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Praxis SLP > Praxis Study Guide (Part 4) > Flashcards

Praxis Study Guide (Part 4) Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the ability to hold a given amount of information for immediate processing?

A

Working Memory

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2
Q

What is the retention of information for longer than 30 seconds lasting hours?

A

Short-Term Memory

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3
Q

What is the retention of information for months and/or years?

A

Long-Term Memory

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4
Q

What is the recall of facts?

A

Declarative Memory

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5
Q

What is the recall of specific and recent events?

A

Episodic Memory

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6
Q

What is the recall of sequences necessary for given tasks?

A

Procedural Memory

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7
Q

What is the ability to focus on and respond to stimuli and information?

A

Focused Attention

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8
Q

What is the ability to sustain or hold and manipulate information?

A

Sustained Attention

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9
Q

What is the ability to attend and select information within a larger set?

A

Selective Attention

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10
Q

What is the ability to switch or alternate attention between tasks?

A

Alternating Attention

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11
Q

What is the ability to attend and divide focus on multiple things at once?

A

Divided Attention

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12
Q

What is a persistent or progressive deterioration of cognitive functions? Memory deficits are the most common characteristic. It may also impact language, emotions, personality, etc.

A

Dementia

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13
Q

What causes visuospatial deficits and visual (left) neglect? It leads to anosognosia (denial and poor awareness of impairment). Prosodic, inferencing, and discourse deficits will occur as well as sustained and selective attention deficits.

A

Right Hemisphere Damage (RHD)

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14
Q

What is a deficit of motor planning with normal speech musculature? Articulation is characterized by groping, inconsistency, and errors of sound/syllable sequencing.

A

Apraxia

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15
Q

What is characterized by slowness, weakness, and incoordination of speech musculature?

A

Dysarthria

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16
Q

What is a problem with word finding? It is a symptom of aphasia.

A

Anomia

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17
Q

What is an error in which an incorrect word, part of a word, or sound is substituted for an intended target word? It can be phonemic, semantic, or neologistic.

A

Paraphasia

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18
Q

What is the inappropriate repetition of a word or idea previously produced? It may be helpful to switch attention to another activity or task. For example, a patient said the word “car” earlier in the session, and now it is the only fluent word that he/she can verbalize.

A

Perseveration

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19
Q

What are grammar deficits and inadequate sentence production? Individuals typically use content words and omit function words.

A

Agrammatism

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20
Q

What is an acquired reading impairment following brain damage? It is also called word or visual blindness.

A

Alexia

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21
Q

What is an acquired writing impairment following brain damage? It involves motor dysfunction or spelling impairment deficits.

A

Agraphia

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22
Q

What is an error type in which a new word is created? The word has no meaning to the speaker and is entirely different from the intended word.

A

Neologism

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23
Q

What is talking around the intended word or idea? It is used as a strategy in speech therapy to improve word finding.

A

Circumlocution

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24
Q

What are continuous fluent utterances that make little sense but appear to make sense to the speaker? It is typically seen in fluent aphasia.

A

Jargon

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25
Q

What are communication problems that arise following damage to the brain/nervous system?

A

Neurogenic Communication Disorders

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26
Q

Damage to what region leads to deficits in executive function (i.e., problem-solving, reasoning), memory, consciousness, impulse control, and motor planning?

A

Frontal Lobe

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27
Q

Damage to what region leads to deficits in sensing, math, spatial relationships, reading, and writing?

A

Parietal Lobe

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28
Q

Damage to what region leads to deficits in auditory perception/sensation/integration, categorization, memory, and recognition?

A

Temporal Lobe

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29
Q

Damage to what region leads to deficits in visual aspects?

A

Occipital Lobe

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30
Q

Damage to what region leads to hypokinetic or hyperkinetic dysarthria?

A

Basal Ganglia

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31
Q

Damage to what region leads to deficits in memory and fear or anxieties may increase?

A

Hippocampus

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32
Q

Damage to what region leads to deficits in attention, consciousness, and non-voluntary function?

A

Brainstem

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33
Q

Damage to what region leads to deficits in motor coordination and balance? It can lead to ataxia (slurred speech, stumbling, incoordination).

A

Cerebellum

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34
Q

Damage to what region leads to deficits in expression, receptive deficits, global deficits, cognitive impairments, and right visual field impairment?

A

Left Hemisphere Damage

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35
Q

Damage to what region leads to deficits in spatial and perception, discourse, pragmatics, attention, impulse behavior, judgement, reasoning, and poor awareness of deficits?

A

Right Hemisphere Damage

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36
Q

What type of CVA occurs due to a blockage of a blood vessel?

A

Ischemic

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37
Q

What occurs when a blood clot develops in the blood vessels inside the brain and leads to interrupted blood flow?

A

Thrombotic CVA

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38
Q

What occurs when a blood clot develops elsewhere in the body and travels to the brain through the brainstem?

A

Embolic CVA

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39
Q

What type of CVA occurs due to bleeding or blood vessels rupturing? High blood pressure is the most common cause.

A

Hemorrhagic CVA

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40
Q

What is often called a mini-stroke? It is a temporary clot and may be a warning sign for a future stroke.

A

Transient Ischemic Attack

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41
Q

Damage to this artery leads to damage in the temporal and occipital lobes. It will also cause writing deficits and memory/cognitive communication deficits.

A

Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA)

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42
Q

Damage to this artery leads to hemiplegia, dysphagia, impaired vision, and Broca’s/Wernicke’s aphasia.

A

Middel Cerebral Artery

43
Q

Damage to this artery leads to hemiplegia, flat affect, impulsivity, and auditory comprehension deficits.

A

Anterior Cerebral Artery

44
Q

What is lack of oxygen to the brain?

A

Anoxia

45
Q

What is a degenerative disease of the nervous system? Symptoms will mimic being drunk (e.g., lack of coordination, slurred speech, falling, fine motor deficits, eye movement abnormalities).

A

Ataxia

46
Q

What is abnormal ballooning that forms in blood vessels?

A

Aneurysm

47
Q

What is inflammation of the brain and/or spinal cord?

A

Encephalitis

48
Q

What phase of the swallow involves manipulation and mastication of food into a bolus? The structures/muscles involved include the lips, jaw, tongue, soft palate, buccal, and mastication muscles. It is voluntary.

A

Oral Preparation Phase

49
Q

What phase of the swallow involves anterior to posterior movement? The tongue tip and sides come in contact with the alveolar ridge. The bolus and tongue motion near the faucial pillars and the tongue base triggers the pharyngeal swallow. It is voluntary.

A

Oral Transport Phase

50
Q

What phase of the swallow involves laryngeal elevation, hyoid elevation, velopharyngeal closure, and the epiglottis closing the airway? The walls of the pharynx contract with the bolus is near the tongue base and when the bolus nears the UES. It is involuntary.

A

Pharyngeal Phase

51
Q

What phase of the swallow involves transporting food from the pharynx to the stomach? It is involuntary.

A

Esophageal Phase

52
Q

What examination assesses and identifies signs/symptoms of dysphagia and refers for instrumental testing?

A

Bedside Clinical Swallowing Examination

53
Q

What swallowing maneuver provides airway protection at the level of the true vocal folds?
Instructions: take a deep breath and hold, keep holding your breath as you swallow, cough immediately after swallow.

A

Supraglottic Swallow

54
Q

What swallowing maneuver provides airway protection at the level of the laryngeal vestibule?
Instructions: take a deep breath and hold (while bearing down), keep holding breath and bearing down as you swallow, cough immediately after.

A

Super-Supraglottic Swallow

55
Q

What swallowing maneuver is aimed to improve UES opening and bolus flow?
Instructions: swallow and try to hold the larynx in the elevated (up) position for as long as possible (1-3 sec.), then complete the swallow.

A

Mendelsohn Maneuver

56
Q

What swallowing maneuver is aimed to improve the base of tongue retraction and pressure and bolus clearance?
Instructions: push and squeeze muscles to swallow as “hard” as you can, may be done with or without food/liquid.

A

Effortful Swallow

57
Q

What muscle strengthening exercise strengthens tongue muscles? It may use a tongue depressor, a device such as IOPI, etc.

A

Lingual Resistance

58
Q

What muscle-strengthening exercise is designed to improve UES opening? The patient lays flat, raises their head (looks at toes), and holds that position for about 1 min x 3 reps.

A

Shaker Head Lift

59
Q

What is a disruption in the forward flow of speech? It can be normal or abnormal.

A

Disfluency

60
Q

Are whole word, whole phrase, and interjections normal or atypical disfluencies?

A

Normal Disfluencies

61
Q

Are sound prolongations, unfilled pause/block, part word/syllable repetition, and incomplete/broken phrases normal or atypical disfluencies?

A

Atypical Disfluencies

62
Q

What is a disruption in the forward flow of speech? It can take any form and may be accompanied by physical tension, secondary behaviors, negative thoughts, decreased communication skills, and involuntary breakdowns.

A

Stuttering

63
Q

What fluency disorder leads to irregular speaking rate, excessive normal disfluencies, and excessive repetitions? It may result in decreased speech intelligibility, may occur with or without stuttering, and co-occurs with language/articulation disorders and attention problems.

A

Cluttering

64
Q

What are changes made to the environment, not the child’s speech?

A

Indirect Strategies

65
Q

What are more direct and specific activities to change and help reduce the stutter?

A

Direct Strategies

66
Q

What are the changes to the way one stutters? It includes identification, desensitization, modification, and stabilization.

A

Stuttering Modification

67
Q

What occurs when excess air goes through the nasal cavity during the production of all sounds besides the nasals?

A

Hypernasal

68
Q

What occurs when not enough air goes through the nasal cavity during the production of nasal consonants?

A

Hyponasal

69
Q

What occurs when sound is trapped in the oral, nasal, or pharyngeal cavity? It will lead to a muffled/low voice.

A

Cul-de-sac

70
Q

What is velopharyngeal dysfunction due to anatomical/structural defect?

A

VP Insufficiency

71
Q

What is velopharyngeal dysfunction due to poor movement of structures?

A

VP Incompentence

72
Q

What part of the ear includes the pinna, external auditory meatus (ear canal), and terminates at the tympanic membrane? If functions as a resonator and amplifier.

A

Outer Ear

73
Q

What part of the ear includes the tympanic membrane, ossicular chain, stapedius, tensor tympani, and the Eustachian tube? It functions in conduction and production.

A

Middle Ear

74
Q

What part of the ear includes the temporal bone, cochlear, basilar membrane, and the organ of Corti? It converts mechanical sound waves to electrical activity and neural impulses.

A

Inner Ear

75
Q

What transmits auditory and vestibular information from the ear to the brain?

A

Auditory Nerve (CN VIII)

76
Q

What is testing that measures the range and sensitivity of an individual’s hearing?

A

Audiometry

77
Q

What tests sounds that go through the outer and middle ear?

A

Air Conduction

78
Q

What tests sounds through bone vibration directly to the cochlea/inner ear?

A

Bone Conduction

79
Q

What type of testing is used with children who can’t complete a normal hearing screen and/or if hearing loss is suspected in the brain/brain pathway? Electrodes are placed on the head and brain activity is recorded in response to sounds.

A

Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR)

80
Q

What type of testing is used to determine hair cell function?

A

Otoacoustic Emissions (OAEs)

81
Q

What is a dip in an audiogram at 2000 Hz due to stapes fixation?

A

Carhart’s Notch

82
Q

What identifies the site of damage of the auditory system? It can be CHL, SHL, or MHL?

A

Type

83
Q

What refers to the severity of the hearing loss? It can be normal, slight, mild, moderate, mod-severe, severe, or profound.

A

Degree

84
Q

What refers to the extent and pattern of loss across frequencies? It can be flat, rising, sloping, low frequency, high frequency, or precipitous.

A

Configuration

85
Q

What type of hearing loss involves the outer and middle ear? The air-bone gap must be greater than 10 dB. Bone threshold are within normal limits.

A

Conductive

86
Q

What type of hearing loss involves the inner ear and/or CH VIII? The air and bone thresholds are equal and both display hearing loss.

A

Sensorineural

87
Q

What is a combination of sensorineural hearing loss and conductive hearing loss components?

A

Mixed

88
Q
  • 10 to 15 dB
A

Normal

89
Q

16 - 25 dB

A

Slight

90
Q

26 - 40 dB

A

Mild

91
Q

41 - 55 dB

A

Moderate

92
Q

56 - 70 dB

A

Moderate Severe

93
Q

71 - 90 dB

A

Severe

94
Q

90 + dB

A

Profound

95
Q

What is the measurement of eardrum immittance as a function of air pressure in the ear canal? A soft rubber tip is inserted into the ear canal.

A

Tympanometry

96
Q

What is the admittance of the middle ear system (mobility) or height of the peak? Higher is more mobile.

A

Static Admittance

97
Q

What is the point at which air pressure is equal on either side of the tympanic membrane?

A

Tympanic Peak Pressure

98
Q

What describes the steepness and shape of the slope of the tympanogram?

A

Tympanic Width

99
Q

What estimates the volume of the air medial to the probe?

A

Canal Volume

100
Q

What is a normal tympanogram?

A

Type A

101
Q

What tympanogram has shallow compliance? It is reduced peak height and normal pressure. It indicates middle ear fluid or otosclerosis.

A

Type As

102
Q

What tympanogram has deep compliance? It has greater than normal peak height and normal pressure. It indicates ossicular disarticulation or TM scaring.

A

Type Ad

103
Q

What type of tympanogram is flat/ has no pressure or compliance? No discernible peak is shown. It indicates middle ear effusion, perforated TM, or cerumen occlusion.

A

Type B

104
Q

What type of tympanogram has negative pressure? It can have any height and normal mobility. It indicates negative pressure in the middle ear or eustachian tube dysfunction.

A

Type C

Praxis SLP (5 decks)

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