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PMVPH > Pre-Harvest Food Safety > Flashcards

Pre-Harvest Food Safety Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of a zoonosis?

A

Diseases which are transmitted between vertebrate animals and humans

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2
Q

What is the definition of a carrier?

A

Pathogens isolated from animal/human without causing clinical signs of disease in the host

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3
Q

What is a colonised host?

A

No clinical signs on host but implies that microbes multiply on the host

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4
Q

What is a reservoir of disease?

A

The spread of an organism within the reservoir host to maintain the pathogen indefinitely

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5
Q

What are the clinically relevant multidrug-resistant pathogens?

A

Enterococcus faeciumStaphylococcus aureusKlebsiella penumoniaAcinetobacter baumanniiPseudomonas aeruginosaEnterobacter species

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6
Q

Give some examples of zoonoses in companion animal practice

A

RabiesSalmonellosisBrucellosisMR bacterial pathogensTuberculosisWormsPasteurellosisToxoplasmosisLeptospirosisPsittacosisFleasCheyletielliosisSarcoptic mangeDermatophytosis

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7
Q

What are the three types of MRSA?

A

Human hospital-associatedCommunity-associatedLivestock-associated

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8
Q

What do MRSA have resistance to?

A

Broad beta-lactam and often fluoroquinolone resistance

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9
Q

What does MRSA stand for?

A

Meticillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

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10
Q

Where does S. aureusnormally live?

A

Human nose - opportunistic pathogen

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11
Q

What things can result from an MRSA infection?

A

Extended length of stay in hospitalLimited treatment optionsIncreased costIncreased mortality (though not proven)

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12
Q

What are the implications for MRSA in small animal practice?

A

Most infections can be treated successfullyCan be transmitted between pets and humans in both directionsPrimarily a human-hospital pathogen therefore higher risk of human infectionOwner perceptions may vary

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13
Q

What are the two main zoonoses linked with exotic pets?

A

Reptile related salmonellosisFish tank granuloma (Mycobacterium marinum)

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14
Q

What is the first key responsibility in zoonoses detection?

A

Early suspicion and correct diagnosis

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15
Q

What three things can alert us to the possibility of zoonoses?

A

HistoryClinical presentationPathogens present

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16
Q

Why should we alert clients to potential zoonoses?

A

Risk of transmission - part of our professional conduct

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17
Q

Which owners are more at risk from contracting zoonoses?

A

Compromised host susceptibilityClose contactVery young or elderlyRisk factors - wounds, cuts, bites etc.

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18
Q

What should we recommend clients to do if their pet is suspected of having a zoonosis?

A

Refer to GP/practitioner

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19
Q

What four thigns can we do to help prevent spread of zoonoses?

A

Manage the patientPractice hygieneKeep personal hygieneUse antimicrobials responsibly

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20
Q

When should you change your apron in practice?

A

Between every patient

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21
Q

What is the survival time for bacteria on dry surfaces?

A

Gram +ve: many monthsGram -ve: many monthsPseudomonas aeruginosa: 5 weeks on dry, 16 months on wetSpore-forming: many months

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22
Q

What are the three stages of traffic-light isolation protocol?

A

Red - isolated unless clinically unstableAmber - barrier nuse in wards/ICU to await microbiology/virology examinationGreen - patient can be nursed in wards - no isolation required

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23
Q

What are the visiting requirements for isolation?

A

Clinican arranges and informs receptionDesignated personnel for duration of visitClient must have protocols explainedClient must sign ‘Form of Agreement’Must wear full isolation protective clothingMust be supervised at all timesMust follow hand-washing protocolsVisit and communication recorded on CRIS

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24
Q

Describe infection control with a patient with a known zoonotic infection

A

Patient should wait outsideSeen at end of the dayDisinfection before next patientIsolation of patients and barrier nursingMove within surgery on trolley or in basketSpecial care in procedure areas

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25
Q

What is disinfection no substitute for?

A

Cleaning - decreases pathogen burden 90%

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26
Q

What is the BSAVA responsible use of antimicrobials?

A

Practic policyReduce prophylaxisOther optionsTypes of bacteria and drugsEmplying the correct antibacterialCytology and cultureTreating effectively

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27
Q

What are the five factors for emergence of zoonoses?

A

Environmental changesHuman and animal demographyPathogen changesChanges in farming practicesSocial and cultural factors

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28
Q

What proportion of emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic?

A

75%

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29
Q

What are endemic zoonoses?

A

Zoonoses that are constantly present in a certain population

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30
Q

What are some examples of neglected endemic zoonoses?

A

AnthraxBrucellosisBovine TBCysticercosis & neurocysticercosisHydatid diseaseRabiesHuman African Trypanosomyasis

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31
Q

What is the proportion of zoonotic pathogens in humans?

A

60%

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32
Q

What is the difference between a notifiable disease and a reportable disease?

A

Notifiable disease need to report a suspicion of a clinical case of diseaseReportable disease needs to be made by laboratory which isolated organism from a sample

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33
Q

What are the zoonoses that need to be reported in farms/veterinary practices?

A

AnthraxAvian influenzaBovine tuberculosisBSEBrucellosisCampylobacteriosisCryptosporidiosisE. coli O157Verotoxigenic E. coliErisipeloidGiardiosis

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34
Q

Which zoonoses are non-notifiable in farms and veterinary practices?

A

Resistant bacteriaLeptospirosisLouping illNewcastle diseaseOrfToxoplasma gondiiTrychophytumsppSalmonellosis

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35
Q

What are the main sources of zoonotic resistance?

A

EnvironmentProduction animalsHumansVeterinariansDogs and catsWildlifeHospitalsMeat, eggs and milk

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36
Q

Which bacteria is the emergence of resistance a major issue?

A

Gram negatives

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37
Q

Which two zoonoses are common but not reportable?

A

Orf: highly contagious viral infection most commonly seen after lambingRingworm:fungal infection - itchy, raised patches that tend to have sharply defined edges

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38
Q

Define a risk

A

Probability of occurrence and consequences

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39
Q

What are the three elements in risk analysis?

A

Risk assessmentRisk managementRisk communication

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40
Q

What are the two objectives of risk analysis?

A

Priority settingSelection of prevention strategies

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41
Q

What things should be used to determine the probability of infection with zoonoses?

A

Evidence of prevalence of hazard in target populationInformation about biology of the hazard

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42
Q

What things should be done to prevent and control zoonoses on farms?

A

Assess risks to health from work activites that involve a hazardous substancePrevent or control exposure to hazardous substancesIntroduce and maintain control measuresRegularly review risk assessments and effectiveness

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43
Q

Who are the risk groups of visitors at farms?

A

Young childrenElderly peopleImmunocompromised individualsPregnant women

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44
Q

What should be implemented in healthy animals to help prevent and control zoonoses on farms?

A

Vaccinate and worming programmesAvoid contaminating drinking waterRoutine health checksImplement a Herd Health PlanGood animal husbandry and management practiceImpelement biosecurity

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45
Q

What should be promoted when trying to prevent and control zoonoses in farms?

A

Use of protective equipment especially when dealing with sick animals

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46
Q

For what reasons are zoonoses under-reported?

A

Lack of awarenessSub-clinical infectionClinical signs are minor and not perceived to require medical attentionNegative impact

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47
Q

When does the veterinarian become part of the food production chain?

A

When animals are raised for food production - keep the public healthy

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48
Q

Define a hazard

A

An agent, substance or action that has the potential to cause an undesired event

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49
Q

What is the definition of a risk?

A

The probability of an undesired event and the consequences of an undesired event

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50
Q

What four things are values at risk in the food chain?

A

Food SafetyAnimal HealthAnimal WelfareEnvironment

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51
Q

What is the objective of risk assessment at the farm level?

A

Identify relevant hazards, prioritise them and to evaluate risk management strategies

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52
Q

What is the objective of risk management?

A

Reduce or prevent the risk related to a hazard

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53
Q

What is the goal of preharvest food safety?

A

Minimize the risk of foodborne illness

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54
Q

Where can hazards originate from and how can transmission occur?

A

Originate from many sources and transmit via direct or indirect pathways

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55
Q

What should vets be familiar with in relation to hazards?

A

That they can originate from many sources and be familiar with the biology of the most relevant food hazards even if they don’t cause disease in animals

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56
Q

What are the three types of hazards in animal-derived foods?

A

BiologicalChemicalPhysical

57
Q

What are the four main processes on a farm where risks occur?

A

Feeding practices and production of animal feedVeterinary treatmentsEnvironmental hazardsInadequate hygiene

58
Q

What are the five sources of food-safety hazards at pre-harvest and two examples of each?

A

Animal - Salmonella and TBPersonnel- Salmonella and S. aureusWildlife - Salmonella and TBEnvironment - Campylobacter and Coxiella burnettiFeed - Salmonella and Listeria

59
Q

What can feed and water be contaminated with?

A

Different chemical and biological hazards

60
Q

What is the responsibility of manufacturers in feed production?

A

Safety of feed sold to farmers as ready to be given to the animals

61
Q

When are farmers responsible for the safety of their feed?

A

Those who source ingredients to produce their own feed

62
Q

What two aspects of animal husbandry need to be managed for risks and hazards?

A

Introduction of hazards into the farmSpread of pathogens within a farm

63
Q

What do specific husbandry practices influence?

A

The likelihood of introduction of hazards into the farm

64
Q

What do improvements in animal welfare have the potential to reduce?

A

On-farm risks to food safety, principally through reduced stress-induced immunosuppression, reduced incidence of infectious disease on farms and reduced shedding of human pathogens by farm animals, and through reduced antibiotic use and antibiotic resistance

65
Q

What are the three control programs used to control Salmonellaon farms?

A

Poultry sector:programs in breeding chicken flocks, laying flocks, broiler flocks and breeding and fattening turkey flocksPigs:UK ZNCP - reduction of the risk to consumersOther species:passive surveillance

66
Q

What is an incident?

A

The first isolation and all subsequent isolations of the same serovar from an animal usually within a 30 day period

67
Q

What is the most commonly reported zoonosis in the EU?

A

Campylobacter

68
Q

What species is Campylobactercommon in?

A

Poultry and livestock

69
Q

What is the aim of the FSA campylobacter risk management program?

A

Reduce levels of Campylobacterin chicken targeting different points along the food chain

70
Q

What are the on-farm interventions for Campylobacterrisks?

A

BiosecurityFeed and water additivesReduce risk of colonization, vaccination and genetic resistance

71
Q

What are the three routes of human infection with E. coli O157?

A

Consumption of contaminated food or waterDirect contact with animals or their faecesPerson-to-person spread

72
Q

What is the main reservoir ofE. coliin the UK?

A

Cattle - other ruminants can be infected

73
Q

Why is the risk to the public from TB very low?

A

Milk is pasteurised and their is a very effective TB surveillance and control programme in cattle

74
Q

What is the risk pathway?

A

Sequence of events or actions that can lead to outcomes happening - can be basis for risk management

75
Q

What are four key examples of foodborne pathogens that may contaminate food products at farm level?

A

SalmonellaCampylobacterE. coli O157TB

76
Q

What is risk management?

A

Strategies and interventions aimed at risk reduction or elimination

77
Q

What is risk management based on?

A

Risk assessment

78
Q

What is risk management targeted at?

A

Interrupting, preventing or eliminating transmission pathways identified in risk assessment

79
Q

What three things does risk management include?

A

Identifying the most cost-effective management optionImplementationMonitoring and follow-up

80
Q

What is critical for effective risk management by clients?

A

Risk communication

81
Q

What are the four risk management strategies?

A

Risk transferRisk avoidanceRisk mitigation or reductionRisk acceptance

82
Q

What is risk transfer?

A

Insuring against events

83
Q

What is risk avoidance?

A

Not performing an activity that is hazardous e.g. change in business

84
Q

What is risk mitigation/reduction?

A

Reduction of negative consequences to target levels

85
Q

What is risk acceptance?

A

Keeping risks below an acceptable levelIf they are below a defined level then nothing should be done

86
Q

What is the two-tiered approach to risk management in primary production?

A

First tier:pre-requisite program of generic practicesSecond tier: pathogen specific practices and technologies

87
Q

What purchase policies can be implemented as a risk management strategy?

A

Quality standards on purchases within the production chainHealth certificates for animalsQuality certificates for feed

88
Q

How can biosecurity be implemented in risk management strategies?

A

Aimed at preventing pathogens and toxins from coming in contact with the animals

89
Q

What are the three sources of feed that need to be managed for risks?

A

On-farm productionPurchasedStorage

90
Q

How can water be managed for risks?

A

Fence off polluted waterProtect water from contaminationMonitor water of on-farm wells

91
Q

How should veterinary drugs be risk managed?

A

Prescribe according to prudent use guidelinesObserve specific legislation for food animalsObserve withdrawal periodsObserve recording requirementsSafely store and dispose of veterinary drugs

92
Q

What are the statutory programs for managing risks associated with TB?

A

Test and killRestrict movementsBiosecurityVaccination?

93
Q

What are the statutory programs for managing risks associated with BSE?

A

Test and removeFeeding banRemove specific risk material at slaughter

94
Q

What are the statutory programs for managing risks with Salmonella?

A

Test and kill

95
Q

What are the two elements in tracing animals and their products?

A

Animal identificationTracing

96
Q

What five things should be done when preparing animals for slaughter?

A

Avoid stressPrevent soiling of animalsAssure animal is fit for slaughterAssure animal is fit for transportAssure animal identification

97
Q

Why is it important to reduce stress when slaughtering animals?

A

Can activate shedding of pathogens such as Salmonellaor Campylobacter

98
Q

Define monitoring

A

Continuous effort to collect data to detect changes or trends in the occurrence of disease in order to inform decisions

99
Q

Define surveillance

A

A special case of monitoring where data are used to assess a status in response to a pre-defined threshold

100
Q

What may the threshold level be for some hazards?

A

Zero

101
Q

What are herd health planning programs?

A

Surveillance programs

102
Q

What is the initial objective for surveillance programs?

A

Measure the general level of occurrence of the disease - monitoring

103
Q

When do control programs start?

A

If the disease is considered to be important and action should be taken

104
Q

When does monitoring become surveillance?

A

When cases are detected above a certain threshold and actions are then taken

105
Q

What should hopefully occur during surveillance with control programmes?

A

Incidence decreases - surveillance used to assess the effectiveness of the control program

106
Q

What should the objective of surveillance change to if eradication is achieved?

A

Demonstrating freedom from infection

107
Q

What is the main definition of surveillance from the ECDC?

A

Series of activities to take action for prevention and control diseases

108
Q

What eight things are characteristics of surveillance systems?

A

ObjectivesHazard selectionCase definition and diagnostic methodsTarget populationTiming and sampling intervalsData management and analysisMethods for data analysisFeedback and dissemination of results

109
Q

What five things are elements of the design of surveillance systems?

A

Hazard selectionCase definition and diagnostic methodsTarget populationTiming and sample intervalsData management and analysis

110
Q

Describe farm level surveillance systems

A

Emphasize diseases that are controllable by the individual farmerFocus on productivityRely on farm recordsFeedback to the farmer and actions discussed

111
Q

What are the main monitoring/surveillance objectives for animal health?

A

National: Demonstrate freedom from diseaseOutbreak detectionIndustry: Monitor production diseasesMonitor zoonoses and food-borne pathogensProducer: Monitor production diseasesWildlife: Establish disease status

112
Q

What are the main objectives for monitoring and surveillance in relation to food safety?

A

National: Progress of hazard reduction programmesIndustry: Assure freedom from hazardProducer: Assure freedom from hazard

113
Q

What is a case definition?

A

An animal or unit that fulfils the specific definition based on clinical, laboratory or epidemiological characterisitics

114
Q

What is an outbreak?

A

Cases clustered in time and space occurring at a higher level than expected

115
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

Occurrence of more cases of disease than expected in a given area or among a specific group of people over a particular period of time

116
Q

What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?

A

Incidence:rate (number of new cases/(population at risk*time at risk))Prevalence:proportion (number of existing cases/population at risk)

117
Q

What is passive monitoring and surveillance?

A

WaitingCase reportingDependent on motivation and awareness

118
Q

What is active monitoring and surveillance?

A

SearchingSurveysTesting

119
Q

Define bias

A

Systematic error due to design, the implementation or the analysis of the surveillance program

120
Q

Define random error

A

Error due to sampling variation

121
Q

What are the three ways bias can occur?

A

Case detectionSelection biasInformation bias

122
Q

How can selection bias occur?

A

Voluntary participationNot all farms listed in sampling frame

123
Q

What are the four areas that the legal framework for inspections and controls mainly focus on?

A

Feed safetyAnimal identificationMedicine useWelfare

124
Q

Who is responsible for reporting notifiable diseases?

A

Every veterinarian, animal owner and laboratory

125
Q

What is the difference between notifiable and reportable diseases?

A

Notifiable - statutory requirement to report suspicion of a clinical caseReportable - statutory requirement to report laboratory confirmed isolation of organisms

126
Q

What has to be precisely defined during surveillance?

A

What is a case?

127
Q

What may be required when identifying cases?

A

Laboratory tests

128
Q

What four things are we protecting by carrying out disease surveillance?

A

Public healthAnimal health and welfareEnvironment and wider societyInternational trade

129
Q

What are the three main elements of disease surveillance?

A

Monitor trends in existing diseases in the UK by comparison against a thresholdMonitor and identigy potential new and emerging diseases, zoonotic infections and intoxicationsInform DEFRA and other stakeholders

130
Q

Who carries out veterinary disease surveillance in the UK?

A

Animal owner/keeperVeterinary practicesLivestock Industry OrganisationsUniversitiesAbattoirsDiagnostic laboratoriesVMDInternational disease monitoring

131
Q

What are the three diagnostic services that vets provide in practice?

A

Post mortem of carcass suitable for surveillancePostal samplesAdvice on disease diagnosis and control

132
Q

What are the uses for submission of a carcass for PM examination?

A

Detections of:Endemic disease levelAnimal welfare issuesNotifiable diseasesNovel diseasesZoonosesChemical threat to the food chainAntibiotic resistanceAdverse reactions

133
Q

What is used to standardise data collection in scanning surveillance?

A

Submission forms and the Farmfile database

134
Q

What should be done if a diagnosis is not reached?

A

Quarterly and annual trend analysesMonitor the change in percent of diagnosis not reached for each body system/syndromeCompare with mean of previous 4 yearsAnalyse and interpretInform and act if appropriate

135
Q

What is targeted surveillance?

A

Scientific research into new diseases or changes in recognised diseases identified by scanning results sometimes in a more active approach

136
Q

What things do we use targeted surveillance for?

A

Notifiable diseasesZoonotic diseasesNovel diseasesAntimicrobial resistanceImport testing

137
Q

What four things does national veterinary disease surveillance data originate from?

A

Scanning surveillanceTargeted surveillanceMandatory reportingVoluntary reporting

138
Q

What is the role of the veterinary investigation centres?

A

Safeguard public and animal health, animal welfare, international trade and the environmentProvides standardised, quality assured dataAnalyses and interprets this dataInforms the stakeholders incl. DEFRA to allow for actionDiagnostic support for practitioners by carrying out subsidised post mortem examinations and laboratory testsAdvisory function to practising veterinarians

PMVPH (8 decks)

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