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Praxis SLP > Praxis Study Guide (Part 3) > Flashcards

Praxis Study Guide (Part 3) Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the research design in which performances of separate groups of subjects are measured and comparisons are then made between the two groups? Each subject has an equal probability of being assigned to either the experimental or control group.

A

Between-subject Designs

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2
Q

What is the research design in which performances of the same group are compared in different conditions and/or in different situations? Presentation of the experimental treatment conditions to the subjects is in random order.

A

Within-subject Designs

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3
Q

What occurs when an experimenter purposely attempts to match members of two groups based on all extraneous variables relevant to the experiment?

A

Subject Matching

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4
Q

What is the technique that enables the researcher to be able to control and measure sequencing effects by testing different participants in different orders?

A

Counterbalancing

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5
Q

What may occur when subjects participate in several conditions (i.e., subjects who participated in an earlier condition may affect their performance in subsequent)?

A

Sequencing Effect

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6
Q

In what research design is a baseline condition established, treatment of intervention to effect some sort of change is introduced, and treatment is removed to see if a return to baseline occurs?

A

ABA Design

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7
Q

In what research design is a baseline condition established, treatment of intervention to effect some sort of change is introduced, treatment is removed, and treatment is re-introduced?

A

ABAB Design

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8
Q

What is the technique of selecting individuals or a group of individuals from a population to use in research studies (probability and non-probability samples)?

A

Sampling Method

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9
Q

In which probability sample is every member of a population chosen randomly and has an equal chance?

A

Simple Random Sampling

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10
Q

In which probability sample are sample members chosen at regular intervals every nth number?

A

Systemic Sampling

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11
Q

In which probability sample is the population divided into subgroups before random selection?

A

Stratified Random Sampling

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12
Q

In which probability sample is the population divided into clusters based on demographics (e.g., location)?

A

Cluster Sampling

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13
Q

In which probability sample is every member of the population chosen randomly and has an equal chance?

A

Multistage Sampling

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14
Q

In which non-probability sample is specific individuals chosen to participate?

A

Purposive Sampling

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15
Q

In which non-probability sample do the participants depend on the ease of access and proximity?

A

Convenience Sampling

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16
Q

Internal clinical evidence, external research evidence, and patient preferences make up what?

A

Evidence-Based Practice

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17
Q

What level of evidence describes a systematic review/meta-analysis of all relevant RCTs? 3+ Good quality randomized controlled trials with similar results.

A

Level I

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18
Q

What level of evidence describes a 1+ well-designed randomized controlled trial(s)?

A

Level II

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19
Q

What level of evidence describes well-designed non-randomized quasi-experimental studies?

A

Level III

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20
Q

What level of evidence describes well-designed case-control or cohort studies?

A

Level IV

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21
Q

What level of evidence describes systematic reviews of descriptive and qualitative studies?

A

Level V

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22
Q

What level of evidence describes a single descriptive or qualitative study?

A

Level VI

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23
Q

What level of evidence describes an expert opinion and/or reports of expert committees?

A

Level VII

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24
Q

What is the classification framework used to guide clinical practice? It was developed by World Health Organization (WHO) and published in 2001. The health condition is the disorder or disease. The body functions and structures describe the anatomy and physiology. The environmental factors describe how the deficit influences the individual’s life and experiences. The activities and participation component describes how the deficit limits the individual’s activities and restricts their participation.

A

International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF)

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25
Q

What is the study of factors that determine the prevalence and incidence of diseases? It may provide useful information for the cause or guidance for treatment/recovery.

A

Epidemology

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26
Q

What is the term for how widespread a disorder is in the current population? It is the number of individuals with a particular disease/disorder at a given time. For example, it is an assessment of the overall burden of a condition on a population.

A

Prevalence

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27
Q

What is the term for the rate of individuals who developed a disease/disorder? It is the occurrence of new cases, typically reported within a given time. For example, it could be the number of new cases per year.

A

Incidence

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28
Q

What is the study of the cause and/or origin of disease?

A

Etiology

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29
Q

What assessment is always standardized? It compares individual performance to a group standard. It compares people that are the same age, grade, etc., and assesses individual performance to the “norm.”

A

Norm-Referenced

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30
Q

What assessment may or may not be standardized? It determines individual mastery of a particular skill(s). It identifies what a client can or can not do and there is not a group performance comparison.

A

Criterion-Referenced

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31
Q

What type of testing includes a standard set of procedures for administrating/scoring? It is usually norm-referenced.

A

Standardized Testing

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32
Q

What term indicates how many standard deviations a raw score is from the mean?

A

Standard “Z” Score

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33
Q

What is the term for the percent of people scoring at or below a certain score?

A

Percentile Rank

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34
Q

What occurs when there is no statistical difference/relationship between groups among variables?

A

Null Hypothesis

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35
Q

What is the term for the actual scores earned?

A

Raw Scores

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36
Q

What is the extent to which scores deviate from the mean or average scores?

A

Standard Deviation

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37
Q

What is the degree to which an assessment measures what it purports to measure?

A

Validity

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38
Q

What term indicates that a test looks like it assesses what is says it does?

A

Face Validity

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39
Q

What term indicates whether the test’s actual content assesses what is says it does?

A

Content Validity

40
Q

What term measures a predetermined theoretical construct?

A

Construct Validity

41
Q

What term measures the degree to which a new test correlates with an established test of known validity?

A

Concurrent Validity

42
Q

What is the accuracy with which a test predicts future performance on related tasks?

A

Predictive Validity

43
Q

What is the term for the consistency and stability of an assessment in varying contexts?

A

Reliability

44
Q

What term describes the stability across multiple administrations with the same group?

A

Test-Retest Reliability

45
Q

What term describes the internal consistency of a test?

A

Split-Half Reliability

46
Q

What term describes the consistency between intra-rater (same person) and inter-raters (different person)?

A

Rater Reliability

47
Q

What term describes whether multiple forms of a test provide the same results?

A

Alternate Form Reliability

48
Q

Case history, interview, oro-facial examination, informal testing, hearing screening, ongoing evaluation, and formal standardized testing all make up what?

A

Assessment

49
Q

What is the medical and personal background history used to analyze and diagnose diseases, disorders, etc?

A

Case History

50
Q

What type of etiology is a problem with the individual’s structure? (e.g., cancer)

A

Organic

51
Q

What type of etiology is an innervation to structure impaired/damaged (e.g., VF paralysis)

A

Neurogenic

52
Q

What type of etiology is non-biological or behavioral/psychogenic? (E.g., muscle tension)

A

Functional

53
Q

Distortions and consistent errors are indicative of what disorder? These individuals will always struggle with repetition tasks. It is a speech execution disorder that is characterized by muscle weakness, slowness, and/or reduced coordination.

A

Dysarthria

54
Q

Substitutions, omissions, additions, and inconsistent errors are indicative of what disorder? These individuals will struggle with repetition as complexity increases. It is a motor planning and programming disorder characterized by inconsistent speech errors and normal speech musculature.

A

Apraxia of Speech

55
Q

Contextual accuracy, topic maintenance, length of utterance, syntactic variety, word finding, and fluency can be assessed through what?

A

Language Sampling

56
Q

Orientation, memory, reasoning, storytelling, verbal explanations, and perception make up what?

A

Cognition

57
Q

What is a language disorder? It involves deficits in expressive and receptive language.

A

Aphasia

58
Q

What is a disorder of the cognitive systems that impacts communication?

A

Cognitive Communication Disorder

59
Q

Coughing, wet vocal quality, poor hyolaryngeal elevation (HLE), frequent throat clearing, shortness of breath, expelling food, pocketing/food remaining on the tongue after swallowing, etc. are all signs/symptoms of what?

A

Aspiration/Penetration

60
Q

What is the term for before or during birth? An example is premature.

A

Prenatal (or Neonatal)

61
Q

What may contribute to speech and/or language deficits? An example is chronic ear infections.

A

Hearing Loss

62
Q

What is a term for chronic long-term disabilities? An example is Autism Spectrum Disorder.

A

Developmental Disorder

63
Q

What is related to psychosis or some psych event? An example is Schizophrenia.

A

Psychiatric Disorders

64
Q

What occurs as a result of a DNA abnormality? An example is Fragile X Syndrome.

A

Genetic Disorders

65
Q

What is a disease of the central and peripheral nervous systems? Examples include Alzheimer’s Disease and Traumatic Brain Injury.

A

Neurological Disease

66
Q

What is a physical impairment related to speech? An example is a cleft lip/palate.

A

Physical Impairment

67
Q

What is prolonged abuse/misuse of the voice? The voice will become rough, breath, etc.

A

Vocal Abuse or Misuse

68
Q

What is the term for disorders of unknown cause?

A

Functional

69
Q

What is the term for disorders of known underlying cause?

A

Organic

70
Q

What is the term for mislearning of specific sounds or a whole class of sounds? It is a functional cause.

A

Mislearning

71
Q

What are errors in the motor aspects or production of specific speech sounds? Examples include distortions, omissions, etc. It is a functional cause.

A

Articulation Disorder

72
Q

What is a disorder of the linguistic aspects? There are consistent, rule-based errors in place of multiple speech sounds. Examples include stopping, final consonant deletion, etc. It is a functional cause.

A

Phonological Disorder

73
Q

What is a disorder in structural etiology (e.g., Cleft Palate)? Obligatory errors are those with correct placement and abnormal structure. Compensatory errors are those with an incorrect placement that compensates for structure. It is an organic cause.

A

Structural Disorder

74
Q

What is a disorder in the way that sounds are heard and produced? Traditional errors are typically distortions and omissions. Amplification may be used for speech therapy. Phonemic and phonetic treatments may be used. It is an organic cause.

A

Sensory Disorder

75
Q

What is the term for a deficit in motor planning/programming? Hallmark signs include inconsistent and prosodic errors and groping.

A

Apraxia of Speech

76
Q

What is the term for a deficit in motor execution that may impact all speech systems (respiration, phonation, resolution, and articulation)?

A

Dysarthria

77
Q

Substitutions, Omissions, Distortions, and Additions are considered what?

A

Traditional SODA Errors

78
Q

What are the Distinctive Features?

A

Voice, Place, and Manner

79
Q

Substitutions, Assimilations, and Syllable Structure Errors are all what type of processes?

A

Phonological Processes

80
Q

What is the term for how speech sounds are made? It is motor or phonetic in nature. It is the movement of muscles/structures to create sound and involves contact between: articulator muscles and structures, airflow obstruction and constriction, and VP closure.

A

Articulation

81
Q

What is the term for how language rules govern speech sounds? It is linguistic or phonemic in nature. Speech error patterns are used to simplify speech. The processes occur at the perceptual level and many are developmentally appropriate.

A

Phonology

82
Q

What are tests to see if an individual is able to imitate correct production?

A

Stimulability

83
Q

What are pairs that differ in meaning based on a difference in one feature (e.g., sun - tun)?

A

Minimal Pairs

84
Q

What are multiple targets that differ based on a single feature (e.g., go - low, show, toe, mow)?

A

Multiple Oppositions

85
Q

What are pairs that differ on several features (i.e., manner, voicing, place)?

A

Maximal Oppositions

86
Q

What occurs when a sound is substituted with another sound in a systematic way?

A

Substitution Process

87
Q

What occurs when a sound changes to become more like another sound in the word?

A

Assimilation Process

88
Q

What is the term for when two phonemes are substituted with a different phoneme, that has similar features?

A

Coalescence

89
Q

What occurs when a sound change affects the syllable structure of a word?

A

Syllable Structure Process

90
Q

What is the term for when a sound is added between two consonants (typically uh)? Example = blue –> “buh lew.” This is typically eliminated by 8 years of age.

A

Epenthesis

91
Q

What is the term for when two consonants within a syllable are reordered? Example = cup –> “puck.” This is atypical.

A

Metathesis

92
Q

What is an impairment of comprehension and/or use of spoken, written, and/or another symbol system? It may include impairment in language form, language content, and/or language use. They are typically identified around grades 4 - 6.

A

Language Disorder

93
Q

What occurs when a child acquires language behaviors in a typical sequence at a slower-than-normal rate?

A

Language Delay

94
Q

What language difference typically lessens or omits /l/, lessens or omits /r/, substitutes /f/ for th in the final and medial position, substitutes /d/ for voiceless th in the initial position, and has final consonant deletion? Morphological and syntax characteristics include the omission of plurals, possessive, past tense marker -ed, and copula.

A

African American English (AAE)

95
Q

What language difference substitutes /ch/ for /sh/, /b/ for /v/, and has dentalized /t/, /d/, and /n/? It also has omission of plurals, possessive, and past tense morphemes. Other characteristics include adjectives following nouns, auxiliary past tense construction, and double negatives.

A

Spanish-Influenced English

Praxis SLP (5 decks)

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