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SPSU9D4 > Practise Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Practise Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements about bone remodelling is FALSE?

  1. It occurs throughout your lifetime.
  2. It occurs at different rates at different locations
  3. It involves bone deposition.
  4. It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bon
A
  1. It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone
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2
Q

Based on the following statements about the bones of the hand and foot, which of the following answers is correct:

I. The bones of the foot and hand are divided into three groups
II. There is a Talus bone in both the hand and the foot
III. Both hand and foot contain distal, middle and proximal phalanges
IV. All bones of the hand and foot are short bones
V. The trapezoid bone of the foot is located on the dorsal side

A

I and III are correct

The bones of the foot and hand are divided into three groups

Both hand and foot contain distal, middle and proximal phalanges

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3
Q

What type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in children?

A

Greenstick

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4
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about age and bone mass:

  1. Bone growth occurs faster in female than males due to oestrogen
  2. Women experience more bone loss during the 4th decade due to menopause
  3. Nutritional and hormonal interventions can increase peak bone mass infinitely
  4. Peak bone mass for males and females occurs around the same time (~30 years of age)
A
  1. Peak bone mass for males and females occurs around the same time (~30 years of age)
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5
Q

Which of the following are TRUE regarding the hormones and nutrition and the skeletal system:

I. Growth Hormone contributes to increasing length of long bones and improving bone density
II. Calcitriol stimulates absorption of calcium from the stomach
III. Calcitonin increases osteoblast activity to produce calcium for bones
IV. Vitamin D is needed for calcium absorption
V. Calcium is key to reduce inflammation within bone tissue

A

I and IV are true

Growth Hormone contributes to increasing length of long bones and improving bone density

Vitamin D is needed for calcium absorption

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6
Q

Which weeks of embryonic development does bone development occur?

A

Weeks 6-7

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7
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about healing of bone fracture:

I. Fracture hematoma forms ~6-8h after fracture
II. Disruption of blood flow results in reduced macrophage infiltration for healing
III. The internal callus is formed from the endosteal chondrocytes
IV. Osteoclasts resorb dead bone, osteoclasts actively lay down new bone
V. The final part of repair includes spongy bone being formed in the margins and red bone marrow reforming to complete the healing process

A

I is correct

Fracture hematoma forms ~6-8h after fracture

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8
Q

Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell?

  1. Osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes
  2. Osteoblasts, osteogenic cells, osteocytes
  3. Osteogenic cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes
  4. Osteogenic cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts
A
  1. Osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes
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9
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding bone markings:

  1. Tuberosity is a rough surface
  2. An example of a Meatus is the Nasal Meatus
  3. A Condyle is a protruding rounded process
  4. Spines are sharp processes
A
  1. A Condyle is a protruding rounded process
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10
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about bones?

  1. Short bones are cylinder-like shaped and function to provide stability and support
  2. An example of a sesamoid bone is the irregular vertebrae
  3. There are 24 vertebrae of which 7 are lumbar
  4. Flat bones function to provide a point of attachment for muscles
A
  1. Flat bones function to provide a point of attachment for muscles
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11
Q

What does depolarisation of the sarcolemma mean?

A

The inside of the membrane has become less negative as sodium ions accumulate

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12
Q

The muscles of a professional sprinter are most likely to have what percentage of fast/slow twitch muscle fibres?

A

80% fast twitch muscle fibres and 20% slow twitch muscle fibres

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

  1. Slow fibres contain a large number of mitochondria
  2. Slow fibres contract for long periods
  3. Slow fibres have a small network of capillaries
  4. Slow fibres contain the pigment myoglobin
A
  1. Slow fibres have a small network of capillaries
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14
Q

Which of the following is/are TRUE about satellite cells and muscle regeneration:

I. Under resting conditions satellite cells are quiescent and reside under basal lamina of myofibre

II. The capacity of skeletal muscle to regenerate declines with ageing

III. Satellite cell population is homogeneous

IV. Satellite cells can give rise to differentiated myogenic progenitor cells

V. Satellite cells predominantly take part in phase 2 of muscle regeneration

A

I, II, IV and V are true

I. Under resting conditions satellite cells are quiescent and reside under basal lamina of myofibre

II. The capacity of skeletal muscle to regenerate declines with ageing

IV. Satellite cells can give rise to differentiated myogenic progenitor cells

V. Satellite cells predominantly take part in phase 2 of muscle regeneration

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15
Q

Fill in the blanks. The events which occur at the neuromuscular junction transmit ____________ events (neuronal action potential) to ____________ events (neuromuscular junction) to _____________ events (muscle action potential).

A

The events which occur at the neuromuscular junction transmit electrical events (neuronal action potential) to chemical events (neuromuscular junction) to electrical events (muscle action potential).

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16
Q

The correct order for the smallest to largest unit of organisation in muscle tissues is

A

Filament, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle

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17
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the order of the 4 steps of the Sliding-Filament Mechanism?

A

ATP hydrolysis, Attachment of myosin, Power stroke, Detachment

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18
Q

When skeletal muscle is relaxed (no Ca2+), troponin and tropomyosin molecules are located:

A

Attached to actin, covering myosin binding sites

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19
Q

Muscle relaxation occurs when…

A

Muscle relaxation occurs when calcium ions are actively transported into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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20
Q

What is the name for the sum of the chemical reactions that take place in living cells providing energy for life processes and synthesis of cellular material?

A

Metabolism

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21
Q

What is the only source of energy that can be used for all the energy-requiring processes in the human body, including muscle contraction.

A

ATP

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22
Q

In the ATP molecule, there is a bond that classified as a high-energy bond, where is it located?

A

Between the second and the third phosphates are high energy bonds

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23
Q

True or false?

Each actin head has binding sites for ATP?
or ATP hydrolysis products: ADP and Pi

A

False

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24
Q

What is the resting concentration of ATP in skeletal muscle?

A

4 to 5 mmol/kg wet weight

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25
Q

True or false?

ATP can be regenerated from different fuel sources (PCr, carbohydrate, fat).

A

True

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26
Q

What is another name for the Randle cycle?

A

Glucose fatty acid cycle

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27
Q

True or false?

Lactate is a harmful substance that is produced in the muscle.

A

False

Lactate is not harmful to our organism and it is required as it allows the energy production.

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28
Q

What is the name of the transporter that allows glucose to enter the cell?

A

GLUT4

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29
Q

Fill in the blanks:

________ is the proportion of CO2 volume generated to the O2 volume consumption at cellular levels; _______ is the proportion of CO2 volume generated to the O2 volume consumption by using exhaled air in the calculation.

A

Respiratory quotient the proportion of CO2 volume generated to the O2 volume consumption at cellular levels; Respiratory exchange ration is the proportion of CO2 volume generated to the O2 volume consumption by using exhaled air in the calculation.

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30
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about fibre types:

I. Type 1 fibers are smaller in size but have similar amounts of mitochondria as type IIa fibres

II. The glycolytic capacity is similar in type IIa and IIx fibres

III. Type IIx are the most fatigue resistant fibres

IV. Under physiological conditions fibres can transition from type I to IIa and IIx

V. Oxidative capacity is similar in type IIa and IIx fibres

A

II and III are true

II. The glycolytic capacity is similar in type IIa and IIx fibres

III. Type IIx are the most fatigue resistant fibres

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31
Q

True or False

Fat oxidation makes an increasing contribution to ATP regeneration as exercise intensity increases.

A

False

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32
Q

Which of the following is NOT involved in Excitation-Contraction Coupling?

  1. Action potential occurs on skeletal muscle membrane
  2. Calcium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  3. Action potential occurs at the neuromuscular junction
  4. Generation of ATP
A
  1. Generation of ATP
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33
Q

During what phase of muscle regeneration do macrophages and neutrophils infiltrate the damaged muscle.

A

Phase 1

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34
Q

Which region of bone is rich in sensory nerves sensitive to tearing and tension?

A

Periosteum

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35
Q

What name is given to mature osteoblasts that maintain daily metabolism in bone tissue such as the exchange of nutrients and wastes in the blood?

A

Osteocytes

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36
Q

What are units are thin and thick filaments organised into?

A

Sarcomeres

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37
Q

Which of the following are TRUE about Parathyroid Hormone:

I. Secreted by the Parathyroid Gland

II. Stimulates osteoblast proliferation and resorption of bone by osteoclast

III. Main target is kidney and bone

IV. Directly increases calcium absorption by small intestine

V. Normally produced when calcium levels in the blood are low

A

I, III and V are true

I. Secreted by the Parathyroid Gland

III. Main target is kidney and bone

V. Normally produced when calcium levels in the blood are low

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38
Q

The amount of energy stored in the body as carbohydrate in comparison to fat is:

A

much smaller than that of fat

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39
Q

Approximately what percentage of the total mass of the body consists of bone?

A

18%

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40
Q

During muscle action potential, the ____ gates open during the depolarization phase and the ___ gates open during the ___________________ phase.

A

Na+, K+, repolarization

During muscle action potential, the Na+ gates open during the depolarization phase and the K+ gates open during the repolarisation phase.

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41
Q

What name is given to the shaft of a long bone?

A

Diaphysis

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42
Q

The muscles of a professional marathon runner are most likely to have

A

20 % fast-twitch muscle fibres and 80% slow-twitch muscle fibres

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43
Q

From which embryonic cell type does muscle tissue develop?

A

The Myoblast Cells

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44
Q

Myostatin is a member of what family?

A

Transforming growth factor beta family

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45
Q

Where in the human body are sutural bones found?

A

The Skull

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46
Q

Which cells do not originate from osteogenic cells?

A

Osteoclasts

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47
Q

Myokines are released in response to

A. Physical activity & tissue mechanical stress
B. Physical activity & neuronal electrical stress
C. Physical activity & energy stress
D. Physical activity & emotional stress

A

C. Physical activity & energy stress

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48
Q

Evidence that muscle derived IL-6 is not inflammatory includes

A. Unchanged levels of inflammatory cytokines from exercising legs
B. Decreased levels of anti-inflammatory cytokines from exercising legs
C. Increased levels of inflammatory cytokines from exercising legs
D. None of the above

A

C. Increased levels of inflammatory cytokines from exercising leg

???

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49
Q

In the studies by Steensberg et al limb specific glycogen depletion results in

A. More IL-6 from the limb under exercise
B. Less IL-6 from the limb under exercise
C. More IL-6 from the non-depleted/non-exercising limb
D. No changes in IL-6 from either limb

A

A. More IL-6 from the limb under exercise

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50
Q

Increased AMPK signalling leads to

A. Activation of anabolic pathways and inhibition of catabolic pathways
B. Inhibition of phosphorylation pathways and activation of phosphatase pathways
C. Inhibition of anabolic pathways and activation of catabolic pathways
D. Activation of phosphorylation pathways and inhibition of phosphatase pathways

A

C. Inhibition of anabolic pathways and activation of catabolic pathways

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51
Q

Myostatin is secreted by

A. Muscle and liver
B. Muscle and testes
C. Muscle and adipose tissue
D. Muscle and brain

A

C. Muscle and adipose tissue

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52
Q

In muscle increased AMPK signalling would be expected to

A. Inhibit autophagy; activate GLUT4 translocation to membrane
B. Activate autophagy; inhibit GLUT4 translocation to the membrane
C. Activate autophagy; activate GLUT4 translocation to membrane
D. Inhibit autophagy; inhibit GLUT4 translocation to membrane

A

C. Activate autophagy; activate GLUT4 translocation to membrane

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53
Q

What are released in response to what?

A

Physical activity and energy stress.

54
Q

Evidence that muscle derived il-6 is not inflammatory includes what?

A

Unchanged levels of inflammatory cytokines from exercising legs.

55
Q

In the studies by Steensberg et al limb specific glycogen depletion results in

A

More IL-6 from a limb under exercise.

56
Q

Sell your energy depletion stimulates AMPK mediated signalling via

A

Increased AMP:ATP ratio.

57
Q

Increased AMPK signalling leads to

A

Inhibition of anabolic pathways and activation of catabolic pathways.

58
Q

In muscle increased AMPK signalling would be expected to

A

Activate autophagy; activate GLUT4 translocation to membrane.

59
Q

Myostatin is secreted by

A

Muscle and adipose tissue

60
Q

Myostatin increases are associated with

A

Muscle atrophy.

61
Q

What is the correct sequence of structures that cardiac action potential follows in order to excite normal contraction of the heart?

A

SA node, AV node, Bundle, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

62
Q

In the blood pressure measurement of 110/70, the number 70 is the what?

A

Diastolic pressure

63
Q

The influx of which ion accounts for the plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential?

A

Calcium

64
Q

Which of the following best describes veins?

A

Thin walled, large lemons, low pressure, have valves

65
Q

When blood from healthy adolescents refused as shown in the figure which component occupies the greatest volume

A

Plasma

66
Q

Which wave and an electrocardiogram represents repolarisation of the ventricles?

A

T wave

67
Q

Which of the following periods during the cardiac cycle does the largest volume of blood into the arteries?

A

Ventricular systole

68
Q

Which of the following blood vessels is used to distribute oxygenated blood to the myocardium?

A

Coronary artery

69
Q

A molecule of haemoglobin…

A

Consists of four globin proteins, each bound to molecule of heme

70
Q

Which of the following types of muscle contains the largest number of mitochondria per cell?

A

Cardiac muscle

71
Q

People with ABO blood type O

A

Lack both antigens a and B and there erythrocytes

72
Q

Blood leaving the left ventricle passes through which of the following structures?

A

Aortic semilunar valve

73
Q

The cardiovascular centres are located in which area of the brain?

A

Medulla oblongata

74
Q

Which of the following statements about blood is/are true?

I. Blood is about 92% water.
II. blood is slightly more acidic than water.
III. blood is slightly more viscous than water
IV. Mature circulating erythrocytes are packed with mitochondria
V. From both sites are more accurately called platelets

A

III and V are true

75
Q

The first step of hemostasis is…

A

Vascular spasm

76
Q

What is the average basal resting oxygen requirement?

A

3.5ml/kg/min

77
Q

The upper respiratory tract consists of what?

A

Nose, mouth, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea

78
Q

A gas exchange in the lungs is driven by what?

A

Diffusion

79
Q

Type 1 alveolar cells are

A

Simple squamous epithelium

80
Q

The lungs covered by which pleural membrane

A

Visceral

81
Q

During ventilation the

A

Diaphragm contracts; intercostal muscles contracts.

82
Q

From base to app exorcisms and the lung are what?

A

Zones 3, 2 and 1

83
Q

Atmospheric pressure at 1000m is 733mmHg. the partial pressure of oxygen at that altitude would be?

A

Less than at sea level

84
Q

Cardiac output is 50dl/min. 02 solubility in plasma is 0.3ml/dl. how much O2 dissolved in plasma circulates around the body per minute?

A

15ml

85
Q

The Hb dissociation curve tells us what about Hb?

A

Hb gives up oxygen more easily as tissue pO2 drops

86
Q

An essential element for haemoglobin function as what?

A

Iron

87
Q

Partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs for almost 100% haemoglobin saturation is what?

A

100mmHg

88
Q

What proportion of CO2 is carried in the blood is bicarbonate ion?

A

60-70%

89
Q

Increased CO2 and H+ in the blood drive

A

Increased ventilation

90
Q

The Bohr effect leads to what?

A

A right shift and oxygen: haemoglobin dissociation curve.

91
Q

Glomus cells are

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors for CO2 and 02

92
Q

The reproductive system in humans allows for sexual reproduction. What is the revolution area advantage of sexual reproduction?

A

Allows variation in species

93
Q

The skeletal muscle present in the scrotum has called the what?

A

Cremaster muscle

94
Q

Internally the uterus is attached to the pelvic wall by the

A

Broad ligament

95
Q

Over the switch from the ovary into the fallopian tubes by which structure

A

Fimbrae

96
Q

Sperm development takes place in the

A

Seminiferous tubules

97
Q

The At the front of the sperm is called the

A

Acrosome

98
Q

Testosterone synthesis is centrally controlled by what?

A

Gonadotrophin releasing hormone

99
Q

In the primordial follicle the oocyte is surrounded by which cells?

A

Granulosa cells

100
Q

Ovulation is triggered by a large rise in what?

A

Oestrogen

101
Q

The three phases of the ovarian cycle are the what?

A

Follicular, ovulatory and luteal phases

102
Q

High levels of leptin

A

Turn off reproductive physiology processes.

103
Q

Setpoint theory suggest we have

A

A set body weight

104
Q

What is an external regular tour of appetite?

A

Palatability

105
Q

Comfort eating stimulates our

A

Hedonic response

106
Q

Of the macronutrients evidence suggests the most that satiating is what?

A

Protein

107
Q

The brain structure responsible for long-term appetite control is what?

A

The hypothalamus

108
Q

The pro-peptide POMC gives rise to which appetite regulator

A

Melanocyte stimulating hormone

109
Q

MSH and AgRP have which effects in appetite?

A

AgRP - orexigenic; MSH - anorexigenic

110
Q

Ghrelin is secreted by the what?

A

Stomach

111
Q

Compared to HIIT, SIT is:

A

Performed at higher exercise intensity

112
Q

What is not a criticism of HIT, SIT and REHIT?

A

Hi exercise intensities result in too much sweating, making this exercise less attractive to said entry individuals.

113
Q

Changes in an affect in exercise appear to be affected by:

A

Exercise duration and exercise intensity

114
Q

Compared to moderate intensity continues exercise, levels of an effect during REHIT tend to what?

A

Drop to similar levels

115
Q

Glycogen breakdown during repeated supramaximal cycling sprints (Wingate sprints)

A

Is limited to the first half of the first sprint

116
Q

The theory that adaptations to SIT and REHIT are due to rapid muscle glycogen breakdown appears to be incorrect because:

A

Training interventions with just a single supramaximal sprint processes do not lead to significant increases in VO2max

117
Q

Rapid muscle glycogen breakdown leads to:

A

Muscle swelling because of a hyperosmotic state

118
Q

Two examples of mechanosensors are:

A

Integrin and focal adhesion kinase

119
Q

Of which type of exercise they fully understand the physiological mechanisms?

A

MICT

120
Q

A BMI of 26 would classify a person is being what?

A

Overweight

121
Q

Energy intake guidelines for men and women in the UK are

A

2500 and 2,000 kcal/daily respectively

122
Q

The UK current guidelines for physical activity (PA) are to take at least how many minutes of PA per week in bouts of how many minutes or more?

A

The UK current guidelines for physical activity are to take at least hundred and 50 minutes of physical activity per week and bouts of 10 minutes or more.

123
Q

The three major influences on body weight are what?

A

Environment, homeostasis, and behaviour

124
Q

The respiratory quotient of a food or diet is defined as what?

A

CO2 produced to O2 consumed whilst it is being metabolised

125
Q

Dulloo’s theory of weight rebound suggest that the phenomena happens because what?

A

Adipose tissue rebound is faster the muscle causing overshoot

126
Q

A syndrome is what?

A

A collection of signs and symptoms that indicate specific illness

127
Q

Overtraining is defined as leading to what?

A

Long-term functional decrements

128
Q

The HPA hypothesis suggests overtraining syndrome is which phase of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome

A

Exhaustion

129
Q

The H BA hypothesis for overtraining syndrome suggest we should see changes in which of the following circulating substances

A

Cortisol

130
Q

Exercise changes the circulating levels of several amino acids. Which amino acids are thought to play a role in overtraining syndrome?

A

Tryptophan and glutamine

SPSU9D4 (5 decks)

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