Practice Test Questions #6

Question 1

What BMI score is considered overweight?
Select one:
a. 18.5 to 24.9
b. 25 to 29.9
c. 35 to 39.9
d. 30 to 34.9

Answer 1

25 to 29.9

Question 2

Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional’s accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?
Select one:
a. Best external evidence
b. Number of continuing education units earned
c. Individual professional expertise
d. Client values and expectations

Answer 2

Individual professional expertise

Question 3

What is the ideal landing position when performing the squat jump exercise?
Select one:
a. Knee varus
b. Knees inside the first toe
c. Knee valgus
d. Knees over second and third toes

Answer 3

Knees over second and third toes

Question 4

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?
Select one:
a. Right ventricle
b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Left atrium

Answer 4

Right atrium

Question 5

What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?
Select one:
a. 14 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 10 inches
d. 16 inches

Answer 5

12 inches

Question 6

Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?
Select one:
a. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
b. Personal trainers study exercise science and have the knowledge to help members get results.
c. Personal trainers are very outgoing and can help create a fun atmosphere in a fitness facility.
d. Personal trainers are often in great physical shape, which demonstrates that belonging to a health club can produce results members want.

Answer 6

Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.

Question 7

Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone?
Select one:
a. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods
b. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods
d. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods

Answer 7

Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods

Question 8

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Stretch reflex
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Isometric contraction

Answer 8

Reciprocal inhibition

Question 9

Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?
Select one:
a. Planking on a stable surface
b. Marching on a stable surface
c. Prone dead bugs on floor
d. Instability training using a stability ball

Answer 9

Instability training using a stability ball

Question 10

A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep. Which of these strategies is the client using?
Select one:
a. Contemplation
b. Self-monitoring
c. Goal setting
d. Imagery

Answer 10

Self-monitoring

Question 11

What is glycogen?
Select one:
a. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals
b. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
c. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans
d. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants

Answer 11

The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

Question 12

The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term?
Select one:
a. Socioeconomic status
b. Income status
c. Net worth
d. Social influence

Answer 12

Socioeconomic status

Question 13

What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body’s sprinting direction in response to that stimulus?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Agility
c. Quickness
d. Speed

Answer 13

Agility

Question 14

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?
Select one:
a. It creates too powerful a jump.
b. It reduces force too much.
c. It causes stress to the connective tissues.
d. It makes the next jump too easy to execute.

Answer 14

It causes stress to the connective tissues.

Question 15

What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Select one:
a. Dynamic motion
b. Explosive jumps
c. Small jumps
d. Fast, powerful movements

Answer 15

Small jumps

Question 16

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?
Select one:
a. Power step-ups and ice skaters
b. Bench press and stability ball push-ups
c. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups
d. Deadlifts and squats

Answer 16

Bench press and stability ball push-ups

Question 17

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Select one:
a. Knee flexion
b. Ankle plantar flexion
c. Hip abduction
d. Ankle dorsiflexion

Answer 17

Ankle plantar flexion

Question 18

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
Select one:
a. Glycolysis
b. The ATP-PC system
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Beta-oxidation

Answer 18

Oxidative phosphorylation

Question 19

Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
Select one:
a. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.
b. Training with free weights always requires the fitness professional to be a spotter.
c. Free weights are less intimidating than machines for those new to exercise.
d. Free-weight training is often safer for a new user when compared to machines.

Answer 19

Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.

Question 20

What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
Select one:
a. ADP and water
b. ATP and oxygen
c. ATP and water
d. ADP and hydrogen ions

Answer 20

ATP and water

Question 21

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

Answer 21

Hamstrings and erector spinae

Question 22

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
Select one:
a. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches
b. Greater support and safety for elderly clients
c. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion
d. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

Answer 22

Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

Question 23

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
Select one:
a. Lack of pyruvate
b. Depletion of phosphocreatine
c. Free hydrogen ions
d. Lack of fatty acids

Answer 23

Free hydrogen ions

Question 24

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP?
Select one:
a. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
b. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain
c. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
d. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation

Answer 24

The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

Question 25

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?
Select one:
a. Pushing assessment
b. Pulling assessment
c. Single-leg squat
d. Overhead squat

Answer 25

Overhead squat

Question 26

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
Select one:
a. Transformation phase
b. Action phase
c. Set point
d. Baseline value

Answer 26

Baseline value

Question 27

What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
Select one:
a. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.
b. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals.
c. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.
d. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

Answer 27

EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

Question 28

What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?
Select one:
a. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
c. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
d. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher

Answer 28

A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

Question 29

What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Bracing
b. Inhibition
c. Isolating
d. Drawing in

Answer 29

Bracing

Question 30

Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today?
Select one:
a. Dementia
b. Cancer
c. Diabetes
d. Coronary artery disease

Answer 30

Coronary artery disease

Question 31

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
Select one:
a. Rotator cuff muscles
b. Deltoid
c. Serratus anterior
d. Rhomboids

Answer 31

Serratus anterior

Question 32

What is homeostasis?
Select one:
a. Any abnormal condition that negatively affects the structure or function of a part of the body
b. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
c. A situation in which the human body is rapidly changing all the time
d. A combination of influences that include education, income, and occupation

Answer 32

A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

Question 33

What is a joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response?
Select one:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Osteopenia

Answer 33

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 34

What advice would enable a client to breathe properly?
Select one:
a. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
b. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand.
d. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement.

Answer 34

Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

Question 35

Which of the following is true about body image?
Select one:
a. Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual.
b. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.
c. Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting.
d. Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves.

Answer 35

Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

Question 36

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
Select one:
a. Diaphragm
b. Upper trapezius
c. Rhomboids
d. Sternocleidomastoid

Answer 36

Sternocleidomastoid

Question 37

Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint?
Select one:
a. Type I
b. Type III
c. Type Ia
d. Type II

Answer 37

Type II

Question 38

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?
Select one:
a. Thoracic spine
b. Lumbar spine
c. Sagittal plane
d. Frontal plane

Answer 38

Thoracic spine

Question 39

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the opposite side of the body?
Select one:
a. Lateral
b. Ipsilateral
c. Contralateral
d. Posterior

Answer 39

Contralateral

Question 40

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Select one:
a. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
b. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability
c. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency
d. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Answer 40

Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Question 41

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics?
Select one:
a. Ankle dorsiflexion
b. Hip flexion
c. Knee flexion
d. Hip extension

Answer 41

Hip extension

Question 42

Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified?
Select one:
a. Preventive care
b. Alternative medicine
c. Physical therapy
d. Behavioral health

Answer 42

Preventative care

Question 43

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?
Select one:
a. Elevated and slightly retracted
b. Elevated and slightly protracted
c. Depressed and slightly retracted
d. Depressed and slightly protracted

Answer 43

Depressed and slightly retracted

Question 44

Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process?
Select one:
a. Discussing discounts on various personal training packages
b. Communicating solutions for the customer’s needs
c. Communicating the negative side effects of a sedentary lifestyle
d. Discussing the customer’s budget

Answer 44

Communicating solutions for the customer’s needs

Question 45

What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?
Select one:
a. Body fat and lean mass composition
b. Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height
c. An accurate measure of obesity status for all individuals
d. Overall level of physical fitness

Answer 45

Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height

Question 46

For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward?
Select one:
a. Knee valgus
b. Knee varus
c. Knee dominance
d. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt

Answer 46

Knee varus

Question 47

In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent?
Select one:
a. Men under the age of 50
b. Postmenopausal women
c. Women under the age of 50
d. Adolescent girls

Answer 47

Postmenopausal women

Question 48

Davis’s law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
Select one:
a. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.
b. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage.
c. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload.
d. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

Answer 48

Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

Question 49

What two factors define any form or type of exercise?
Select one:
a. Duration and time
b. Intensity and speed
c. Intensity and duration
d. Speed and complexity

Answer 49

Intensity and duration

Question 50

What is osteoporosis?
Select one:
a. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
b. Lower than normal bone density
c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults
d. Chronic inflammation of the joints

Answer 50

A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile

Question 51

Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation?
Select one:
a. Trans fats
b. Saturated fats
c. Omega-6 fatty acids
d. Omega-3 fatty acids

Answer 51

Omega-3 fatty acids

Question 52

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
Select one:
a. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
b. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity
c. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
d. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions

Answer 52

To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

Question 53

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27?
Select one:
a. Obese
b. Healthy weight
c. Class II obesity
d. Overweight

Answer 53

Overweight

Question 54

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
Select one:
a. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions Incorrect
b. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
c. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
d. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

Answer 54

1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

Question 55

Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?
Select one:
a. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity.
b. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency.
c. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
d. Biologically active forms are less efficient.

Answer 55

Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

Question 56

When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
Select one:
a. Health and well-being
b. Improved physical appearance
c. Competition with others
d. Being a part of a social group

Answer 56

Health and well-being

Question 57

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Select one:
a. Attitudes
b. Outcome expectations
c. Self-efficacy
d. Intention

Answer 57

Self-efficacy

Question 58

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term?
Select one:
a. Core endurance
b. Core stability
c. Core strength
d. Core power

Answer 58

Core stability

Question 59

Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball
b. Cables
c. Tubing
d. Wobble board

Answer 59

Wobble board

Question 60

What should be the first step in a client’s program after the assessment?
Select one:
a. Designing the speed, agility, and quickness portion of the program
b. Telling the client to eat some type of complex carbohydrate
c. Designing the flexibility portion of the program
d. Having the client do their cardiovascular exercise for weight loss

Answer 60

Designing the flexibility portion of the program

Question 61

Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2?
Select one:
a. Fat
b. Glucose
c. Protein
d. Ketone bodies

Answer 61

Glucose

Question 62

Which of the following is not an appropriate expectation for a CPT?
Select one:
a. Teaching healthy portion sizes
b. Referring out to a dietitian
c. Prescribing a supplement
d. Offering general advice on supplementation

Answer 62

Prescribing a supplement

Question 63

What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?
Select one:
a. Phase 5
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 2

Answer 63

Phase 3

Question 64

What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year’s worth of programming?
Select one:
a. Macrocycle
b. Microcycle
c. Megacycle
d. Mesocycle

Answer 64

Macrocycle

Question 65

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?
Select one:
a. Ball squat, curl to press
b. Standing cable chest press
c. Push-up
d. Romanian deadlift

Answer 65

Ball squat, curl to press

Question 66

What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction
b. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere
c. The Z-lines moving farther apart
d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

Answer 66

The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

Question 67

If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production?
Select one:
a. Glycolysis
b. The citric acid cycle
c. The ATP-PC system
d. Oxidative phosphorylation

Answer 67

The ATP-PC system

Question 68

Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Quadriceps
c. Diaphragm
d. Multifidus

Answer 68

Latissimus dorsi

Question 69

Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels?
Select one:
a. Cool-down
b. Warm-up
c. Skill development
d. Resistance

Answer 69

Skill development

Question 70

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?
Select one:
a. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test
b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
c. YMCA 3-minute step test
d. Rockport 1-mile walk test

Answer 70

YMCA 3-minute step test

Question 71

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching?
Select one:
a. 2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes
b. 5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds
c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds
d. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 2 minutes

Answer 71

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

Question 72

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?
Select one:
a. 1 or 2 reps
b. 6 to 8 reps
c. 3 to 5 reps
d. 8 to 10 reps

Answer 72

3 to 5 reps

Question 73

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?
Select one:
a. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM
b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM
d. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

Answer 73

5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

Question 74

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise?
Select one:
a. Increased end-systolic volume
b. Decreased heart rate
c. Decreased stroke volume
d. Increased heart rate

Answer 74

Increased heart rate

Question 75

Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?
Select one:
a. Companionship support
b. Informational support
c. Emotional support
d. Instrumental support

Answer 75

Instrumental support

Question 76

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point?
Select one:
a. Anterior
b. Superior
c. Inferior
d. Posterior

Answer 76

Superior

Question 77

Which statement best demonstrates empathy?
Select one:
a. I think you will feel healthier once you finally lose some weight.
b. I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well.
c. I don’t understand why you think it’s so hard to do 30 minutes of cardio 3 times a week.
d. If you spend more time in the gym, you will reach your goals faster.

Answer 77

I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well.

Question 78

When a client makes a plan, such as, “When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes,” what are they doing?
Select one:
a. Self-monitoring
b. Stating an outcome expectation
c. Forming an implementation intention
d. Creating a coping plan

Answer 78

Forming an implementation intention

Question 79

Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
Select one:
a. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps
b. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
c. Active stretching of the hamstrings
d. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings

Answer 79

SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

Question 80

What is the name of the stored form of glucose?
Select one:
a. Triglycerides
b. Pyruvate
c. Glycolysis
d. Glycogen

Answer 80

Glycogen

Question 81

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?
Select one:
a. Ball cobra
b. Calf raise
c. Single-leg dumbbell scaption
d. Standing dumbbell lateral raise

Answer 81

Calf raise

Question 82

What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)?
Select one:
a. Alanine, glutamine, and tyrosine
b. Histidine, threonine, and phenylalanine
c. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine Correct
d. Methionine, tryptophan, and lysine

Answer 82

Valine, leucine, and isoleucine

Question 83

Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
Select one:
a. Quadratus lumborum
b. Gluteal complex
c. Obliques
d. Pectoral group

Answer 83

Pectoral group

Question 84

Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client’s balance during movement?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat
b. Push-up test
c. 40-yard dash
d. Overhead squat

Answer 84

Single-leg squat

Question 85

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Hip flexors
b. Hip internal rotators
c. Hip abductors
d. Hip extensors

Answer 85

Hip abductors

Question 86

Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol?
Select one:
a. When the individual responds with “yes” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
b. When the individual says it is “challenging” to speak during the activity
c. When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
d. When the individual says it is “somewhat easy” to talk during the activity

Answer 86

When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”

Question 87

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?
Select one:
a. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
b. Calcitonin
c. Glucagon
d. Cortisol

Answer 87

Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

Question 88

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.
Select one:
a. Vestibular
b. Sensorimotor function
c. Vision
d. Somatosensation

Answer 88

Somatosensation

Question 89

Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Infraspinatus
c. Upper trapezius and levator scapula
d. Lower trapezius

Answer 89

Upper trapezius and levator scapula

Question 90

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Select one:
a. Plyometric training
b. Stabilization training
c. SAQ training
d. Power training

Answer 90

Plyometric training

Question 91

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Select one:
a. Outcome expectations
b. Intention
c. Self-efficacy
d. Self-regulation

Answer 91

Self-efficacy

Question 92

Karim, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, recently retired from playing professional football and is beginning his career in the fitness industry. How can Karim best promote his experience as a professional athlete?
Select one:
a. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish immediate rapport with club members and potential clients.
b. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish a recognizable brand identity.
c. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete gives him the ability to create an accurate business forecast.
d. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.

Answer 92

Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.

Question 93

Maintaining one’s balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Select one:
a. Dynamic balance
b. Stationary balance
c. Static balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance

Answer 93

Dynamic balance

Question 94

What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Isometric contraction
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Stretch reflex

Answer 94

Autogenic inhibition

Question 95

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Select one:
a. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive.
b. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production.
c. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
d. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

Answer 95

Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

Question 96

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise?
Select one:
a. Overhead press
b. Seated leg extension
c. Barbell squat
d. Bench press

Answer 96

Seated leg extension

Question 97

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
Select one:
a. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort.
b. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.
c. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
d. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.

Answer 97

The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

Question 98

Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Select one:
a. Plow pose Correct
b. Cat pose
c. Downward dog pose
d. Bound angle pose

Question 99

What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club?
Select one:
a. Business casual
b. Jeans and a polo shirt
c. Brand-new workout clothes
d. Professional business attire

Answer 99

Professional business attire

Question 100

Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles?
Select one:
a. Sandbag rotational lunge
b. Stability ball abdominal crunches
c. Kettlebell RDL
d. Cable machine single-arm row

Answer 100

Kettlebell RDL