Practice Test Questions #7 Flashcards
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Select one:
a. Ketosis
b. Beta-oxidation
c. Glycolysis
d. Acidosis
Beta-oxidation
In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?
Select one:
a. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension
b. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
c. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
d. Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension
Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
What is the primary muscle type of the heart?
Select one:
a. Smooth
b. Myofibril
c. Skeletal
d. Cardiac
Cardiac
What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?
Select one:
a. 12,000 kcal
b. 5,000 kcal
c. 1,200 kcal
d. 500 kcal
1,200 kcal
What is the superior boundary of the core?
Select one:
a. Abdominal muscles
b. Pelvic floor and hip musculature
c. Diaphragm
d. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles
Diaphragm
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
Select one:
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. 40-yard dash
c. Overhead squat
d. Pro shuttle
40-yard dash
Which of the following is a component of quickness training?
Select one:
a. Speed
b. Acceleration
c. Assessment of visual stimuli
d. Stride rate
Assessment of visual stimuli
What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw?
Select one:
a. First class
b. Third class
c. Second class
d. Fourth class
First class
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?
Select one:
a. Superior
b. Lateral
c. Anterior
d. Posterior
Posterior
What statement best describes a premium health club?
Select one:
a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
b. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses
c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
d. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?
Select one:
a. A pull
b. A twist
c. A strain
d. A sprain
A sprain
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Select one:
a. Strength Endurance Training
b. Power Training
c. Muscular Development Training
d. Stabilization Endurance Training
Power Training
Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
Select one:
a. It converts ADP back to ATP.
b. It helps transmit the motor signal.
c. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
d. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle.
It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
Select one:
a. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions
b. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
c. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
d. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol?
Select one:
a. When the individual responds with “yes” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
b. When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
c. When the individual says it is “challenging” to speak during the activity
d. When the individual says it is “somewhat easy” to talk during the activity
When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?
Select one:
a. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
b. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation.
c. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle.
d. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.
The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?
Select one:
a. Pushing
b. Hip hinge
c. Pulling
d. Squatting
Pushing
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
Select one:
a. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
b. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
c. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
d. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?
Select one:
a. Eccentric
b. Concentric
c. Isometric
d. Isokinetic
Isokinetic
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Select one:
a. Muscle mass atrophy
b. Body fat loss
c. Decreased volume and intensity
d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
Body fat loss
How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?
Select one:
a. 11
b. 3
c. 9
d. 7
9
What is the primary action of the multifidus?
Select one:
a. Increase intra-abdominal pressure
b. Support the contents of the pelvis
c. Stabilize and extend the spine
d. Regulate inspiration
Stabilize and extend the spine
What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate?
Select one:
a. 208 - (0.7 x age)
b. HRmax x % intensity desired
c. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest
d. VO2max x % intensity desired
208 - (0.7 x age)
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?
Select one:
a. Triceps brachii
b. Biceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Brachioradialis
Brachioradialis
Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)?
Select one:
a. Glucose
b. Lipids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Protein
Protein
Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?
Select one:
a. Esophagus
b. Small intestine
c. Stomach
d. Large intestine
Small intestine
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
Select one:
a. Hip extension
b. Hip flexion
c. Hip adduction
d. Hip internal rotation
Hip extension
Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?
Select one:
a. 0.2
b. 0.4
c. 0.8
d. 0.6
0.4
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
Select one:
a. Step-ups
b. Depth jump
c. Barbell clean
d. Single-leg squat
Step-ups
One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division?
Select one:
a. Autonomic nervous system
b. Peripheral nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Sympathetic nervous system
Peripheral nervous system
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Transverse abdominis
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Rectus abdominis
Transverse abdominis
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?
Select one:
a. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron
b. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
c. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons
d. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
Select one:
a. It increases muscular hypertrophy.
b. It decreases core muscle activation.
c. It decreases challenges to balance and stability.
d. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?
Select one:
a. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion
b. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
c. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction
d. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula
Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client’s fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?
Select one:
a. Recovery
b. Volume
c. Training frequency
d. Intensity
Training frequency
What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
b. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere
c. The Z-lines moving farther apart
d. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction
The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring?
Select one:
a. Reverse listing
b. Acceptance
c. Stopping
d. Cognitive fusion
Cognitive fusion
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Side plank
b. Medicine ball soccer throw
c. Cable rotation
d. Floor crunch
Side plank
How is osteopenia best described?
Select one:
a. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency.
b. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults.
d. A disease characterized by low bone density.
The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?
Select one:
a. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers
b. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers
c. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
d. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do.
A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Back muscles only
b. Local and global muscles
c. Global muscles
d. Local muscles
Local muscles
Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out?
Select one:
a. Gastrocnemius and soleus
b. Adductor complex
c. Hip flexors
d. Upper trapezius
Gastrocnemius and soleus
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?
Select one:
a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases.
b. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
c. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
d. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.
As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Select one:
a. Eccentric action
b. Isokinetic action
c. Concentric action
d. Isometric action
Eccentric action
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
Select one:
a. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds
d. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach?
Select one:
a. SAID principle
b. Systematic approach
c. All-or-nothing principle
d. Progressive overload
Progressive overload
Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball soccer throw
b. Barbell squat
c. Single-leg cable row
d. Bench press
Medicine ball soccer throw
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Pelvic floor muscles
b. Erector spinae
c. Multifidus
d. Transverse abdominis
Erector spinae
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?
Select one:
a. Thoracic spine
b. Frontal plane
c. Sagittal plane
d. Lumbar spine
Thoracic spine
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?
Select one:
a. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips
b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
c. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward
d. Forward head and protracted shoulders
Forward head and protracted shoulders
Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization?
Select one:
a. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring
b. Involves training multiple styles each week
c. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
d. Changes acute variables on a weekly basi
Increases intensity while decreasing volume
What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label?
Select one:
a. There is no difference.
b. Supplement labels only list active ingredients.
c. A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.
d. A supplement label is more detailed than a food label.
A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.
What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest?
Select one:
a. 19 breaths per minute
b. 15 breaths per minute
c. 7 breaths per minute
d. 25 breaths per minute
15 breaths per minute
What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?
Select one:
a. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
b. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
c. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
d. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
Select one:
a. Overhead medicine ball throw
b. Front medicine ball oblique throw
c. Medicine ball pullover throw
d. Medicine ball chest pass
Medicine ball pullover throw
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?
Select one:
a. Less force production
b. Larger in size
c. Quick to fatigue
d. Fewer capillaries
Less force production
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
Select one:
a. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion
b. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work?
Select one:
a. ADP
b. Fat
c. ATP
d. Glucose
ATP
When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure?
Select one:
a. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
b. The midline of the pelvis of the participant
c. An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant
d. The head of the participant
The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?
Select one:
a. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.
b. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes.
c. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.
d. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.
They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
Select one:
a. 9 or 10 drills per workout
b. 1 or 2 drills per workout
c. 4 to 8 drills per workout
d. 2 or 3 drills per workout
4 to 8 drills per workout
Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?
Select one:
a. 135/80 mm Hg
b. 124/80 mm Hg
c. 143/92 mm Hg
d. 118/78 mm Hg
135/80 mm Hg
If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Theory of general relativity
b. Law of thermodynamics
c. Archimedes’ principle
d. SAID principle
SAID principle
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?
Select one:
a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult
c. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible
d. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable
An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
Select one:
a. Depth jumps
b. Single-leg hops
c. Ice skaters
d. Box jumps
Depth jumps
In order to balance, someone must maintain what point within their base of support? (Choose the best answer.)
Select one:
a. Vestibular
b. Sensorimotor
c. Somatosensation
d. Center of gravity
Center of gravity
What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program?
Select one:
a. Sarcopenia
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Neural adaptations
d. Muscle atrophy
Neural adaptations
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone’s decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?
Select one:
a. Peer pressure
b. Group influence
c. Health influence
d. Societal influence
Group influence
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
Select one:
a. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
b. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
c. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
d. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
Select one:
a. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym.
b. This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate.
c. It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate.
d. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
Select one:
a. Speed ladders
b. Suspended bodyweight training
c. Strength machines
d. ViPR
ViPR
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
Select one:
a. Zone 3
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 4
d. Zone 1
Zone 2
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
Select one:
a. Increased lipogenesis
b. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume
c. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
d. Increased lipolysis
Increased lipolysis
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
Select one:
a. 30%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 5%
10%
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?
Select one:
a. Self-monitoring
b. Resisting social pressure
c. Implementation intentions
d. Coping responses
Coping responses
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
Select one:
a. Shortening of the agonist muscle
b. Stretching of the antagonist muscle
c. Transitioning of forces
d. Stretching of the agonist muscle
Stretching of the agonist muscle
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
Select one:
a. Growth and stabilization
b. Strength and volume
c. Growth and volume
d. Strength and stabilization
Growth and volume
Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?
Select one:
a. Transversus abdominis
b. Internal oblique
c. Multifidus
d. Erector spinae
Erector spinae
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Altered length-tension relationship
d. Synergistic dominance
Synergistic dominance
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat
b. Single-leg lift and chop
c. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
d. Single-leg balance
Single-leg squat
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?
Select one:
a. 7 to 9 sets
b. 1 to 4 sets
c. 0 sets
d. 5 or 6 sets
1 to 4 sets
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
Select one:
a. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed
b. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power
c. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed
d. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
Select one:
a. Sagittal
b. Frontal
c. Dorsal
d. Transverse
Transverse
To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?
Select one:
a. Steady-state treadmill workouts
b. Long continuous runs
c. Heart rate cardio
d. Small circuits
Small circuits
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Select one:
a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
b. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion
c. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
d. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.
Select one:
a. Performance
b. Injury resistance
c. Posture
d. Rehabilitation
Injury resistance
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Strength
c. Change of direction
d. Speed
Change of direction
How is a general warm-up best defined?
Select one:
a. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
c. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
d. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?
Select one:
a. Planning social gatherings for the group
b. Setting the time for the group to meet
c. Planning the workout for the group
d. Providing modifications during the workout
Planning social gatherings for the group
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Hip flexors
c. Adductor complex
d. Lower trapezius
Abdominals
What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power.
b. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength.
c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
d. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?
Select one:
a. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods
b. The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake
c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
d. An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Multifidus
c. Iliopsoas
d. Erector spinae
Multifidus
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
Select one:
a. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary
b. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint
c. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
d. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle
A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?
Select one:
a. PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results
b. Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results
c. Any medical precautions or contraindications
d. Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results
Any medical precautions or contraindications
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Select one:
a. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
b. Standing on two limbs with eyes open
c. Standing on two limbs catching a ball
d. Naming the months of the year while standing on one limb
Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
Select one:
a. Intensity
b. Volume
c. Frequency
d. Recovery
Volume
What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?
Select one:
a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
b. 5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds
c. 2 to 5 sets, hold each tender area for 5 minutes
d. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes
1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
Select one:
a. Ice skaters
b. Depth jumps
c. Single-leg hops
d. Box jumps
Depth jumps
