tramadol
D. Tramadol
Propofol. Pick the fals answer
A. Can be used in almost all patient groups
B. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic
C. Short duration of action, can be redosed
D. High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression
B. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic
Application of propofol. Pick the false answer
A. Only in combination with muscle relaxants
B. Slowly
C. IV
D. To effect
A. Only in combination with muscle relaxants
Ketamine. Pick the false answer
A. Moderate analgesic effect
B. Benzodiazepines can help avoid catalepsy
C. Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients
D. Eyes remain open, thus the cornea may desiccate
C. Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients
Safe inhalant anesthetics. Pick the false answer A. Ether B. Isoflurane C. Sevoflurane D. Desflurane
A. Ether
Inhalant anesthetics. Pick the false answer
A. 1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases
B. 2 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 100% of cases
C. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect
D. Short induction and recovery
C. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect
Inhalant anesthetics. Pick the false answer A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. No analgesic effect D. Sedative
D. Sedative
Local anesthetics. Pick the false answer
A. Block nerve cells
B. Local anesthesia types: terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural, spinal
C. Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics
D. Possible side-effects: cardiovascular and CNS signs, cell toxicity
C. Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics
LA side-effects. Pick the false answer A. Cardiovascular B. CNS C. Cell toxicity D. Respiratory
D. Respiratory
Pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, rocuronium
A. Central muscle relaxants
B. Peripheral nondepolarising muscle relaxants
C. Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants
D. Local anesthetics
B. Peripheral nondepolarising muscle relaxants
Pain. Pick the false answer
A. Complex, multidimensional negative experience
B. There is no linear correlation between degree of pathological changes and intensity of pain
C. Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress
D. Simultaneous nociceptive effects add up
C. Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress
Characteristics of pain. Pick the false answer
A. Function: physiological or pathological
B. Origin: organic or psychogenic
C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional
D. Duration: acute or chronic
C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional
Pathological pain. Pick the false answer
A. Hyperalgesia: mild noxious stimuli result in intense pain sensation
B. Allodynia: tactile (non-painful) stimuli result in pain sensation
C. Pain impulse may be inhibited by pain-killers
D. Never combine pain-killers
D. Never combine pain-killers
Ascending pathway of the nociception
Ascending pathway of the nociception
A. Transmission, transduction, modulation, projection and perception
B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception
C. Transduction, modulation, transmission, projection and perception
D. Modulation, transduction, transmission, projection and perception
B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception
Modern concepts of pain management. Pick the false answer
A. Young animals do not need analgesics
B. Preemptive (prophylactic) analgesia
C. Multimodal (multiple approach) analgesia
D. No gap should appear!
A. Young animals do not need analgesics
Intraoperative analgesic effect. Pick the false answer A. Ketamine CRI B. Lidocaine + fentanyl CRI C. Local anesthetics + opioids D. Inhalants alone
D. Inhalants alone
