Pre Test Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the at power trips blocked by P7?

A

PRZ Pressure Low

PRZ Water Level High

RCS Loss of Flow

UV on RCP Busses

UF on RCP Busses

RCP Breaker Position

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2
Q

What are the inputs to OT Delta T?

A

Delta T

Tave

AFD

PRZ Press

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3
Q

What does OT Delta T Protect from?

A

DNB

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4
Q

What are the inputs for OP Delta T?

A

Delta T

Tave

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5
Q

What does OP Delta T protect from?

A

KW / Ft

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6
Q

What starts the CEQ Fans?

A

1 psi in Containment.

NOT Phase A

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7
Q

What is the function of P4?

A

+ Low Tavg = FWI

Permits manual block of auto SI Signals

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8
Q

What are the setpoints for P6 while going up in power?

A

10-10 Amps

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9
Q

What are the setpoints for P6 coming down in power?

A

6 x 10-11 amps

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10
Q

When does the SR Hi flux at SD alarm blocked clear?

A

10-10 amps

P6

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11
Q

What are the 4 functions of P10?

A

Permits manual block of:

  1. PR Hi Flux Trip, Low Setpoint
  2. IR Trip
  3. IR Rod Stop

Also is the backup de-energization of SR

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12
Q

Which rod stops are for auto and manual rod withdrawal?

A

C1

C2

C3

C4

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13
Q

How are rods affected during a PR NI failure - High?

A

Rods insert and will not withdraw bc of C2

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14
Q

What is C9?

A

1 Circ Pump Breaker Closed

CRID II

3/3 Condenser Vac >= 20.6 “Hg

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15
Q

When is AMSAC enabled?

A

2/2 Turbine Impulse Pressures >40%

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16
Q

When is the runback of the MFP enabled?

A

> 60% power

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17
Q

What is the only pressurizer level failure that will not cause a trip with no operator action?

A

Bistable fails high

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18
Q

While PRZ Heaters be protected during a cooldown?

A

No. Actual level will be less than 17% when indicated on the hot cal

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19
Q

What is the TRM Temperature for aux spray delta T?

A

320*F

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20
Q

Which pressure channel inputs into QMO-225, East CCP ELO?

A

NPP-151

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21
Q

Which pressure channel inputs into QMO-226, West CCP ELO?

A

NPP-153

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22
Q

What must be done if SDM is not within the COLR limits?

A

Borate to restore within 15 mins

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23
Q

What is QLC-451, VCT Level control primarily responsible for?

A

Makeup

Starts at 14%. Stops at 24%

Divert trips open at 87%

Has high, Low and Low low alarm. As well as MU Not in Auto

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24
Q

What is QLC-452, VCT Level control primarily responsible for?

A

Divert

Starts at 78%. Full open at 87%.

Has Low and Low Low alarm

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25
The turbine trip controller maintains temperature at ______ using a maximum of _____ groups of valves.
547*F 2 Groups
26
How many groups of valves are available for a load rejection?
2 groups for C7A 3 groups for C7B
27
How do you know how many groups of valves are open on a turbine trip?
Temperature. 10*F differential = 1 group trips open 20*F differential = 2nd group trips open
28
How many groups are available in steam pressure mode below 541*F?
1 group after going to bypass
29
What is the ECCS Acceptance Criteria?
Peak Clad Temp < 2200*F Max Clad Oxidation < 17% H2 generation < 1% max Coolable geometry
30
What are the typical injection pressures and flows for the ECCS Pumps?
CCP 2300# 150-550 gpm SI 1600# 400-600 gpm RHR 200# 4500 gpm
31
What are the tech specs for the accumulators?
Volume 921 - 971 cu ft Pressure 585 - 658 psig Boron 2400-2600 ppm
32
What is QPTR?
Max of all Upper (lower) vs Average of all Upper (lower)
33
What must be done if AFD is not in target band at > 90% power?
15 mins to restore or get below 90% in another 15 mins
34
What must be done if you’re between 50-90% power and AFD is not in the target band?
Reduce to < 50% power in less than 30 mins
35
What are the inputs to Rod Control?
Auctioneered High Tave Auctioneered High PR NI MPC-253
36
How fast do rods move in auto with a 3-5*F mismatch?
8-72 spm 32 steps per degree + 8
37
What do you do if you’re outside of the ARM?
1 rod out, borate to SDM in 1 hr, power to 75% in 2 hrs > 1 rod out, borate to SDM in 1 hr or M3 in 6 hrs
38
What 3 things go into determining which Mode we are in?
Keff % Rated Thermal Power RCS Tave
39
How many RCS / RHR Loops need to be operable in M4?
Any combo of 2 RCS / 2 RHR Loops
40
In Mode 5 with loops filled, what are the RHR requirements?
2 RHR Loops operable OR 1 RHR Loop operable and 2 SGs
41
In Mode 5 with Loops Drained, what are the RHR requirements?
2 RHR Loops Operable, with 1 I/S
42
What are th RHR Requirements in Mode 6 > or = to 23 ft?
1 RHR Loop Operable
43
What are the RHR Requirements in Mode 5 when < 23 ft?
2 RHR Loops Operable with 1 I/S
44
What are the inputs into the Subcooling Meter?
Auctioneered High CETCs or WR RTD Temps Auctioneered LO RVLIS pressure
45
What must be done if Tave is < 541*F while critical?
Be in M2 w Keff < 1 in 30 mins
46
What must be done with reactor critical when Tave is < 539*F?
Immediately place R in subcritical position
47
What is the heat up rate?
60*F / hr
48
What is the cooldown rate?
100*F / hr
49
What must be done if ou are outside of your cooldown rate in modes 1-4?
Restore within 30 mins due to brittle fracture concerns
50
Why is 600 gpm RHR flow sent to L2&3 during a cooldown?
TO keep L3 subcooled during a PRZ Outsurge
51
Which RHR pump supplies suction to SI Pumps on CL Recirc?
West
52
Which RHR Pump supplies suction to the CCPs during Recirc Phase?
East
53
What are the containment temperature limits?
Lower = 60-120*F Upper = 60-100*F
54
What are the containment pressure limits?
-1.5 psig to +0.3 psig
55
What are the U1 SG Low and Low Low trips?
15% and 5%
56
What are the U2 SG Low and Low Low Trips?
26% and 22%
57
What are the EDG trips during a SI or LOOP?
Generator Phase Differential Electronic Overspeed Manual PB
58
What is the purpose of raising load to 900-1100 KW quickly after closing the DG output breaker?
Prevents motoring the EDG due to no-load conditions
59
What will give a Load Cons signal?
LOOP and SI Or LOOP and CTS
60
What is considered a High Rad area?
80-800 men in 1 hr at 30 cm
61
What is considered a Locked High Rad area?
>800 mermaids in 1 hr at 30 cm | Less than 500 rides in 1 hr at 1 meter
62
WHat is considered a contamination area?
1000 DPM beta gamma on 100 sq cm Or 20 DPM / 100 sq cm of alpha
63
What is considered a HIGH contamination area?
> 100,000 DPM / 100 sq cm
64
What are the 10CFR20 Limits for TEDE?
5 R / yr
65
What are the admin limits at cook for TEDE?
2 R / year
66
Which rad monitors cause a CVI?
Upper containment VRS-1101/1201
67
Which temperature inputs into RPS?
NR Thot
68
A load rejection at ______ presents the greater short term challenges due to ______
BOL Lower MTC reactivity feedback allowing for a larger rise in Tave
69
A load rejection at ______ presents the greater long term challenges due to ______
EOL Xenon oscillations
70
XS LD Hx design flow is ______
20 gpm
71
If outside of the RIL (rod bank low low lit), what must be done?
Emergency borate
72
If the Rod Bank Low light is like, what does it mean?
May be outside AFD. Achieve thermal power < 50% immediately
73
MFP DP variable setpoint looks at _______
Total steam flow
74
PR N42 failing low will have cause what to happen due to delta I changes?
Lowers OTDT Setpoint
75
What do amps do on a locked rotor?
Rise
76
What does speed do on a sheared shaft?
Rise
77
What must you do with 1 stuck rod?
Verify SDM in 1 hr
78
What must you do if the TS safety limit for RCS Pressure is exceeded in Mode 1?
2735 psig, be in hot standby within 1 hr
79
Why would you suspend additions to GDT when it contains > 43,800 curies noble gas?
To prevent an uncontrolled release of contents from exceeding 500 mermaids whole body dost at the site boundary
80
WHat is the cutoff dose where the worker must be a volunteer?
> 25 REM
81
Which channel of VRS-1500 has automatic actions?
1509, HR Noble gas
82
How do you determine a new leak rate?
Square root of new DP / Square root of old DP x Original Leakrate
83
Which SR NIs feed into the audible count rate?
N31 and N32
84
How does the MT act with MW control IN?
Valves move in attempt to maintain load (may draw more steam if needed)
85
If you are at 100 cps on the SR NIs, where are you on IR NIs?
~ 10-11
86
How many REM can be received before you start seeing somatic effects?
Up to 100 REM