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ATP > Pre- Written Solo Exam > Flashcards

Pre- Written Solo Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What personal documents and endorsements are you required to have while flying solo?

A
  • Medical Certificate
  • Pilot Certificate
  • Government Issued Photo ID
  • Solo Endorsement
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2
Q

What are your student pilot limitations regarding carriage of passengers or cargo and flying for compensation or hire?

A

Part 61.89

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3
Q

Explain student pilot limitations concerning visibility and flight above clouds.

A
  • 61.89
  • 3 SM during day
  • 5 SM at night
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4
Q

Who has the final authority and responsibility for the operation of the aircraft when you are flying solo?

A

PIC

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5
Q

Describe appropriate preflight actions pertaining to a local solo flight.

A

“PAVE” Checklist

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6
Q

During engine run up, you cause rocks, debris, and propeller blast to be directed toward another aircraft or person. Could this be considered careless or reckless operation of an aircraft?

A

Part 91.13

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7
Q

You may not fly as pilot of a civil aircraft within ____ hours after consumption of any alcoholic beverage, or while you have ____% by weight or more alcohol in your blood.

A

Part 91.17

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8
Q

What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses?

A

Part 91.107

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9
Q

What is the minimum fuel reserve for day VFR flight, and on what cruise speed is the fuel reserve based?

A

Part 91.151

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10
Q

A transponder with Mode C is required at all times in all airspace at and above ____ feet MSL, excluding that airspace at and below _____ feet AGL.

A
  • AIM 3-2-6
  • Part 91.215
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11
Q

What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you are flying solo?

A

ARROWPEC

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12
Q

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a(n) ____________________.

A
  • Part 91.111
  • AIM 7–7-3 (b)
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13
Q

Who has the right-of-way when two aircraft are on final approach to land at the same time?

A

Part 91.113

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14
Q

What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A

Part 91.113(f)

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15
Q

What should you do if you are flying a head-on collision course with another aircraft? If another single-engine airplane is converging from the right, who has the right-of-way?

A

Part 91.113(f)

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16
Q

Except when necessary for takeoffs and landings, what are the minimum safe altitudes when flying over congested and other than congested areas?

A
  • 500’ over non-congested
  • 1,000’ over congested
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17
Q

List the memory items for an engine failure shortly after takeoff, in the traffic pattern, and in cruise flight.

A
  • A,B,C,D,E
  • Checklist for Cruise Flight
  • No Checklist for Traffic Pattern
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18
Q

According to the Airplane Flying Handbook, how much altitude would a typical airplane lose if it attempted a 180° turn back to the runway shortly after takeoff (page 18-7)? Describe ATP procedure regarding 180° turns during an engine failure during takeoff.

A
  • In the PHAK
  • 1,316’
  • ATP Policy (no 180)(Unless sufficient runway remains)
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19
Q

The total usable fuel capacity for your aircraft is _ gallons. On a standard day (sea level temperature 59° F, altimeter 29.92 in. Hg), the fuel consumption rate during normal (approximately 75% power) cruise is _ gallons per hour.

A
  • POH
  • 48
  • 11
20
Q

What grade(s) of fuel can be safely used in your aircraft? What are the colors of the recommended fuels? What happens to the color of the fuel if two grades are mixed?

A
  • 100 LL (AVGAS) (BLUE)
  • 100 (OCTANE) (GREEN)
  • They are clear when mixed
21
Q

The maximum oil capacity of your aircraft is ___ quarts, and the minimum oil capacity to begin a flight is ___ quarts.

A
  • 8
  • 6
22
Q

The maximum crosswind component specified by your instructor for solo takeoffs and landings in the training aircraft is___ knots.

A
  • 5
23
Q

(Carbureted aircraft only) Describe the indications of carburetor icing and the appropriate pilot action if carburetor ice is suspected.

A
  • Normal Operations
  • Run-up
  • Carb icing is detected
24
Q

(Aircraft w/ G1000 & GFC 700 autopilot only) How would you respond to an unexpected activation or malfunction of the autopilot or electric trim? List the steps in the appropriate checklist.

A
  • POH (Page 97)
  • Emergency Procedures
25
Q

What is CTAF? Explain CTAF procedures at your training airport(s).

A
  • Common Traffic Advisory Frequency
  • 124.125
26
Q

How can you determine if a runway is closed?

A
  • NOTAMS
  • X’s on Runway
  • ATC Tells you
27
Q

What are the typical dimensions of Class D airspace and what requirement(s) must be met prior to entry?

A

Dimensions…..
- 2,500 AGL
- 4 NM

To enter Delta Airspace….
- You must have two-way communication

28
Q

What is the class of airspace at the airport where you will be conducting your first solo?

A
  • Delta
29
Q

If you receive ATC instructions that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you to violate an FAR, what should you do?

A
  • Say “Unable”
30
Q

Steady green in flight

A
  • Cleared to land
31
Q

Flashing green in flight

A
  • Return for landing
32
Q

Steady red in flight

A
  • Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
33
Q

Flashing red in flight

A
  • Do Not Land
34
Q

Steady green on the ground

A
  • Cleared for takeoff
35
Q

Flashing red on the ground

A
  • Taxi Clear of runway in use
36
Q

Flashing White on Ground

A
  • Return to starting point on airport
37
Q

Alternating red and green on ground

A
  • Exercise extreme caution
38
Q

Alternating red and green in flight

A
  • Exercise extreme caution
39
Q

In addition to equipment requirements and a student pilot certificate, what other requirements) must be met before a student pilot is authorized to fly solo within Class B airspace?

A
  • Endorsement
  • Must have flown in airspace with instructor
40
Q

Explain the general transponder equipment and use requirement(s) when operating within or near Class B airspace.

A
  • Squawk code they give you
  • Hit “ident”, if they ask us to
41
Q

Describe Class B airspace boundaries and how they apply to an airport within that airspace. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the Class B boundaries. (Draw a diagram, if necessary.)

A
  • The Shelf is 4,000’ MSL
  • It’s above KCXO
  • You need clearance to enter
42
Q

You have called ATC just prior to entering Class B airspace, and the controller tells you to “Squawk 2466 and ident.” Are you now allowed to enter Class B airspace without any further instructions? Explain.

A
  • Endorsement
  • Clearance
43
Q

On a sectional chart, what does a dashed magenta line around an airport indicate?

A
  • Echo Airspace
44
Q

Can a student or recreational pilot request a special VFR clearance in Class D airspace when visibility is less than three miles? Explain your answer.

A
  • No
  • Part 61.89
45
Q

You have called ATC prior to entering Class C airspace, and the controller responds with your call sign and tells you to “Standby.” Are you now allowed to enter this airspace without any further instructions? Explain.

A
  • Yes
  • Two-way radio communication
46
Q

Describe the typical dimensions of Class C airspace. Is participation in the radar service mandatory within the outer area of Class C airspace?

A
  • Individually Tailored OR
  • Surface 4,000’ AGL (5 NM)
  • 1200 - 4,000’ AGL (10 NM)

ATP (10 decks)

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