Practice Test Questions #6 Flashcards
What BMI score is considered overweight?
Select one:
a. 18.5 to 24.9
b. 25 to 29.9
c. 35 to 39.9
d. 30 to 34.9
25 to 29.9
Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional’s accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?
Select one:
a. Best external evidence
b. Number of continuing education units earned
c. Individual professional expertise
d. Client values and expectations
Individual professional expertise
What is the ideal landing position when performing the squat jump exercise?
Select one:
a. Knee varus
b. Knees inside the first toe
c. Knee valgus
d. Knees over second and third toes
Knees over second and third toes
Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?
Select one:
a. Right ventricle
b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Left atrium
Right atrium
What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?
Select one:
a. 14 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 10 inches
d. 16 inches
12 inches
Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?
Select one:
a. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
b. Personal trainers study exercise science and have the knowledge to help members get results.
c. Personal trainers are very outgoing and can help create a fun atmosphere in a fitness facility.
d. Personal trainers are often in great physical shape, which demonstrates that belonging to a health club can produce results members want.
Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone?
Select one:
a. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods
b. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods
d. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods
Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Stretch reflex
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Isometric contraction
Reciprocal inhibition
Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?
Select one:
a. Planking on a stable surface
b. Marching on a stable surface
c. Prone dead bugs on floor
d. Instability training using a stability ball
Instability training using a stability ball
A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep. Which of these strategies is the client using?
Select one:
a. Contemplation
b. Self-monitoring
c. Goal setting
d. Imagery
Self-monitoring
What is glycogen?
Select one:
a. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals
b. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
c. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans
d. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants
The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term?
Select one:
a. Socioeconomic status
b. Income status
c. Net worth
d. Social influence
Socioeconomic status
What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body’s sprinting direction in response to that stimulus?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Agility
c. Quickness
d. Speed
Agility
What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?
Select one:
a. It creates too powerful a jump.
b. It reduces force too much.
c. It causes stress to the connective tissues.
d. It makes the next jump too easy to execute.
It causes stress to the connective tissues.
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Select one:
a. Dynamic motion
b. Explosive jumps
c. Small jumps
d. Fast, powerful movements
Small jumps
Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?
Select one:
a. Power step-ups and ice skaters
b. Bench press and stability ball push-ups
c. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups
d. Deadlifts and squats
Bench press and stability ball push-ups
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Select one:
a. Knee flexion
b. Ankle plantar flexion
c. Hip abduction
d. Ankle dorsiflexion
Ankle plantar flexion
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
Select one:
a. Glycolysis
b. The ATP-PC system
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Beta-oxidation
Oxidative phosphorylation
Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
Select one:
a. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.
b. Training with free weights always requires the fitness professional to be a spotter.
c. Free weights are less intimidating than machines for those new to exercise.
d. Free-weight training is often safer for a new user when compared to machines.
Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
Select one:
a. ADP and water
b. ATP and oxygen
c. ATP and water
d. ADP and hydrogen ions
ATP and water
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
Hamstrings and erector spinae
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
Select one:
a. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches
b. Greater support and safety for elderly clients
c. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion
d. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
Select one:
a. Lack of pyruvate
b. Depletion of phosphocreatine
c. Free hydrogen ions
d. Lack of fatty acids
Free hydrogen ions
What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP?
Select one:
a. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
b. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain
c. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
d. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation
The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?
Select one:
a. Pushing assessment
b. Pulling assessment
c. Single-leg squat
d. Overhead squat
Overhead squat
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
Select one:
a. Transformation phase
b. Action phase
c. Set point
d. Baseline value
Baseline value
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
Select one:
a. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.
b. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals.
c. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.
d. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?
Select one:
a. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
c. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
d. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Bracing
b. Inhibition
c. Isolating
d. Drawing in
Bracing
Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today?
Select one:
a. Dementia
b. Cancer
c. Diabetes
d. Coronary artery disease
Coronary artery disease
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
Select one:
a. Rotator cuff muscles
b. Deltoid
c. Serratus anterior
d. Rhomboids
Serratus anterior
What is homeostasis?
Select one:
a. Any abnormal condition that negatively affects the structure or function of a part of the body
b. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
c. A situation in which the human body is rapidly changing all the time
d. A combination of influences that include education, income, and occupation
A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
What is a joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response?
Select one:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Osteopenia
Rheumatoid arthritis
What advice would enable a client to breathe properly?
Select one:
a. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
b. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand.
d. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement.
Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
Which of the following is true about body image?
Select one:
a. Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual.
b. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.
c. Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting.
d. Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves.
Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
Select one:
a. Diaphragm
b. Upper trapezius
c. Rhomboids
d. Sternocleidomastoid
Sternocleidomastoid
Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint?
Select one:
a. Type I
b. Type III
c. Type Ia
d. Type II
Type II
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?
Select one:
a. Thoracic spine
b. Lumbar spine
c. Sagittal plane
d. Frontal plane
Thoracic spine
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the opposite side of the body?
Select one:
a. Lateral
b. Ipsilateral
c. Contralateral
d. Posterior
Contralateral
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Select one:
a. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
b. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability
c. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency
d. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics?
Select one:
a. Ankle dorsiflexion
b. Hip flexion
c. Knee flexion
d. Hip extension
Hip extension
Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified?
Select one:
a. Preventive care
b. Alternative medicine
c. Physical therapy
d. Behavioral health
Preventative care
For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?
Select one:
a. Elevated and slightly retracted
b. Elevated and slightly protracted
c. Depressed and slightly retracted
d. Depressed and slightly protracted
Depressed and slightly retracted
Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process?
Select one:
a. Discussing discounts on various personal training packages
b. Communicating solutions for the customer’s needs
c. Communicating the negative side effects of a sedentary lifestyle
d. Discussing the customer’s budget
Communicating solutions for the customer’s needs
What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?
Select one:
a. Body fat and lean mass composition
b. Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height
c. An accurate measure of obesity status for all individuals
d. Overall level of physical fitness
Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height
For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward?
Select one:
a. Knee valgus
b. Knee varus
c. Knee dominance
d. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt
Knee varus
In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent?
Select one:
a. Men under the age of 50
b. Postmenopausal women
c. Women under the age of 50
d. Adolescent girls
Postmenopausal women
Davis’s law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
Select one:
a. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.
b. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage.
c. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload.
d. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
What two factors define any form or type of exercise?
Select one:
a. Duration and time
b. Intensity and speed
c. Intensity and duration
d. Speed and complexity
Intensity and duration
What is osteoporosis?
Select one:
a. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
b. Lower than normal bone density
c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults
d. Chronic inflammation of the joints
A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation?
Select one:
a. Trans fats
b. Saturated fats
c. Omega-6 fatty acids
d. Omega-3 fatty acids
Omega-3 fatty acids
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
Select one:
a. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
b. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity
c. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
d. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27?
Select one:
a. Obese
b. Healthy weight
c. Class II obesity
d. Overweight
Overweight
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
Select one:
a. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions Incorrect
b. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
c. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
d. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?
Select one:
a. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity.
b. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency.
c. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
d. Biologically active forms are less efficient.
Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
Select one:
a. Health and well-being
b. Improved physical appearance
c. Competition with others
d. Being a part of a social group
Health and well-being
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Select one:
a. Attitudes
b. Outcome expectations
c. Self-efficacy
d. Intention
Self-efficacy
The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term?
Select one:
a. Core endurance
b. Core stability
c. Core strength
d. Core power
Core stability
Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball
b. Cables
c. Tubing
d. Wobble board
Wobble board
What should be the first step in a client’s program after the assessment?
Select one:
a. Designing the speed, agility, and quickness portion of the program
b. Telling the client to eat some type of complex carbohydrate
c. Designing the flexibility portion of the program
d. Having the client do their cardiovascular exercise for weight loss
Designing the flexibility portion of the program
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2?
Select one:
a. Fat
b. Glucose
c. Protein
d. Ketone bodies
Glucose
Which of the following is not an appropriate expectation for a CPT?
Select one:
a. Teaching healthy portion sizes
b. Referring out to a dietitian
c. Prescribing a supplement
d. Offering general advice on supplementation
Prescribing a supplement
What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?
Select one:
a. Phase 5
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 2
Phase 3
What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year’s worth of programming?
Select one:
a. Macrocycle
b. Microcycle
c. Megacycle
d. Mesocycle
Macrocycle
Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?
Select one:
a. Ball squat, curl to press
b. Standing cable chest press
c. Push-up
d. Romanian deadlift
Ball squat, curl to press
What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction
b. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere
c. The Z-lines moving farther apart
d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production?
Select one:
a. Glycolysis
b. The citric acid cycle
c. The ATP-PC system
d. Oxidative phosphorylation
The ATP-PC system
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Quadriceps
c. Diaphragm
d. Multifidus
Latissimus dorsi
Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels?
Select one:
a. Cool-down
b. Warm-up
c. Skill development
d. Resistance
Skill development
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?
Select one:
a. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test
b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
c. YMCA 3-minute step test
d. Rockport 1-mile walk test
YMCA 3-minute step test
What are the recommended training variables for static stretching?
Select one:
a. 2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes
b. 5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds
c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds
d. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 2 minutes
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds
How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?
Select one:
a. 1 or 2 reps
b. 6 to 8 reps
c. 3 to 5 reps
d. 8 to 10 reps
3 to 5 reps
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?
Select one:
a. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM
b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM
d. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise?
Select one:
a. Increased end-systolic volume
b. Decreased heart rate
c. Decreased stroke volume
d. Increased heart rate
Increased heart rate
Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?
Select one:
a. Companionship support
b. Informational support
c. Emotional support
d. Instrumental support
Instrumental support
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point?
Select one:
a. Anterior
b. Superior
c. Inferior
d. Posterior
Superior
Which statement best demonstrates empathy?
Select one:
a. I think you will feel healthier once you finally lose some weight.
b. I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well.
c. I don’t understand why you think it’s so hard to do 30 minutes of cardio 3 times a week.
d. If you spend more time in the gym, you will reach your goals faster.
I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well.
When a client makes a plan, such as, “When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes,” what are they doing?
Select one:
a. Self-monitoring
b. Stating an outcome expectation
c. Forming an implementation intention
d. Creating a coping plan
Forming an implementation intention
Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
Select one:
a. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps
b. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
c. Active stretching of the hamstrings
d. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings
SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
What is the name of the stored form of glucose?
Select one:
a. Triglycerides
b. Pyruvate
c. Glycolysis
d. Glycogen
Glycogen
Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?
Select one:
a. Ball cobra
b. Calf raise
c. Single-leg dumbbell scaption
d. Standing dumbbell lateral raise
Calf raise
What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)?
Select one:
a. Alanine, glutamine, and tyrosine
b. Histidine, threonine, and phenylalanine
c. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine Correct
d. Methionine, tryptophan, and lysine
Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
Select one:
a. Quadratus lumborum
b. Gluteal complex
c. Obliques
d. Pectoral group
Pectoral group
Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client’s balance during movement?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat
b. Push-up test
c. 40-yard dash
d. Overhead squat
Single-leg squat
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Hip flexors
b. Hip internal rotators
c. Hip abductors
d. Hip extensors
Hip abductors
Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol?
Select one:
a. When the individual responds with “yes” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
b. When the individual says it is “challenging” to speak during the activity
c. When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
d. When the individual says it is “somewhat easy” to talk during the activity
When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?
Select one:
a. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
b. Calcitonin
c. Glucagon
d. Cortisol
Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.
Select one:
a. Vestibular
b. Sensorimotor function
c. Vision
d. Somatosensation
Somatosensation
Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Infraspinatus
c. Upper trapezius and levator scapula
d. Lower trapezius
Upper trapezius and levator scapula
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Select one:
a. Plyometric training
b. Stabilization training
c. SAQ training
d. Power training
Plyometric training
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Select one:
a. Outcome expectations
b. Intention
c. Self-efficacy
d. Self-regulation
Self-efficacy
Karim, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, recently retired from playing professional football and is beginning his career in the fitness industry. How can Karim best promote his experience as a professional athlete?
Select one:
a. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish immediate rapport with club members and potential clients.
b. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish a recognizable brand identity.
c. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete gives him the ability to create an accurate business forecast.
d. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.
Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.
Maintaining one’s balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Select one:
a. Dynamic balance
b. Stationary balance
c. Static balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance
Dynamic balance
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Isometric contraction
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Stretch reflex
Autogenic inhibition
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Select one:
a. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive.
b. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production.
c. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
d. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise?
Select one:
a. Overhead press
b. Seated leg extension
c. Barbell squat
d. Bench press
Seated leg extension
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
Select one:
a. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort.
b. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.
c. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
d. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.
The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Select one:
a. Plow pose Correct
b. Cat pose
c. Downward dog pose
d. Bound angle pose
What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club?
Select one:
a. Business casual
b. Jeans and a polo shirt
c. Brand-new workout clothes
d. Professional business attire
Professional business attire
Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles?
Select one:
a. Sandbag rotational lunge
b. Stability ball abdominal crunches
c. Kettlebell RDL
d. Cable machine single-arm row
Kettlebell RDL
