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FCMS > Pre ICA - Nerissa > Flashcards

Pre ICA - Nerissa Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryote - multicellular, diploid, and has nucleus.
Prokaryote - Unicellular, haploid, and does not have a nucleus.

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2
Q

What are stem cells?

A

Unspecialised cells, that divide and differentiate to become somatic cells.

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3
Q

What is the plasma membrane commonly known as?

A

The security of the cell.

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4
Q

What happens when there is increased permeability?

A

Ca influx, which activates membrane repair response.

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5
Q

What happens if membrane repair response is over-activated?

A

Cancer invasion.

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6
Q

What happens if the membrane repair response is under-activated?

A

Neurodegeneration and muscular dystrophy.

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7
Q

What is a membrane made out of?

A

Lipids.

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8
Q

What happens if configurations of lipids are altered?

A

Causes increase in membrane permeability. The function of the membrane is lost.

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9
Q

What happens when membrane function is lost?

A

Membrane becomes vulnerable, neurodegenerative diseases.

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10
Q

Myocardial infarction results into what?

A

ischemia - damages the membrane, which cause an increase in permeability.

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11
Q

What happens when there is an increase in membrane permeability due to ischemia?

A

Influx of ions and fluids, this make the cell small, forming blebs

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12
Q

What are glycocalyx?

A

Glucose chains that are attached to lipids and proteins

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13
Q

What is the function of glycocalyx?

A

Cell recognition.
Cell-to-cell interaction.

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14
Q

What happens if CFTR is either faulty or absent?

A

Cystic fibrosis. Water cannot hydrate cellular surface, chloride trapped in cell.

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15
Q

What is brugada syndrome?

A

SCN5A Na cardiac channels mutations. Decrease in Na causes abnormal heartbeats.

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16
Q

If someone comes down with a fever, what happens to the fluidity and rigidity of the membrane?

A

Less rigidity and more fluidity.
Proteins and molecules go in and out, which can change the permeability - allowing harmful molecules to enter.

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17
Q

What is kartagener’s syndrome?

A

Autosomal recessive. Microtubule.
Impaired mucociliary clearance.
Immobility of sperm tail.
Impaired ciliary action of ovum.

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18
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Defective changes in neurofilaments. Intermediate filament.
Produces tangles and aggregations.

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19
Q

What is nucleoplasm?

A

Surrounds chromatin and nucleoli. Transcription (DNA -> RNA).

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20
Q

What is the nucleolus?

A

RNA synthesis and ribosome assembley.

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21
Q

What is Euchromatin?

A

Active transcription.

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22
Q

What is heterochromatin?

A

Inactive transcription.

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23
Q

What is Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy?

A

Affects adipose tissue, skeletal muscle, peripheral nerve or skeletal development.

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24
Q

What is Laminopathies?

A

Mutated gene that is encoding lamina.

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25
Q

What cells are devoid of a nucleus?

A

Keratinocytes and RBC’s.

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26
Q

What is rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Increased protein secretion - pancreatic acinar cells, fibroblasts and plasma cells.
Modification and folding of proteins synthesized on ribosomes.

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27
Q

What is smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Cells that secrete steroid hormones - adrenal cortex, testis and ovaries.
Synthesis of lipids.

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28
Q

What is neonatal jaundice?

A

Underdeveloped smooth endoplasmic reticulum in liver cells. Error in bilirubin metabolism.

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29
Q

What is hurler syndrome?

A

lack of an enzyme that the body needs to digest carbohydrates.

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30
Q

What is gaucher disease?

A

Fat-laden gaucher cells build up in places like spleen.

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31
Q

What is Tay-sachs disease?

A

Absence of enzyme that breaks down fatty substances.

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32
Q

What are the effects of drugs on lyosomal function? Chloroquine accumulation.

A

Increase pH of lyosomal content.
Inactivated lyosomal enzymes.
Inhibits autophagy but activates apoptosis.

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33
Q

What is the shape of cells in the distended and non-distended transitional epithelium?

A

Non-distended: Base is cuboidal, middle is polygonal, surface is dome shaped.
Distended; Base is cuboidal, while the middle and surface are flat.

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34
Q

What are facultative dividers?

A

Go — May re-enter cell if needed. Fibroblasts, hepatocytes, pancreas, kidney, and breast.

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35
Q

What is the G1 phase?

A

Longest phase - active RNA and protein synthesis.

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36
Q

What happens in the G2 phase?

A

Cells prepare for mitosis.

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37
Q

What is GTD?

A

When cells lose the ability to undergo mitosis - point of no return. Cardiomyocytes, neurons.

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38
Q

What is static cell population?

A

Cells that no longer divide - found in skeletal and cardiac muscle.

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39
Q

What is stable cell population?

A

Cells that divide slowly to maintain normal tissue structures - found in smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts and perichondral cells.

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40
Q

What is renewing cell population?

A

Slowly or rapidly but with normal mitatic activity. Rapidly - blood cells
Slowly - smooth muscle cells of hollow organs.

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41
Q

What is the G1 DNA-damage checkpoint?

A

Monitors quality of newly formed cells. Target in cancer cells.

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42
Q

What are the most important checkpoints in the cell cycle?

A

Between G1 and S- restriction checkpoint.

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43
Q

What happens in the restriction checkpoint?

A

Cell evaluates it ability to replicate - No way of returning.

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44
Q

What happens in unreplicated DNA checkpoint?

A

If DNA synthesis is not complete, it will prevent progression of cell into M phase.

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45
Q

What does the cell cycle require?

A

Cyclin and Cyclin-dependent kinase.

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46
Q

Where is CyclinD-CDK4/6 found?

A

In G1.

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47
Q

If there is mutation in the G1 phase (cdk) what would happen?

A

Primary microcephaly

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48
Q

What are proto-oncogenes?

A

Timing of cell division.

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49
Q

What are tumor suppressor genes?

A

Suppress abnormal cell growth.

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50
Q

What happens if there is a mutation in the G1 & S & G2 checkpoints?

A

Failure to arrest cycle - Abnormal chromosome segregation.

51
Q

What is used for cancer therapy?

A

S & G2.

52
Q

What is asynopsis?

A

Mutations in encoding genes for synapses.
Meiotic recombination defects.
Apoptosis in gametes - infertility.

53
Q

What is necrosis of cell?

A

Impairment of cell’s ability to maintain homeostasis- cause by acute cell injury.

54
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Normal - controlled autodigestion.

55
Q

What happens when cell death is higher than cell division?

A

Net loss will occur - AIDS, Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s and myocardial infarction.

56
Q

What happens when cell division is higher that cell death?

A

Net gain increases - Cancer, lupus, and viral infections.

57
Q

What are examples of simple squamous epithelium?

A

Endothelium - diffusion and exchange.
Alveoli of lung - diffusion and exchange.
Mesothelium - facilitates movement wishing body cavity.

58
Q

What are examples of simple cuboidal epithelium?

A

Tubules of kidney - filters blood through absorption.
Ovary - repair.
Thyroid gland - secretion of hormone.
Bile duct of liver - secretion of bile.

59
Q

What are examples of non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium?

A

Stomach - digestion.
Gall bladder - absorption.
Colon - absorption.

60
Q

What are examples of ciliated simple columnar epithelium?

A

Fallopian tubes - secretory and transport.

61
Q

What are examples of non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

A

Oral cavity, pharynx, osophagus, vagina - protection.

62
Q

What are examples of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

A

Epidermis, anus - protection.

63
Q

Differentiate between stratified cuboidal and columnar epithelia?

A

Stratified cuboidal - 2-3 layers, ducts of salivary glands and minimal secretion.

Stratified columnar - basal cuboidal cells + superficial columnar cells, ducts of exocrine glands, male urethra and palpebral conjuctiva, secretion and protection.

64
Q

What are examples of non-ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

A

Vas deferens and epididymis - absorption. No goblet cells

65
Q

What are examples of ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

A

Upper respiratory tract - secretion.

66
Q

What happens with habitual smokers with chronic bronchitis?

A

Increase in goblet cells, excess mucus production in areas of limited cilia.

67
Q

Differentiate between non-distended and distended transitional epithelium?

A

Non-distended - scalloped, 4-5 cell layers.
Distended - flattened, 2-3 cell layers.

68
Q

What happens when there is squamous metaplasia in bronchi?

A

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelia gets replaced by stratified squamous epithelia. increased risk of dysplasia and carcinoma.

69
Q

What happens in barrett’s esophagus? epithelial metaplasia.

A

Chronic GERD - stratified squamous epithelia gets replaced by simple columnar with goblet cells. May progress to adenocarcinoma.

70
Q

What is the main protein in the tight junction?

A

Occludins.

71
Q

What is a tight junction?

A

Prevents molecules from going to adjacent cells.

72
Q

What is the main protein in adhering junction?

A

Cadherins.

73
Q

What is a adhering junction?

A

Maintain cellular position.

74
Q

What is the main protein in a Gap junction?

A

Connexins.

75
Q

What is a gap junction?

A

Acts as channels - passage of ions and molecules.

76
Q

What is the main protein in a hemidesmosome?

A

Integrins laminins.

77
Q

What is a hemidesmosome?

A

Anchors and connects cell to lamina.

78
Q

What happens in food poisoning?

A

Chlostridium perfringens attacks tight junction. Leads to malfunction to that junction.

79
Q

What happens in an asthma attack?

A

Dust mites and pathogens attack tight junction.

80
Q

Give characteristics of serous and mucus cells.

A

Serous - Small pyramidal, large ducts, and round-centred nucleus. Dark staining and enzymatic action.
Mucus - short columnar, small ducts, and flat nucleus. Light staining and protection and lubrication.

81
Q

Where is a simple tubular gland found?

A

Colon - secretion.

82
Q

Where is a simple coiled tubular gland found?

A

Sweat glands - secretion (merocrine).

83
Q

Where is a simple branched tubular gland found?

A

Stomach and intestine - secretion (mucus secreting cells).

84
Q

Where is a simple acinar gland found?

A

Penile urethra - mucus-secreting cells.

85
Q

Where is a simple branched acinar gland found?

A

Sebaceous glands - serous-secreting cells.

86
Q

What are sebaceous glands involved in?

A

Acne vulgaris.

87
Q

What is acne vulgaris?

A

Excessive holocrine secretion of sebum and keratin.
Blockage of glandular ducts.

88
Q

Compound branched tubular glands can be found where?

A

Brunners glands of duodenum - mucus-secreting cells.

89
Q

Where can compound acinar glands be found?

A

Pancreas has number of acini and mammary glands - serous-secreting cells.

90
Q

Where can compound tubulo-acinar glands be found?

A

Salivary glands - mucus-serous cells - merocrine secretion.

91
Q

Where does cell exfoliation occur?

A

Skin epidermis.
Surfaces of internal cavities.
Major exocrine ducts.

92
Q

What are muscle tissue properties?

A

Excitability.
Extensibility.
Elasticity.
Contractility.

93
Q

What are characteristics of skeletal muscle cells?

A

Function - protection.
Nuclei - multinucleated.
Voluntary movement.
Well developed sER and T tubules.

94
Q

What are the structural components from outer to middle?

A

Epimysium.
Perimysium.
Endomysium.
Myocyte.
Myofibril.
Myofilament.

95
Q

What is sarcolemma?

A

Myocyte cell membrane.

96
Q

What is sarcoplasm?

A

Cytoplasm of myocyte.

97
Q

What is sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

form of ER, houses intercellular Ca.

98
Q

What is a triad in myocyte?

A

2 terminal cisternae + T tubule.

99
Q

What does the I band contain?

A

Myofilament actin.

100
Q

What does the A band contain?

A

Myofilament myosin.

101
Q

What does the H zone contain?

A

Myosin.

102
Q

What does the Z disc contain?

A

Actin.

103
Q

What is actinin?

A

Structural - attaches actin to Z-disc.

104
Q

What is tintin?

A

Elastic - Stabilize position of myosin.

105
Q

What is dystrophin?

A

Cohesive - links thin filaments to sarcolemma.

106
Q

What happens in a relaxed state?

A

Tropomyosin blocks actin-myosin binding site.

107
Q

What happens during contraction?

A

SR releases Ca.
Ca binds to troponin.
Troponin moves tropomyosin out of the way.
Actin-myosin binding happens.

108
Q

Where would we find Fast-twitch type IIB?

A

Extraocular and limb digits.

109
Q

Where would we find Fast-twitch type IIA?

A

Major lower limb muscle.

110
Q

Where would we find Slow-twitch type I?

A

Postural muscles.

111
Q

What are signs of myasthenia gravis?

A

ptopia, dysphagia, diplopia.

112
Q

What are characteristics of cardiac muscle cells?

A

Involuntary.
Joined at intercalated discs.
Centrally - Located nuclei.

113
Q

What is a diad in cardiac muscle cell?

A

1 T tubule + 1 End of SR.

114
Q

What is a transverse component of the intercalated discs?

A

Perpendicular to myofibrils.
Desmosome: reinforce fascia and cell-cell adhesion.
Fascia adherens: attachment site for I bands.

115
Q

What is a lateral component of the intercalated discs?

A

Parallel to myofibrils.
Gap junctions: passage of macromolecules and electrical impulse.

116
Q

What happens when there is occlusion of coronary artery?

A

Reduce blood supply, ischemia - myocardial infarction. Lack of satellite means cannot regenerate, replacement with fibrous tissue.

117
Q

What is the difference between diad and triad?

A

Triad - complex, AI junction, 2.
Diad - simpler, Z disc, 1.

118
Q

What are some characteristic of smooth muscle cells?

A

Walls of hollow organs, well developes sER, involuntary.

119
Q

What is multi-unit smooth muscle?

A

Not electrically connected, iris of eye and epididymis.

120
Q

What is a single-unit smooth muscle?

A

Electrically connected, visceral smooth muscle of hollow organs.

121
Q

What is leiomyomas?

A

Tumour of smooth muscle.
Occurs in uterus.

122
Q

What are causes of leiomyomas?

A

Hormonal changes.
Family history.
Pregnancy.

123
Q
A

FCMS (5 decks)

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