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FCMS > Post ICA - Nerissa > Flashcards

Post ICA - Nerissa Flashcards

1
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

Formation of gametes in gonads of males and females.

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2
Q

What are gametes?

A

Spermatozoa and ova.

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3
Q

What is the genetic material for gametes?

A

Changes from diploid to haploid.

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4
Q

How many chromosomes do gametes have?

A

23 chromosomes

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5
Q

Where is the site of spermatogenesis?

A

Testes in scrotum.

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6
Q

Where is the site of oogenesis?

A

Ova.

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7
Q

Why is gametogenesis important?

A

Sustains species.
Genetic variability.
Early embryo developement.

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8
Q

What happens in embryonic development during week 2?

A

Primordial germ cells form in epiblast.

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9
Q

What happens during embryonic development by the end of week 3?

A

Germ cells arrive in yolk sac.

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10
Q

What happens during embryonic development by week 4?

A

Germ cells migrate from yolk sac toward developing gonads.

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11
Q

What happens during embryonic development by the end of week 5?

A

Germ cells arrive at gonads.

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12
Q

What happens when germ cells reach the gonads?

A

Maturation - They undergo gametogenesis and cytodifferentiation.

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13
Q

What is spermatogenesis?

A

Production of sperm.

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14
Q

Where does the production of sperm occur?

A

Seminiferous tubules of testes.

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15
Q

What is production of sperm influenced by?

A

Androgens from leydig cells.

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16
Q

Are spermatogonia haploid or diploid?

A

Diploid.

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17
Q

What does 4 haploid cells develop into?

A

Develop into mature sperm.

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18
Q

What does azospermia factor on Y during molecular regulation do?

A

Mediate spermatogonia differentiation and spermatid maturation.

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19
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

Development of ova which occurs in the ovary.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of oogonia?

A

Replicates and forms primary oocytes.

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21
Q

Where are the primary oocytes contained?

A

Within the primary follicle.

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22
Q

What does primary oocyte begin?

A

It begins meiosis 1.

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23
Q

Where does the primary oocyte arrest?

A

Arrests in prophase 1 but stays within the primary follicle.

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24
Q

What happens to the primary oocyte when there is an influence of FSH and LH?

A

It completes meiosis 1, and forms a 2ndary oocyte with a first polar body.

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25
Q

What does the 2ndary oocyte begin?

A

Meiosis 2.

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26
Q

Where does the 2ndary oocyte arrest?

A

Metaphase 2.

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27
Q

Where is the 2ndary oocyte contained?

A

Mature/graafian follicle.

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28
Q

What is the cytostatic factor during oogenesis molecular regulation?

A

Suspension and restarting until puberty.

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29
Q

What is the maturation promoting factor during oogenesis?

A

Maturation of oocyte.

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30
Q

What happens at day 14 of menstrual cycle?

A

The Graafian follicle ruptures, releasing 2ndary oocyte.

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31
Q

What happens to the graafian follicle when it ruptures?

A

The ruptured follicle grown into corpus luteum.

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32
Q

What does the corpus luteum secrete?

A

Progesterone and estrogen.

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33
Q

What happens if sperm is present in fallopian tube?

A

Penetration of sperm and the release of LH triggers the completion of meiosis 2.

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34
Q

What does the 1st polar body give off?

A

2 more polar bodies.

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35
Q

What causes the formation of zygote at fertilizaiton?

A

The fusion of spermatozoon and nuclei of ovum.

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36
Q

What happens if sperm is absent in fallopian tube?

A

2ndary oocyte does not complete meiosis 2. Hormone levels of progesterone and estrogen decrease.

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37
Q

What does corpus luteum degenerates into if sperm is absent in fallopian tube?

A

Corpus albicans, which are absorbed into ovary.

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38
Q

What is ovulation stimulated by?

A

Surge in LH.

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39
Q

What happens to the estogen and progesterone if there is a surge in LH?

A

A decrease in estrogen.
A increase in progesterone.

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40
Q

Why do some women fail to ovulate?

A

Because of low concentrations of gonadotropins.

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41
Q

What needs to be administered if there is failure of ovulation due to low concentrations of gonadotropins?

A

Gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist drug.

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42
Q

If Gonadotropin releasing hormone drug is administered, what is a common side effect / complication?

A

Multiple ovulations = Multiple pregnancies.

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43
Q

Where would fertilization occur?

A

Ampulla of fallopian tube.

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44
Q

What is corona radiata?

A

2-3 layers, attached to zona pellucida - Supplies cell with proteins.

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45
Q

What is zona pellucida?

A

Contains a glycoprotein coat, and regulates interactions between sperm and egg.

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46
Q

What is vitelline membrane?

A

Cell membrane of oocyte.

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47
Q

What does the head of sperm contain?

A

Packets of acrosin enzyme within the acrosome.

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48
Q

What is the function of the centriole in the sperm?

A

Form flagellum and assist with sperm movement.

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49
Q

What does the mid-piece of the sperm contain?

A

Mitohondria.

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50
Q

What is the axoneme of the sperm?

A

Central strand of flagellum. composed of array of microtubules.

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51
Q

Movement of sperm from cervix to fallopian tube is accomplished by what?

A

Its own propulsion via the flagella.

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52
Q

What happens when spermatozoa reaches isthmus?

A

Becomes less motile, and cease their migration.

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53
Q

What is capacitation?

A

Period of conditioning - A glycoprotein coat and seminal plasma proteins are removed from the plasma membrane, the sperm then penetrates corona radiata.

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54
Q

What happens when sperm penetrates corona radiata?

A

Only one sperms passes corona radiata.
This sperm binds to zona pellucida - Regulated by ligand ZP3 and SP56 on acrosome.

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55
Q

What happens when sperms binds to zona pellucida?

A

There is going to be two responses - Inducing of acrosome reaction and cortical and zona reactions.

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56
Q

What is fast block?

A

Influx of Na, pH, membrane potential. Electrical charge across surface of egg.

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57
Q

What happens when there is an acrosome reaction?

A

There is a release of acrosomal enzymes (Acrosin) - Fast block (electrical barrier)

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58
Q

What happens when there is a release of acrosomal enzymes?

A

The spermatozoon penetrates ZP. The enzymes degrade the ZP

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59
Q

What happens when the sperm successfully penetrates the zona pellucida?

A

The sperm binds to specific receptors on egg’s surface, which triggers fusion of egg and sperm.

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60
Q

What happens during cortical and zona reactions?

A

These reactions are important to prevent polyspermy. Slow block - mechanical barrier.

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61
Q

What results in a cortical reaction?

A

Close contact between sperm and oocyte.

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62
Q

What happens in a cortical reaction?

A

Increase in intracellular calcium from endoplasmic reticulum.

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63
Q

What happens when there is an increase in intracellular calcium?

A

Release of lyosomal enzymes from cortical granules. Oocyte membrane becomes impenetrable to other sperm.

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64
Q

How do these enzymes play a role in the zona reaction?

A

ZP alters its structure, inactivating receptor binding site for any spermatozoon on the zona surface.

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65
Q

What is the zona reaction regulated by?

A

Zona lysin - lyosomal enzyme from acrosome.

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66
Q

What is the response of the secondary oocyte to entry of sperm?

A

2nd mitotic division.
Metabolic activation of ovum.

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67
Q

Explain fusion of male and female nuclei?

A

Nuclei come into close contact, the membrane degenerates, formation of zygote, formation of mitosis.

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68
Q

What are the results of fertilization?

A

Restoration of diploid chromosome number.
Determination of gender.

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69
Q

What happens in the stages of cleavage?

A

Zygote undergoes a series of mitotic divisions, which increases the number of cells.
Cells increase in number and decrease in size.

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70
Q

What happens at the 8-cell stage?

A

Compaction occurs.

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71
Q

What is compaction?

A

Cells clump together forming an organized structure.

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72
Q

What are blastomeres?

A

Formed when zygote undergoes cleavage. The cells that the zygote has divided into.

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73
Q

What do blastomeres do?

A

In compaction, the contact is maximized between blastomeres forming tight junctions.

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74
Q

What happens when tight junction are present?

A

Deformation of rounded shaped blastomeres.

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75
Q

What happens at the 16-cell stage of cleavage?

A

Embryo divides to form 16-celled morula.

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76
Q

What happens in the 16-celled morula?

A

Inner cells of morula has an inner cell mass.
The outer cells of morula has an outer cell mass.

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77
Q

What will the inner cell mass give rise to later on?

A

Embryoblast/embryo proper. (pluripotent).

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78
Q

What will the outer cell mass give rise to?

A

Will form the trophoblast, which will form the placenta and fetal membranes.

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79
Q

What happens to the morula while inner/outer masses do their thing?

A

Enters uterine cavity but does not attach, meaning there is no implantation. The fluid then penetrates through zona pellucida and enters the inner cell mass.

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80
Q

What happens when fluid enters the spaces in the inner cell mass?

A

Results in a single cavity called a blastocele.

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81
Q

What happens when there is formation of blastocele?

A

The morula undergoes mitosis to form what is called an early blastocyst.

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82
Q

What happens to early blastocele when zona pellucida disappears?

A

Outer cell mass flattens to form the cells wall of blastocyst.
Inner cell mass (embryoblast) are situated one pole of blastocyst.

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83
Q

What happens when early blastocyst undergoes mitosis?

A

Formation of late blastocyst.

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84
Q

What is the importance of zona pellucida?

A

Protection during growth and transport.
Promotes implantation.

85
Q

What does the zona pellucida prevent?

A

Abnormal implantation.
Polyspermy.
Rejection from embryo.
Breakage of blastomeres.

86
Q

What allows attachment an invasion of trophoblast?

A

Integrins expressed by trophoblast.

87
Q

What does the extracellular matrix produce?

A

Laminins (promotes attachment).
Fibronectin (stimulates migration.

88
Q

What happens at the time when implantation occurs?

A

Changes in composition and appearance of endometrium.
Cells of embryoblast differentiate into 2.

89
Q

What has the embryoblast differentiated into?

A

Layer of columnar cells - Epiblast layer.
Layer of cuboidal cells - Hypoblast layer.

90
Q

What forms the bilaminar disk?

A

Epiblast and hypoblast.

91
Q

What regulates trophoblast differentiation?

A

Laminin. integrin and fibronectin.

92
Q

What is histiotrophic nutrition?

A

Spaces formed in syncytiotrophoblast called lacunae.
Lacunae circulates maternal blood.
Lacunae filled with fluid - Histiotrophic nutrition.

93
Q

What happens by the end of week 2?

A

Implantation is complete - late blastocyst is buried inside endometrium.

94
Q

What are the layers of the wall of uterus?

A

Endometrium.
Myometrium.
Perimetrium.

95
Q

What are the stages that endometrium passes through?

A

Proliferative/follicular phase.
Secretory phase.
Menstrual phase.

96
Q

What happens in the proliferative phase?

A

Regenerative layer. Prepares for potential implantation.
This phase is under the influence of estrogens and parallels growth of follicles.

97
Q

What happens in the secretory phase?

A

The ‘implantation window’.
Increase in progesterone levels.
If no implantation, then menstrual stage starts.

98
Q

What happens in the menstrual stage?

A

Period, blood escapes from superficial arteries.

99
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Implantation abnormality.
Inflammation of fallopian tube.

100
Q

What causes an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Endometriosis.
Scar tissue from previous surgery.
Hormonal imbalance.

101
Q

What are the risks associated with an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Haemorrhage - Excess blood can compress organs and cause dysfunction. (haemorrhage shock)
Accumulation of blood inferior to diaphragm - irritation to nerves.
Abnormal vaginal bleeding.

102
Q

What is the cavity that appears in the epiblast?

A

Amniotic cavity.

103
Q

What are amnioblasts?

A

Epiblast cells near cytotrophoblast. They line the amniotic cavity.

104
Q

What do the cells that come form hypoblast form?

A

Thin membrane - Exocoelomic membrane. Lines the inner surface of cytotrophoblast. This forms the primitive yolk sac.

105
Q

What is the extra-embryonic mesoderm?

A

Cells that appear from the primitive yolk sac.

106
Q

What happens in the extra-embryonic mesoderm?

A

Large cavities develop.
Clumping of these cavities forms the extra-embryonic coelom/chorionic cavity.

107
Q

What does the connecting stalk become?

A

The umbilical cord.

108
Q

What is hemotrophic nutrition?

A

Only active when placenta is established.
Primary, secondary, and tertiary villi.

109
Q

What is primary villi in the hemotrophic nutrition?

A

Extensions of cytotrophoblast to syncytiotrophoblast.
Hypoblast cells form the secondary/definitive yolk sac.

110
Q

What is the secondary villi in hemotrophic nutrition?

A

Complex structure of primary villi.
Characterized by presence of extra-embryonic mesoderm.

111
Q

What is the tertiary villi in hemotrophic nutrition?

A

Blood cells and vessels.
Undergoes branching - Placental transfer.
Formation of capillary system.

112
Q

What is assisted reproductive technology?

A

Fertility treatment.
In vitro fertilization.
Intra tubal transfer of gametes.
Intra tubal transfer of zygotes.
Surrogacy.

113
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

The formation of the 3 germ layers (endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm = Trilaminar disc).

114
Q

What can be explained as the beginning of morphogenesis?

A

The establishment of main organ systems.
Growth anteriorly to posteriorly.

115
Q

What is neurulation?

A

When the brain takes control.
Formation of nerve tissues.

116
Q

What does caudal mean?

A

Towards foot.

117
Q

What does cranial/cephalic mean?

A

Towards head.

118
Q

Where did the secondary yolk sac come from?

A

Came from hypoblast.

119
Q

What is a primitive streak?

A

Middle of embryonic disc - extends from posterior to anterior.
It is where gastrulation begins

120
Q

What is formed in the cranial end of the primitive streak?

A

Primitive node.

121
Q

The formation of primitive node and maintenance is maintained by what?

A

HNF-3 B.

122
Q

What is the small depression in the primitive node called?

A

Primitive pit.

123
Q

What is the opening that is near the cranial end in the hypoblast layer?

A

Buccopharyngeal/Oropharyngeal membrane.

124
Q

What is the opening that is near the caudal end of the hypoblast layer?

A

Cloacal membrane/prechordal plate.

125
Q

The cells from the primitive streak secret what?

A

Fibroblast growth factor 8. (FGF8).

126
Q

Why do epiblast cells move under the primitive groove in the primitive streak?

A

Because they lose their adhesion molecules.

127
Q

What happens when epiblast calls invaginate into primitive groove?

A

Mesoderm is formed.

128
Q

When the invaginated epiblast cells move they displace the hypoblast, what do they create?

A

Endoderm.

129
Q

What do the remaining cells in the epiblast form?

A

Ectoderm.

130
Q

What do the three germ layers form?

A

Trilaminar disc.

131
Q

How does the notochord form?

A

When mesenchymal cells fold inward and forms a solid cord.

132
Q

What are the functions of the notochord?

A

Influences embryonic folding.
Secretes sonic hedgehog protein.
Induces neurulation.

133
Q

How does neurulation happen?

A

Ectodermal cells thicken in midline.
These cells break apart from ectodermal layer to form neural tube and crest.

134
Q

What happens during activation of BMP-4 activity?

A

Ectoderm (epidermis) and mesoderm (intermediate and lateral plate) are ventralized.

135
Q

What happens during inactivation of BMP-4 activity?

A

Mesoderm is dorsalized.
Ectoderm is neuralized.

136
Q

Which proteins inactivate BMP-4 activity to neuralize ectoderm in the cranial part to give rise to forebrain and midbrain?

A

Noggin, chordin, and follistatin.

137
Q

Which proteins inactivate BMP-4 activity to neuralize ectoderm in the caudal part hindbrain and spinal cord?

A

WNT-3a and FGF.

138
Q

What are the two types of gastrula folding?

A

Cephalo-caudal direction.
Transverse direction.

139
Q

What is sacrococcygeal hematoma?

A

Benign tumour.
Result of incomplete differentiated germ layers

140
Q

What do nerve cells exhibit?

A

Electrical excitability - Response to stimuli, generating an impulse.

141
Q

What is a general characteristic of nerve cells?

A

That they have a selective permeability - Deprivation of oxygen can cause nerve cell death.

142
Q

Where are neurones derived form?

A

Embryogenesis - Primitive streak.

143
Q

What are the two types of cells in the nervous system?

A

Neurons.
Neuroglia.

144
Q

What are neurons further classified as?

A

Bipolar, unipolar, and multipolar types.
And according to their function (sensory, motor and interneurons).

145
Q

What are the three characteristic components of a neuron?

A

Cell body.
Dendrite.
Axon.

146
Q

Explain the cell body of the neuron?

A

Perikaryon, the cytoplasm contains a mitochondria, golgi apparatus, lyosomes, microtubules and neurofilaments.

147
Q

Explain the dendrites of the neuron?

A

Receive stimuli from other neurons, increase surface area of neuron, are unmyelinated.

148
Q

Explain the axon of the neurone?

A

Only one axon, convey info form one cell to the other.

149
Q

What is the region between axon hillock and beginning of myelin sheath known as?

A

Initial segment. This is where action potential is generated.

150
Q

Where are neurotransmitters found?

A

In terminal boutons.

151
Q

What does the dendrite lack?

A

Golgi apparatus.

152
Q

What does the axon hillock lack?

A

Nissl bodies and golgi apparatus.

153
Q

What is nissl bodies stack of?

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes.

154
Q

What are the basic type of neurones?

A

Anaxonic/Amacrine.
Bipolar.
Pseudounipolar/Unipolar.
Multipolar.

155
Q

What is an anaxoinic/amacrine neuron?

A

Many dendrites but no axon.
Found in retina and olfactory receptors.

156
Q

What is a bipolar neuron?

A

Has only one axon and one dendrite.
Found in ocular, auditory, and olfactory special senses.

157
Q

What is a pseudounipolar/unipolar neuron?

A

One axon that divides close to the cell body into 2 axons.

158
Q

What is a multipolar neuron?

A

One axon and 2 more dendrites. Most abundant neuron.

159
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease?

A

Genes an environmental triggers play a role.
Apoptosis of dopamine producing neurons.
Affects muscular activity.

160
Q

What is Parkinson’s treated with?

A

L-dopa.

161
Q

What are neuroglia?

A

Supporting cells of NS.
Holds neurons in place.
Supplies oxygen.
Forms myelin.
Destroys pathogens.

162
Q

What are the types of central neuroglia?

A

Astrocytes.
Oligodendrocytes.
Ependymal cells.
Microglia.

163
Q

What are astrocytes?

A

Largest neuroglia.
Morphologically heterogeneous.
Modulate neuronal activities by providing potassium concentration in the extracellular space of brain.

164
Q

What are oligodendrocytes?

A

Production and maintenance of myelin.

165
Q

What are microglia?

A

Possess phagocytotic activities.

166
Q

What are ependymal cells?

A

Allows absorption of CSF.
Modified ependymal cells produce CSF.

167
Q

What are the types of peripheral NS?

A

Satellite cells.
Schwaan cells.

168
Q

What is a satellite cell?

A

Helps maintain a controlled microenvironment.

169
Q

What is a schwaan cell?

A

Support and nurture myelinated and unmyelinated nerve cell fibres.

170
Q

What are demyelinating diseases?

A

Multiple sclerosis.
Guillain-Barre syndrome.

171
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

Immune mediated destruction of myelin in CNS.
Symptoms relate to affected white matter.

172
Q

What is Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Immune mediated destruction of myelin in PNS.
Linkage to resp or gastro infections.
Weakness of limbs and resp muscles.

173
Q

What is a peripheral nerve?

A

May contain afferent or efferent nerve fibres.
Epineurium.
Perineurium.
Endoneurium.

174
Q

What is epineurium?

A

Surrounds peripheral nerves and fills spaces between fascicles. Blood vessels travel in it.

175
Q

What is perineurium?

A

Surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibres. Blood vessels transverse to it.

176
Q

What is endoneurium?

A

Surrounds each nerve fiber, poorly vascularized.

177
Q

What are two patterns of peripheral neuropathy?

A

Damage to schwaan cells - Demyelinating neuropathy.
Damage to axons - Axonal neuropathy.

178
Q

What are ganglia?

A

Relay stations.
Spiral ganglia.
Sympathetic ganglia.
Parasympathetic ganglia.

179
Q

What is spiral ganglia?

A

Each cell body is surrounded by a layer of flattened satellite cells.

180
Q

What is sympathetic ganglia?

A

Separated by axons and dendrites.
Lipofuscin granules.
Less satellite cells and irregularly placed.

181
Q

What is parasympathetic ganglia?

A

Few cell bodies clumped with each other and satellite cells within supporting connective tissue.

182
Q

What does connective tissue consist of?

A

Extracellular matrix
Cells - 1. Defence and immune functions, 2. Synthesis, maintenance, and metabolic activity.

183
Q

What are constituents of the extracellular matrix?

A

Hyaluronic acid and proteoglycans.

184
Q

What are the types of embryonic connective tissue?

A

Mesenchyme.
Mucoid.

185
Q

What are the types of mature connective tissue?

A

Specialised - Reticular, Adipose, Cartilage, Bone, and Blood.

Connective Tissue Proper - Loose areolar, Dense irregular, and Dense regular.

186
Q

What is the mesenchyme CT?

A

Processes make contact at gap junctions.
Collagen type 3 fibres.

187
Q

What is the mucoid/mucous CT?

A

Wharton’s jelly.
Resemble fibroblasts.
Found in fetal umbilical cord.

188
Q

What is loose areolar CT?

A

Present in Lamina propria, supports epithelia - Breach of epithelia = Immune reactions.
More ground substance than fibre.
Permeable to oxygen, water and other molecules.

189
Q

What is dense irregular CT?

A

Irregular interwoven pattern.
Found in capsules of organs, submucosa of hollow organs and dermis of skin.

190
Q

What is dense regular CT?

A

Arranged in parallel pattern.
Found in tendons, ligaments, fascia and aponeurosis.

191
Q

What is reticular CT?

A

Type 3 collagen fibres.
Provides structural support.
Found in stroma of non-tubular organs. (spleen, liver, kidney).

192
Q

What is adipose CT?

A

Aggregations of adipocytes.
Vascularized.

193
Q

What is white adipose CT?

A

Throughout body and deep layers of skin.
Large adipocytes.
Nucleus and cytoplasm are pushed against membrane.
Triglyceride storage.
Padding - shock absorber.

194
Q

What is brown adipose CT?

A

Around adrenal glands.
Small adipocytes.
Many mitochondria and central nucleus.
Thermogenesis.
Body temperature regulation.

195
Q

What is cartilage CT?

A

Firm but somewhat flexible.
Sparse chondrocytes.
Large ratio of GAG - permits diffusion = tissue viability.

196
Q

What are the three types of cartilage?

A

Abundant ground substance.
Abundant collagen fibres.
Abundant elastin fibres.

197
Q

Where is abundant ground substance cartilage found and what is its function?

A

Articular surface of synovial joints, ribs, epiphyseal plates of long bones.
Lubricates synovial joints.

198
Q

Where is abundant collagen fibre cartilage found and what is its function?

A

Intervertebral discs.
Pubic symphysis.
Menisci of knee.
Shock absorber.

199
Q

Where is abundant elastin fibre cartilage found and what is its function?

A

Larynx.
External ear.
Epiglottis.
Flexibility.

200
Q

What is bone CT?

A

Calcified extracellular matrix.
Organic - Predominant collagen type 1.
Inorganic - Calcium hydroxyapatite.
Protects organs.
Calcium reservoir.
Hematopoiesis.

201
Q

What is woven bone?

A

Immature.
Randomly oriented fibres in osteoid.
Healing a fracture, remodelled into lamellar bone.

202
Q

What is lamellar bone?

A

Mature bone.
Fibres in parallel arrays.
Physically stronger and more resilient.
Subdivided into cortical and cancellous.

203
Q

What is cortical/compact bone?

A

Heavy and tough.
Periosteum (dense regular)
Endosteum (loose CT)
Multiple osteons that surrounds marrow cavity.

204
Q

What does the haversian canal contain?

A

Blood vessels, nerves and lymphatics.

205
Q

What does volkman’s canal contain?

A

Within lamellae. Osteocytes within lacunae.
Canaliculi connect lacunae and osteocytes.

206
Q

What is cancellous/spongy bone?

A

No osteons.
Lighter.
Lamellae arranged in lattice-like pattern.

207
Q

What is blood CT?

A

Viscous fluid like - blood plasma.
Erythrocytes.
Leukocytes.
Platelets.

208
Q

Tissue damage, and spaces left after injury are replaced by what type of CT?

A

Dense irregular scar tissue.

209
Q

What is a growth beyond boundaries of tissue called

A

Keloid.

FCMS (5 decks)

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