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CES Certification > Practice test questions > Flashcards

Practice test questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of the upper arm bone?

A

Humerus

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2
Q

Which category of movement assessments includes gait assessments?

A

Dynamic

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3
Q

Foam rolling the posterior adductor magnus and hamstring complex helps to reduce tension in the tissues allowing for appropriate levels of which joint action to be achieved?

A

Hip flexion

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4
Q

The concentric tempo should last approximately how long?

A

1 second

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5
Q

If a client cannot complete a single-leg squat without difficulty, what modification provides more stability but also more insight into unilateral compensations?

A

Split squat

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6
Q

Integration techniques are used to reeducate the Human Movement System back into what type functional movement pattern?

A

Synergistic

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7
Q

Compression boots should not be used during which part of the client’s workout session?

A

Before the workout.

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8
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to excessive pronation during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Posterior tibialis

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9
Q

Which phase of the muscle action spectrum leads to the most muscle damage, inflammation, impaired muscle function, and muscular soreness occurs, providing a good reason to limit the number of sets for the initial exerciser?

A

Eccentric deceleration

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10
Q

A client presents with the Janda Upper Crossed Syndrome. Which muscles are commonly underactive/lengthened?

A

Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids, and serratus anterior

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11
Q

How does proprioception influence movement?

A

Afferent information from internal feedback is delivered to the central nervous system for use in monitoring and manipulating movement.

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12
Q

What are two common precautions to stretching?

A

Hypertension and joint replacement

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13
Q

Jared is a beginner client with weightloss goals and several mild movement dysfunctions. During the beginning phases, the repetition range for Jared during resistance training should be which of the following?

A

High repetition

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14
Q

Taylor, a 30-year-old ex-athlete, is just beginning a workout program. He does very well on the overhead squat and single-leg squat assessment but demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt during a loaded squat assessment. Which of the following should be prioritized in Taylor’s training program?

A

LPHC stabilization and hip extensor activation

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15
Q

The anterior side of the scapula (subscapular fossa) is designed to house which muscle of the rotator cuff?

A

Subscapularis

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16
Q

Which muscle is thought to be overactive/shortened if the client demonstrates knee extension during the modified Thomas test?

A

Rectus femoris

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17
Q

How can sustained forward head posture also contribute to the development of TMJ (jaw) disorders?

A

Causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck

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18
Q

What should a fitness professional do to attempt to identify a potential root cause of the primary movement impairment in the foot and ankle?

A

Perform the heels elevated overhead squat modification.

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19
Q

The combination of enhanced motor unit activation, synchronization, and firing rate is known to increase what at that specific muscle?

A

Strength

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20
Q

At which joint might an increase in ROM serve as a preventative strategy by allowing the trunk to be more upright and minimizing shearing forces in the trunk?

A

Ankle

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21
Q

Which items should be considered when assessing the lifestyle of a client?

A

Recreation or hobbies

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22
Q

Though it is outside the scope of the fitness professional to focus on pain management, if guided by the clients physician, what can the fitness professional focus on for clients with low back discomfort?

A

Stability and mobility

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23
Q

What term is used to describe reduced neural drive to an antagonist muscle when an agonist muscle contracts?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

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24
Q

Which of the following describes the ability of different muscles in the body to work together to allow coordination of global and refined movements?

A

Intermuscular coordination

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25
Q

De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis affects which part of the hand?

A

Radial side of the hand

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26
Q

What is an effective tool to help understand a client’s willingness to create behavior change in their workout routine?

A

The Transtheoretical Model of Change

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27
Q

How many cervical vertebrae make up the cervical spine?

A

7

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28
Q

What induces reciprocal inhibition in active stretching?

A

Contraction of antagonist muscles

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29
Q

Which is a recommended modification to training if a client has diagnosed plantar fasciitis?

A

Avoid impact based exercises and focus on increasing ankle mobility.

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30
Q

What is the name given for the wrist bones collectively?

A

Carpals

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31
Q

Which of the following is an example of a stabilizing muscle role?

A

The muscle of the rotator cuff contracting along with the deltoids during an overhead shoulder press.

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32
Q

What common knee injury results from overuse and is usually caused by muscle weakness in the kinetic chain and is commonly seen in runners?

A

IT Band Syndrome

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33
Q

What should the client do with the non-testing leg during the modified Thomas test?

A

The client holds the knee to their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal flexion.

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34
Q

Which of the following describes the ability of different muscles in the body to work together to allow coordination of global and refined movements?

A

Intermuscular coordination

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35
Q

During a session, a Corrective Exercise Specialist notices hyperkyphosis of the thoracic spine. What technique would improve the resultant neck and shoulder position?

A

Mobilize the thoracic spine with a foam roller and stretch the pectoralis group

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36
Q

An over-supinated/inverted foot typically presents as which of the following?

A

Rigid

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37
Q

During the overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates a lack of elbow extension. To what is this often attributed?

A

Overactive/shortened biceps brachii

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38
Q

Lengthening of the biceps is most effective with which shoulder position?

A

Extension

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39
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to scapular elevation during a loaded pulling movement?

A

. Upper trapezius

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40
Q

At which joint might an increase in ROM serve as a preventative strategy by allowing the trunk to be more upright and minimizing shearing forces in the trunk?

A

Ankle

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41
Q

What best describes a closed-packed position of the shoulder?

A

The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full external rotation.

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42
Q

Which tendon is the largest and strongest tendon in the human body?

A

Achilles

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43
Q

What is the most appropriate duration for a dynamic stretching warm-up?

A

Up to 90 seconds

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44
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to the arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Latissimus dorsi

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45
Q

A client has shown dysfunction on a static assessment of the elbow. What would the next reasonable step in the assessment process be?

A

Mobility assessment of the elbow and wrist

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46
Q

A fitness professional observes his client rolling out his lumbar spine with a hard density foam roller. What should he recommend to the client?

A

That rolling the lumbar spine is a contraindication and should be avoided.

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47
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to knee dominance during the split squat assessment?

A

Gluteus maximus

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48
Q

When should the static posture assessment be conducted during an objective assessment session with a client?

A

First

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49
Q

The isometric tempo should last approximately how long?

A

2 seconds

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50
Q

What is the key compensation to look for during a single-leg squat assessment?

A

Knee valgus

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51
Q

Which phase of the muscle action spectrum is the slowest during corrective exercise?

A

Eccentric

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52
Q

Which global subsystem stabilizes the sacroiliac joint and is activated in part by the biceps femoris, increasing tension on the sacrotuberous ligament?

A

Deep longitudinal

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53
Q

What best describes an eccentric action of the posterior tibialis?

A

Ankle dorsiflexion and eversion

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54
Q

A client is in her second trimester of pregnancy and wants to foam roll her legs and upper back. What should the fitness professional consider before prescribing the myofascial intervention?

A

The fitness professional should consult the MD.

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55
Q

During a session, a Corrective Exercise Specialist notices hyperkyphosis of the thoracic spine. What technique would improve the resultant neck and shoulder position?

A

Mobilize the thoracic spine with a foam roller and stretch the pectoralis group.

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56
Q

Jamie demonstrated a posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is an appropriate activation exercise for Jamie?

A

Standing hip flexor

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57
Q

Matt presented with a knee valgus compensation that did not improve with a heel lift on the OHS assessment. What two muscles should be addressed as a key part of the activation exercises of Matt’s corrective exercise program?

A

Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus

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58
Q

Between which segment levels does 50% of rotation in the cervical spine occur?

A

C1-C2

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59
Q

Which of the following muscles serves to decelerate tibial internal rotation and knee extension?

A

Biceps femoris

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60
Q

Scott demonstrates an excessive posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following would be the most appropriate muscle to activate?

A

: Erector spinae

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61
Q

Myofascial rolling is classified as what type of intervention?

A

Compression

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62
Q

Foam rolling the posterior adductor magnus and hamstring complex helps to reduce tension in the tissues allowing for appropriate levels of which joint action to be achieved?

A

Hip flexion

63
Q

What is the biggest contraindication for stretching?

A

Recently injured individuals

64
Q

What type of responsibilities might a client have that could reduce adherence to their long-term exercise and recovery program?

A

Unexpected family and social obligations.

65
Q

What is the tradeoff for enhanced mobility in the glenohumeral joint structure?

A

Reduced stability

66
Q

Lee, a client, shows up to a session with visible swelling in his left knee. What is the appropriate action to take?

A

Refer Lee out to a qualified medical professional.

67
Q

What is the technical term for the natural curvature of the thoracic spine?

A

Kyphosis

68
Q

What is the head position for the seated thoracic rotation test?

A

Neutral with nose in line with sternum

69
Q

“Do you have any stressors in your personal life” is an example of a question assessing this client aspect?

A

Lifestyle

70
Q

During the static postural assessment, a client demonstrates forward head posture. What compensation in the cervical spine is most likely to occur when this individual performs an overhead squat?

A

The client’s upper CS will hyperextend and their lower CS will flex.

71
Q

Through which movement does the subtalar joint load or absorb energy?

A

Eversion

72
Q

A client has a high-stress corporate job and always complains about how stressed and tired he gets at work. What cognitive manipulation tool could be recommended to help him deal with the high stress?

A

Taking a power nap in a sleep pod or somewhere quiet

73
Q

Low sets and relatively light weights are needed to allow for the slow tempo and high repetition range to provide mild stress to specific areas of the body that benefit from regular activations with which of the following intensities?

A

Low-level activations

74
Q

The acromion is part of which bony structure?

A

Scapula

75
Q

Which corrective exercise is prescribed specifically to target activation of the lower trapezius muscle?

A

Prone floor scaption

76
Q

A client that presents with over-pronation and limited ankle mobility is at risk for which injury or condition?

A

Achilles tendinopathy

77
Q

The glenohumeral joint is what type of joint?

A

Synovial

78
Q

A Corrective Exercise Specialist is looking to integrate short foot into the programming of a client with an over-pronated foot type. How many repetitions are best to include?

A

10 to 15 reps under control

79
Q

A client demonstrates a knee dominance compensation. The observed compensation did not improve with OHS with heel lift. What mobility test will the fitness professional use to test the hip flexors?

A

Modified Thomas test

80
Q

Why might it make sense to exercise the dominate limb first before the non-dominate limb for recruitment?

A

A primer to better prepare the non-dominate side

81
Q

Which category of movement assessments includes the Davies test?

A

Which category of movement assessments includes the Davies test?

82
Q

To help correct a client’s forward head posture, the Corrective Exercise Specialist recommends that the client perform the chin tuck exercise. What primary muscle(s) are targeted when performing this exercise?

A

Deep cervical flexors

83
Q

When performing a static postural assessment on a client, the fitness professional notes that the client demonstrates a forward head posture. What muscle group is most likely shortened and overactive?

A

Suboccipitals

84
Q

Georgia has completed Phases 1 and 2 of the Corrective Exercise Continuum for forward head posture. Which of the following is most appropriate activation exercise for her?

A

Incline dumbbell scaption

85
Q

As long as less than 3% of body weight is expected to be lost during exercise or competition due to sweating, what hydration strategy should clients be instructed to follow?

A

Drink fluids as desired.

86
Q

Subjects with which of the following issues have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation, abnormal muscle recruitment patterns, and notably diminished transverse abdominis and multifidus activation?

A

Low-back pain

87
Q

What are the six dimensions of wellness as defined by the National Wellness Institute?

A

Occupational, physical, social, intellectual, spiritual, and emotional

88
Q

If wrist extension is limited with elbow flexion, one can assume the limitation is coming from which structure(s)?

A

Wrist joint

89
Q

What is the optimal duration of stretching to decrease musculotendinous stiffness?

A

30-60 secs

90
Q

Which best describes the target motion of the knee flexion test?

A

The client actively flexes the knee as far as tolerable.

91
Q

In order to obtain neuromuscular efficiency and optimization of human movement, total-body integrated exercises are called on to provide and control which of the following?

A

Degrees of freedom

92
Q

What position is recommended for the fingers and hands during the thoracic extension test?

A

Crossed over the chest

93
Q

What are common underactive/lengthened muscles in the lower body?

A

Rectus abdominis, gluteus maximus, tibialis anterior, and peroneals

94
Q

Which of the following movement assessments would assess plyometric capabilities of the upper extremities?

A

Davies test

95
Q

What is the recommended time to have a pre-exercise snack and pre-exercise meal, respectively, before strength training exercise begins?

A

: 30 minutes to 2 hours; 2 to 4 hours

96
Q

What is the key compensation to look for during a single-leg squat assessment?

A

Knee valgus

97
Q

Which modality creates a tangential shearing or wringing-towel effect by creating compression around the muscle group and then adding movements to improve mobility?

A

Myofascial flossing

98
Q

What is practiced with limited resistance with slow tempos and high repetitions so that the client can modify and rehearse quality movement?

A

Movement efficiency

99
Q

Knee valgus and varus, an increased Q angle, poor quadriceps and hamstrings flexibility, poor eccentric deceleration capabilities, and playing on hard surfaces are all risk factors for developing what common knee injury?

A

Patellar tendinopathy

100
Q

What three words are often known to fitness professionals but may not be the best to use with clients when communicating regarding the corrective exercise process?

A

Compensation, impairment, and dysfunction

101
Q

What degree of performance impairments are associated with prolonged static stretching in isolation (no dynamic warm-up activities)?

A

3-7%

102
Q

Which internal tissue or structure can get irritated and lead to pain when herniated discs press against it?

A

Nerve

103
Q

During a movement assessment, if the foot over-supinates, what compensation would one observe?

A

Knee varus

104
Q

Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome can lead to the following injuries?

A

Plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, and low-back pain

105
Q

In an OHSA, tightness in hip flexors, erector spinae, and latissimus dorsi will most likely contribute to which movement dysfunction?

A

Low-back arch

106
Q

Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall lordotic posture?

A

Hip flexors, lumbar extensors, and internal obliques (upper)

107
Q

Jon exhibits a knee dominance compensation during assessment. Jon’s corrective exercise program should focus on inhibiting and lengthening what muscle groups?

A

Quadriceps and soleus

108
Q

When performing active range of motion assessments with a client, the Corrective Exercise Specialist notices that their scapula does not move in a normal fashion during humeral elevation. Which term best describes this movement abnormality?

A

Scapular dyskinesis

109
Q

Which movement assessment mimics movements associated with a walking and running gait and would be considered a regression from the single-leg squat assessment?

A

Split squat

110
Q

According to the Screw-Home Mechanism, in an open-chain position and as the knee extends, what action best describes the motion of the tibia on the femur during the last 30 degrees?

A

External rotation

111
Q

What is the name of the condition in which pain in the cervical spine is caused by looking down at a cell phone for prolonged periods of time?

A

Text neck

112
Q

What is the typical duration for static stretching for professional athletes?

A

12-17 seconds

113
Q

Which muscle should be strengthened in a fitness program for a client with a lack of lumbar stabilization?

A

Multifidus

114
Q

What is the most appropriate term for a overuse injury to a tendon?

A

Tendinopathy

115
Q

“Do you feel energized throughout the day and prior to activities?” is a question that would be found in what section of the client intake screen?

A

Lifestyle

116
Q

What is the abnormal curvature of the thoracic spine in the frontal plane called?

A

Scoliosis

117
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately provides an example of a SMART goal?

A

To increase 5k run time by 5 minutes, in 10 weeks, by training distance running and sprints 4 days per week.

118
Q

What is the purpose of holding a ball (or other object) between the knees during the seated thoracic rotation test?

A

To lock the hips into place

119
Q

Which upper-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture?

A

: Shoulder adductors, intercostals, pectoralis minor, and internal obliques

120
Q

What hip muscle is best to activate when valgus and overpronation are observed?

A

Gluteus maximus

121
Q

What ligament creates the carpal tunnel?

A

Transverse carpal ligament

122
Q

What percent of ACL ruptures occur during single-foot contact in physical activity secondary to uncontrolled lower extremity biomechanics?

A

0.7

123
Q

What are two muscles that may be overactive/shortened if a client demonstrates restricted shoulder flexion?

A

Latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major

124
Q

A client presents with excessive elbow flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good choice to start the corrective exercise process?

A

SMR the bicep brachii and brachialis

125
Q

A client presents with excessive elbow flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good choice to start the corrective exercise process?

A

SMR the bicep brachii and brachialis

126
Q

Which muscle is thought to be overactive/shortened if the client demonstrates knee abduction during the modified Thomas test?

A

TFL

127
Q

What is the recommended number of active movements to include in Step 2 of the myofascial rolling program?

A

4-6

128
Q

What compensatory movements create an excessive anterior pelvic tilt?

A

The pelvis rolling forward and lumbar extension.

129
Q

Which of the following is defined as the inability to move a joint through what should be its full range of motion?

A

Mobility restriction

130
Q

Pain on the inside of the elbow may be a symptom of what condition?

A

Golfer’s elbow

131
Q

What are the current recommendations for overall rest that include daily sleep, limited stress, and physical, and psychological relaxation?

A

Individuals should try to achieve a minimum of 8 hours of sleep, 60 minutes of psychological relaxation, and minimize stress each day.

132
Q

What muscle attaches to the coracoid process of the scapula?

A

Pectoralis minor

133
Q

What type of stretching can lead to decreased incidences of muscle and tendon injury?

A

Long-term static stretching

134
Q

Knee injuries often occur during landing and, therefore, it is important to assess if the client lacks musculoskeletal control of the lower extremity during landing if there are no compensations observed during earlier assessment. The depth jump is one such assessment. During a depth jump assessment most impairments will be observed during what phase?

A

Deceleration

135
Q

Javier demonstrates knee valgus during his assessment. Which of the following muscles should be inhibited?

A

TFL

136
Q

Peter, a Corrective Exercise Specialist, has completed his assessment of a new client who demonstrated non-neutral wrist during her assessment. He’s completed Phases 1-3 of the Corrective Exercise Continuum, what should be his next exercise with his client?

A

Inverted row

137
Q

Activation exercises may not be considered normal but are designed to provide isolated strengthening to specific muscles prior to moving into an integrated movement pattern by placing joints in the best position for which of the following?

A

Preferential activation

138
Q

What verbal cue would one provide a client when doing a single-leg activity?

A

Keep your knees in line with your second and third toe.”

139
Q

Which upper-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall flat-back posture?

A

Pectoralis minor, shoulder adductors, upper trapezius, and levator scapulae

140
Q

Which movement assessment utilizes dumbbells to assess a vertical pushing movement?

A

Standing overhead press

141
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to a heel rise during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Quadriceps complex

142
Q

What is the most appropriate verbal cue to use if a client demonstrates knee valgus upon landing?

A

“Keep your knees in line with your second and third toes.”

143
Q

For optimal sleep, what should the temperature of the room be?

A

72 degrees F/22 degree C

144
Q

What is the prime mover of a specific joint action regardless of concentric or eccentric muscle action?

A

Agonist

145
Q

Why is wearing high heels daily a consideration for potential postural dysfunction?

A

It puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion.

146
Q

According to recent research, which of the following may lead to increased core activation during a plank?

A

Performing a posterior pelvic tilt

147
Q

Women become more flexible during pregnancy due to the release of which of the following hormones?

A

Relaxin

148
Q

A client presents with excessive wrist flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good next choice activity after inhibiting the wrist flexors?

A

Stretch the wrist flexors

149
Q

If a client has a history of ankle sprains, which assessment can be used to determine if this has negatively influenced gluteal strength?

A

Overhead squat

150
Q

Which is a reason for a high-arched or over-supinated foot to have restricted ankle dorsiflexion?

A

Structurally short Achilles tendon

151
Q

The heels elevated modification of the overhead squat assessment places the ankle in a plantarflexed position. How may this effect the squat?

A

Reduces the influence of the foot and ankle complex on the squat movement

152
Q

Which type of exercises are the “gold standard” for Achilles tendinopathy?

A

Eccentrics

153
Q

Polly demonstrates forward head posture during her assessment. Which of her muscles are most likely underactive?

A

Deep cervical flexors, lower trapezius, middle trapezius, and rhomboids

154
Q

What is the most appropriate duration for a task-specific activities during warm-up?

A

5 to 15 minutes

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