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Checkride Flashcards

1
Q

Private Pilot Eligibility Requirements (Reg. Number)

A

FAR 61.103

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2
Q

Private Pilot Eligibilty Requirements

A
  1. Be at least 17 years of age
  2. Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English
  3. Hold a US Student Pilot certification
  4. Hold at least a third class medical
  5. Receive and log ground and flight training and given proper endorsements by and authorized instructor
  6. Pass the required knowledge and practice tests
  7. Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements from FAR 61.109
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3
Q

Privileges and Limitations of a Pilot (Reg. Number)

A

FAR 61.113

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4
Q

Privileges and Limitations of a Pilot

A
  1. A private pilot may not pay less than the pro-rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only the fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees
  2. Except as provided below, no person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for hire; nor may that person, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft
  3. A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if: the flight is only incidental to that business or employment; and the aircraft does not carry passengers or property for the compensation or hire
  4. A private pilot who is an aircraft salesman and who has at least 200 hours of logged flight time
  5. A private pilot may act as pilot in command of a charitable, non-profit, or community event flight
  6. A private pilot of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultra-light vehicle
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5
Q

PIC Documents (Reg. Numbers)

A
  • Part 61.3
  • Part 91.3
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6
Q

PIC Documents (Required on Board)

A
  1. Pilot Certification
  2. Government-issued photo ID
  3. Unexpired & Applicable medical
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7
Q

Medical Requirements and Duration (Reg. Number)

A

Part 61.23

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8
Q

Physical Condition (I’M SAFE CHECKLIST) (Reg. Number)

A

AIM 8-1-1

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9
Q

What is Hyperventilation? What is it caused by?

A
  • Result of excessive loss of carbon dioxide into the body (Caused by; Stress, Fright, pain in which one’s breathing rate and depth increase leading to unconsciousness)
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10
Q

What is Carbon Monoxide Poisoning? What is the solution?

A
  • CO prevents the hemoglobin from carrying oxygen to the cells, resulting in Hypemic Hypoxia (Your body can absorb CO up to 200 times faster than oxygen) CO is odorless, colorless, produced by all internal combustion engines. The heater and defrost vents are the passageways for CO to enter the cockpit (If you smell exhausted take action immediately)
  • Turn fresh air vents on, open windows, turn off heater/defrost, and/or use supplemental oxygen
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11
Q

What is Decompression Sickness? What does it cause?

A
  • Not enough time to for the body to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed from diving, nitrogen bubbles can form in the bloodstream, spinal cord, or brain as pressure decreases with altitude.
  • Typically causes joint pain
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12
Q

What are the hazards regarding Scuba Diving? How long should you wait to fly if you had a controlled and non-controlled ascent?

A
  • A pilot or passenger who intends to fly should allow the body sufficient time to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving.

~ Controlled ascent - Wait 24 hours
~ Non-controlled ascent below 8,000 - Wait 12 hours
~ Non-controlled ascent over 8,000 - Wait 24 hours

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13
Q

Alcohol and Drug Requirements

A
  • No person may act or attempt to act as a crew-member of a civil aircraft:

~ 8 hours after consumption
~ while under the influence
~ while using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety
~ or while having an alcohol concentration greater than 0.04% BAC (Blood Alcohol Content)

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14
Q

Required Aircraft Documents (Reg. Number)

A

FAR 91.203

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15
Q

Required Aicraft Documents

A

A - Airworthiness Certificate (remains valid as long as the aircraft meets its approved type design, is in a condition for safe operation and maintenance, preventative maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance with CFR 14 Parts 21, 43, and 91)
R - Registration (expires three years after aircraft was registered or renewed - also expires: change of ownership, per request, registered in another country, crash, or 30 days after death of the owner)
R - Radio licenses (required if operating outside the US, pilot & aircraft licenses, acquired from Federal Communications Commission –FCC)
O - Operator’s Handbook (Pilot Operating Handbook – POH) 91.9 & 91.25
W - Weight & Balance (Official updated/current W&B located in the POH) Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) – Make Model

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16
Q

Required Aircraft Inspections

A

A - Annual Inspection (Every 12 months – Inspect the Aircraft) 91.409(a)
V - VOR* (Every 30 days) AIM 1-1-3 thru 1-1-8 & 91.171
1 - 100 Hour (Required for hire every 100 hours of flight time (Overflown by 10 hours for maintenance to inspect the “airframe”) 91.4099(b)
A - Altimeter* (24 calendar months) 91.215 & 91.413
T - Transponder (24 calendar months) 91.215 & 91.413
E - Electronic Location Transmitter ((ELT) (12 calendar months)) 91.207(d)
E - ELT Battery (1 hour of cumulative use or 50% of useable life) 91.207(c)
S - Static* (24 calendar months) 91.411
* Only required for IFR flight
• An annual inspection may take the place of a 100 hour inspection, however the 100 hour will not cover an annual inspection
• 100 hour inspection may be signed off by an Aircraft Maintenance Technician (AMT) who holds an Airframe and/or Power-plant certificate
(A&P), but an AMT who is an Authorized Inspector (AI) may sign off on annual inspections
* mention that if there is an AD due every 100 hours then you cannot over fly the AD

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17
Q

Required “DAY” VFR Equipment (Reg. Number)

A

Part 91.205(b)

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18
Q

Required “DAY” VFR Equipment

A

A - Airspeed Indicator
T - Tachometer (Per each engine)
O - Oil Pressure Gauge (Per each engine)
M - Manifold Pressure Gauge (Per each engine)
A - Altimeter
T - Temperature Gauge (Only if liquid cooled)
O - Oil Temperature Gauge (Only if air cooled)
F - Fuel Quantity Gauge (Per Tank)
L - Landing Gear Position Indicator (Only if gears are retractable)
A - Ant-Collision Lights
M - Magnetic Compass
E - Emergency Location Transmitter (ELT)
S - Seatbelts

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19
Q

Private Pilots Privileges + Limitations: Acronym

A

P - Pro Rata Share
S - Salesman (200 Total)
C - Charity
R - Rescue
I - Incidental to Business (Can’t Charge People)
P - Production (Test Pilot) (200 Total)
T - Tow Glider (100 Total)

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20
Q

Flight Review Requirements:

A
  • Must happen every 24 Calender Months
  • Must be current on Knowledge
  • Minimum 1 hour of flight training
  • 1 hour of ground instruction
  • Must be administered by a CFI
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21
Q

Is it possible to fail a flight review?

A
  • No, you just won’t be endorsed.
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22
Q

Who is the NTSB?

A

National Transportation Safety Board

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23
Q

What do you report to the NTSB? Where would you locate this?

A
  • Incidents
  • Accidents
  • FAR 830
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24
Q

What affects density altitude?

A

H - Heat
H - Humidity
H - High

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25
Q

What is ADM?

A
  • Aeronautical Decision Making
  • Go or No-Go
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26
Q

Define Proficiency and Currency.

A

Proficiency: It must be legal to do it. (Is it safe? Have I been to this airport before? Have I flown in these winds? Have I flown in this airspace before? Or this terrain?)

Currency: Is a legal definition. (Must have performed 3 landings at night within the past 90 days before carrying passengers.)

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27
Q

What are the three definitions on night?

A
  1. Sunset to Sunrise
  2. One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise
  3. Evening civil twilight to morning civil twilight
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28
Q

When would you need to turn on your position and anticollision lights on?

A
  • Sunset to Sunrise
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29
Q

If you need to get night currency to carry passengers, what must you do?

A
  • Three takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of flight controls of an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type.
  • If the aircraft is a tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been made to a full stop.
  • If operations are to be conducted during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, with passengers on board, the pilot-in-command must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during that period in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type is required) of aircraft to be used.
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30
Q

Can night landing be counted during the day?

A
  • Yes, however day landings cannot be counted towards night.
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31
Q

What are possible compass errors?

A

V - Variation (True vs. Magnetic)
D - Deviation (Magnetic Interference)
M - Magnetic Dip
O - Oscillation (Turbulence)
N - Northerly Turning Errors
A - Acceleration Errors

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32
Q

Can you perform a flight review as a private pilot?

A
  • The flight review must be performed by an authorized instructor
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33
Q

Explain to me the privileges that one may exercise if they hold a private pilot certificate. (Reg. Number)

A
  • FAR 61.113
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34
Q

Explain to me the limitations that can be imposed on the holder of a private pilot certificate.

A
  • FAR 61.113
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35
Q

Explain to me the duration of your medical certificate the duration of the privileges that you are allowed to exercise: (Reg. Number)

A
  • 61.23
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36
Q

Give several examples of when immediate notification is required to the NTSB:

A
  • Flight control system malfunction or failure
  • Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness
  • In-flight fire
  • Aircraft collision in flight
  • Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less
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37
Q

What is an AIRMET?

A
  • Advisories of significant weather phenomena
  • Describes conditions of intensities lower than those that require the issuance of a SIGMET
  • Issued for 6 hours periods (Amended as necessary due to changing weather conditions)
  • Typically weather that is hazardous to general aviation
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38
Q

Types of AIRMETS?

A
  • SIERRA
  • TANGO
  • ZULU
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39
Q

SIERRA

A
  • IFR Conditions and mountain obscuration
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40
Q

TANGO

A
  • Moderate turbulence
  • Sustained surface winds 30kts or greater
  • Low-Level Wind Shear
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41
Q

ZULU

A
  • Moderate icing
  • Freezing level heights
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42
Q

What is a SIGMET?

A
  • Advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to ALL aircraft
  • Issued every 4 hours
  • Visibility is less than 3 SM
  • Ex: Dust/ Sandstorms/ Volcanic Ash/ Severe Icing/ Severe Turbulence
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43
Q

What is a Convective SIGMET?

A
  • Advises of convective weather that is potentially hazardous to ALL aircraft
  • Severe or extreme weather associated with thunderstorms or convective activity
  • Surface winds greater than or equal to 50kts
  • Hail, at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4” in diameter
  • Severe icing, turbulence, or wind shear due to thunderstorms
  • Embedded thunderstorms
  • line of thunderstorms covering 40% or more of an area at least 60 miles
  • Issued every 2 hours
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44
Q

What is a TAF? When is it issued?

A
  • Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
  • Issued every 6 hours (4 times daily and valid for 24 hours) (Sometimes 30 Hours for airports with international flight)
  • Usually reports a 5 SM radius for station
  • Weather that has not happened but will happen (Forecasting)
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45
Q

What is a METAR? When is it issued?

A
  • Aviation Routine Weather Observation
  • Issued every hour or when needed for a SPECI
  • Weather that has already happened (Observation)
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46
Q

NTSB: Define an accident.

A
  • An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.
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47
Q

What are the required reports that must be made to the NTSB from a serious injury due to an accident?

A
  • Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date of the injury was received
  • Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose)
  • Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage
  • Involves any internal organ
  • Involves second or third-degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5 percent of the body surface.
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48
Q

What report must be made to the NTSB if there has been substantial damage to an aircraft from an accident?

A
  • Damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component.
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49
Q

What is Pilotage?

A
  • Navigation by reference to landmarks or checkpoints
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50
Q

What is Dead Reckoning?

A
  • Navigation Solely by computations based on time, airspace, distance and direction
51
Q

What is a NOTAM?

A
  • Notices to Airmen
  • Time-critical aeronautical information, which is either temporary or not known in advance to be printed on charts and publications
52
Q

What is Variation?

A
  • the difference between magnetic north and true north
53
Q

What is TC?

A
  • True Course
  • Measured clockwise from true North
54
Q

What is TH? How do calculate for this?

A
  • True Heading
  • True Course corrected for wind
  • Use E6B
55
Q

What is MH? Where can you find it?

A
  • Magnetic Heading
  • True Heading corrected for Variation
  • Found in VFR sectional
56
Q

What is CH?

A
  • Compass Heading
  • Magnetic Heading corrected for Deviation
57
Q

What is MC?

A
  • Magnetic Course
  • True Course corrected for Variation
58
Q

Required “NIGHT” VFR Equipment (Reg. Number)

A
  • Part 91.205
59
Q

Required “NIGHT” VFR Equipment

A

A - All day VFR instruments and equipment
F – Fuses (one spare set) or circuit breakers
L – Landing light (if the aircraft is operated for hire)
A – Anti-collision light system (aircraft manufactured after March 1996 require)
P – Position lights
S – Source of electrical energy (alternator)

60
Q

What is an AD? Is it mandatory? Who is responsible for complying with it?

A
  • An airworthiness directive (AD) is the medium the FAA uses to notify aircraft owners and other potentially interested persons of unsafe conditions that may exist because of design defects, maintenance, or other causes, and to specify the conditions under which the product may continue to be operated.
  • AD’s are regulatory in nature, and compliance is mandatory.
  • It is the aircraft owner’s or operator’s responsibility to ensure compliance with all pertinent AD’s.
61
Q

What are the two types of airworthiness directives?

A
  1. Those of an emergency nature requiring immediate compliance prior to further flight.
  2. Those of a less urgent nature requiring compliance within a specific period of time.
62
Q

What is a SAIB? Are they regulatory?

A
  • A Special Airworthiness Information Bulletin (SAIB) is an information tool that alerts, educates, and makes recommendations to the aviation community.
  • SAIBs contain non-regulatory information and guidance that does not meet the criteria for an airworthiness directive.
63
Q

What are “Special Flight Permits,” and when are they necessary?

A
  • A Special Flight Permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight. These permits are typically issued for the following purposes:
    • Flying an aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage
    • Delivering or exporting an aircraft
    • Production flight testing new-production aircraft
    • Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger
    • Conducting customer demonstration flights in new-production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests
64
Q

What is the Reg. Number for “Special Flight Permits”?

A
  • FAR 21.197
65
Q

What are some example of NOTAM’s?

A
66
Q

Oxygen Requirements. (Reg. Number)

A
  • Part 91.211
67
Q

Oxygen Requirements: 12,500’ and below

A
  • Crew and passengers are not required to provide or use supplemental oxygen
68
Q

Oxygen Requirements: 12,500’ and above

A
  • Crew must be on oxygen during the duration of the flight above that altitude for greater than 30 minutes
69
Q

Oxygen Requirements: 14,000’ and above

A
  • Crew must be on oxygen at all times
70
Q

Oxygen Requirements: 15,000’ and above

A
  • Crew must be on oxygen & all passengers must be offered and have access to supplemental oxygen
71
Q

What is a high pressure system?

A
  • Moves outward, downward, and clockwise
72
Q

What is a low pressure system?

A
  • Moves inwards, upwards, and counterclockwise
73
Q

What weather is associated with a high pressure system?

A
  • descending air, which tends to favor dissipation of cloudiness and good weather.
74
Q

What weather is associated with a low pressure system?

A
  • rising air, which is conducive to cloudiness, precipitation and bad weather.
75
Q

What are some acceptable sources of weather data for flight planning purposes?

A
  • www.aviationweather.gov
  • ForeFlight Weather Briefing
  • Flight Service Station (1-800-WX-BRIEF
  • NOA
76
Q

What is a SPECI?

A
77
Q

What is a cold front?

A
  • It occurs when a mass of cold, dense, and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air.
78
Q

What weather should you expect as the cold front passes?

A
  • expect weather that can include towering cumulus or cumulonimbus
  • heavy rain accompanied by lighting
  • thunder and/or hail
  • tornados possible
  • during passage, poor visibility, winds variable and gusting
  • temperature/dew point and barometric pressure drop rapidly.
79
Q

What is an occluded front? What are the two types?

A
  • A frontal occlusion occurs when a fast-moving cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front.
  • The two types are the cold front occlusion and warm front occlusion.
80
Q

What is a cold front occlusion?

A
81
Q

What is a warm front occlusion?

A
82
Q

What is a warm front?

A
  • The boundary area formed when a warm air mass contacts and flows over a colder air mass.
83
Q

What weather should you expect as the warm front passes?

A
  • expected weather can include stratiform clouds, drizzle, low ceilings and poor visibility
  • variable winds
  • rise in temperature.
84
Q

What is a stationary front?

A
  • When the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationary and influences the local weather for days. The weather is typically a mixture of both warm and cold fronts.
85
Q

What is a trough? What is it depicted by?

A
  • An elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure, characterized by cloudiness and precipitation
  • hence the general association of low pressure and bad weather
86
Q

What is a ridge?

A
  • An elongated area of relatively high atmospheric pressure, characterized by dissipation of cloudiness
  • hence the association of high pressure and good weather
87
Q

What is a microburst?

A
  • Microbursts can be found almost anywhere there is convective activity. They may be embedded in heavy rain associated with a thunderstorm or in light rain in benign-appearing virga. When there is little or no precipitation at the surface accompanying the microburst, a ring of blowing dust may be the only visual clue of its existence.
88
Q

What is a microburst? Describe their general size.

A
  • less than 1 mile in diameter as it descends from the cloud base
  • can extend 2.5 miles in diameter near ground level
89
Q

What is a microburst? Describe their intensity.

A
  • Downdrafts as strong as 6,000 feet per minute
  • horizontal winds near the surface can be as strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot wind shear (headwind to tailwind change for traversing aircraft)
90
Q

What is a microburst? Describe their duration.

A
  • An individual microburst will seldom last longer than 15 minutes from the time it strikes the ground until dissipation. Sometimes microbursts are concentrated into a line structure, and under these conditions activity may continue for as long as an hour.
91
Q

What is AHRS?

A

Attitude Heading Reference System

92
Q

What instruments do we get from AHRS?

A
  • Attitude Indicator
  • Heading Source Indicator
  • Rate of Turn Indicator
  • Slip/ Skid
93
Q

What are the 5 C’s for lost procedures? What are some solutions?

A
  1. Climb
  2. Communicate
  3. Confess
  4. Comply
  5. Conserve
  • Climb for a better view communication signal and navigation reception
  • Communicate with FSS, or ATC, or CTAF, etc

*VOR crosscheck

  • Look for landmarks, terrain, lakes, etc
94
Q

Can you fly with the fresh air fan off?

A

No, you need it.

95
Q

Can you fly with a hot mag?

A
  • Yes, but you shouldn’t.
  • Reg. Number 91. 205
96
Q

What time would I need to perform full stop landings to be current to carry passengers at night?

A
  • One hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise
97
Q

What do I need to stay current as a private pilot?

A
  • Flight review
  • Current on knowledge
  • Valid medical certificate
98
Q

Whose responsibility it was to make sure the plane is airworthy?

A
  • PIC
99
Q

If you were to lose a specific instrument during the flight. What needs to be done when you land?

A
  • Squawk the plane for maintenance
100
Q

You are at an untowered airport with a friend and no tow bar and your airplane engine dies but the P-lead(s) may not be grounded. How do you move the airplane backward into its parking spot?

A
101
Q

You have an engine failure. What do you do?

A
  • ABCDE checklist immediately
102
Q

What frequency should you have in comm two during cross-country?

A
  • 121.5
103
Q

What is hypoxia?

A
  • a state of oxygen deficiency in the body
104
Q

What is NOT a type of hypoxia?

A
  • Hypertoxic
105
Q

What is a correct response to counteract the feelings of hypoxia in flight?

A
  • Promptly descend altitude
106
Q

A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation. by…..

A
  • Slowing the breathing rate
  • Breathing into a bag
  • Talking aloud
107
Q

When are pilots more subject to spatial disorientation?

A
  • when their visual cues are taken away as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)
108
Q

What effect does haze have the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A
  • All traffic or terrain features to be farther away than their actual distance.
109
Q

What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?

A
  • Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
110
Q

What can large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the body result in?

A
  • Loss of muscular power
111
Q

What should you do if you detect an exhaust leak while in flight?

A
  • Open air vents
  • Open windows
112
Q

What is a VOR?

A
113
Q

What is a TFR?

A
  • Temporary Flight Restriction
  • To protect persons or property in the air or the surface, provide safe environment for operation of disaster relief aircraft, protect the President and Vice President, or other public figures, provide safe environment for space agency
  • They are sent out via NOTAMS
  • They can be imposed over floods and other natural disasters such as wildland fires where there may be rescue or fire suppression flights occurring in the same area.
114
Q

What is the ACS?

A
115
Q

What is a DPE?

A
116
Q

What is an AD? Who issues them?

A
  • Airworthiness Directive
  • Are issued when there are repetitive problems with the aircraft that has drawn the attention of the FAA.
  • They usually require frequent attention and checks
  • They also tell you what the inspection requirements are and what the solution for them is.
  • The FAA
117
Q

Whose responsibility is to determine if the plane is airworthy?

A
  • PIC
118
Q

If you are an owner of an aircraft, what are your responsibilities?

A
  • To maintain the aircraft.
119
Q

What are the Four types of Hypoxia?

A
  • Stagnant
  • Hypemic
  • Hypoxic
  • Histoxic
120
Q

What happens when you are hypoxic?

A
  • Insufficient oxygen available to the lungs
121
Q

What happens when you are Hypemic?

A
  • Blood is not able to transport sufficient oxygen to the cells in the body (Usually due to anemia or carbon monoxide poisoning)
122
Q

What happens when you are stagnant?

A
  • Oxygen deficiency due to inadequate blood circulation
123
Q

What happens when you are histotoxic?

A
  • Inability of cells to effectively use oxygen due to drugs or alcohol
124
Q

What is the GAS flow?

A

ATP (10 decks)

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