Practice Test Questions #2 Flashcards
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
Select one:
a. Below VT1
b. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
c. Above VT2
d. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body?
Select one:
a. Body mass index (BMI)
b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
c. Skinfold measurements
d. Anthropometry
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
What area of the chest contains the heart?
Select one:
a. Mediastinum
b. Ventricle
c. Atrium
d. Myofibril
Mediastinum
What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)?
Select one:
a. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise
b. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise
c. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise
d. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise
The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise
What is a metabolic disorder in which the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot respond normally to the insulin that is made?
Select one:
a. Hypertension
b. Intermittent claudication
c. Diabetes
d. Dyspnea
Diabetes
Which individual is suffering from an acute disease?
Select one:
a. Roger, who has type 2 diabetes
b. Perry, who suffers from a congenital heart condition
c. Tricia, who has type 1 diabetes
d. Jorge, who is sick with the flu
Jorge, who is sick with the flu
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?
Select one:
a. Left ventricle Incorrect
b. Right atrium
c. Left atrium
d. Right ventricle
Right atrium
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?
Select one:
a. Lengthening reaction
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Length-tension relationships
Reciprocal inhibition
For what is vitamin D most important?
Select one:
a. Bone health
b. Skin pigmentation
c. Eyesight
d. Hair growth
Bone health
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?
Select one:
a. Reducing burnout
b. Developing intrinsic motivation
c. Providing psychological benefits
d. Winning a triathlon
Providing psychological benefits
What are triglycerides?
Select one:
a. A substrate for anaerobic exercise
b. A substrate for high-intensity exercise
c. The stored form of fat
d. The stored form of carbohydrate
The stored form of fat
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities?
Select one:
a. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients.
b. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance.
c. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.
d. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective.
Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.
The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring?
Select one:
a. Supination and pronation
b. Flexion and extension
c. Adduction and abduction
d. Abduction and extension
Flexion and extension
Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?
Select one:
a. Strength Endurance Training
b. Stabilization Endurance Training
c. Maximal Strength Training
d. Power Training
Stabilization Endurance Training
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?
Select one:
a. Sagittal plane box jump-up
b. Frontal plane box jump-up
c. Sagittal plane box jump-down
d. Transverse plane box jump-down
Transverse plane box jump-down
Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?
Select one:
a. Exercise modality
b. Environmental temperature
c. Duration of each stage
d. Talk test
Environmental temperature
What are the current physical activity recommendations for youth?
Select one:
a. 40 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day
b. 60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day
c. 30 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day
d. 50 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day
60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day
Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing?
Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Internal intercostals
c. Scalenes
d. Diaphragm
Diaphragm
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane?
Select one:
a. Dumbbell lat row
b. Suspended chest press
c. Elastic band woodchop
d. Seated abdominal crunch machine
Elastic band woodchop
Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?
Select one:
a. Dumbbell shoulder press
b. Lat pulldown
c. Stability ball push-up
d. Front medicine ball oblique throw
Dumbbell shoulder press
What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
Select one:
a. Both feet on the floor
b. The absence of perturbations
c. A stable floor
d. Correct technique
Correct technique
Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Multifidus
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Rectus abdominis
Multifidus
How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men?
Select one:
a. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health does not contribute to the change.
b. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.
c. Testosterone levels are not affected by age, as overall health is the primary reason for a decline.
d. Age and overall health do not affect testosterone levels.
A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.
What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions?
Select one:
a. Verbal communication
b. Motivational interviewing
c. Reflective listening
d. Nonverbal communication
Nonverbal communication
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities?
Select one:
a. Overhead squat
b. Squat
c. Lunge
d. Single-leg squat
Squat
Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Proper movement patterns
b. Improving stability
c. Increasing strength
d. Improving mobility
Increasing strength
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?
Select one:
a. Eccentrically contracted
b. Isometrically contracted
c. Concentrically contracted
d. Relaxed
Isometrically contracted
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of activities of daily living separate from planned exercise?
Select one:
a. Weightlifting
b. Yardwork
c. Running
d. Cycling
Yardwork
What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?
Select one:
a. Stride rate
b. Agility
c. Power
d. Stride length
Stride rate
Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain?
Select one:
a. Sagittal plane
b. Transverse plane
c. Anterior chain
d. Posterior chain
Posterior chain
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
Select one:
a. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary
b. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
c. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle
d. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint
A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?
Select one:
a. 0.1
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. 0.2
0.1
Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration?
Select one:
a. Water
b. Fruit juice
c. An isotonic sports drink
d. A hypertonic sports drink
Water
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
b. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
c. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
d. Single-leg hop forward
Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Select one:
a. Moving a grocery cart
b. Cleaning
c. Raking leaves
d. Getting in and out of the car
Cleaning
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?
Select one:
a. What might you want to change?
b. What might work for you?
c. If you decided to make a change, what might you do?
d. What makes you think you are not at risk?
What makes you think you are not at risk?
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?
Select one:
a. Weight training
b. Stable floor environment
c. Biomechanical ankle platform system
d. Aqua therapy
Biomechanical ankle platform system
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins?
Select one:
a. Vitamin C, B complex, and K
b. Vitamin C, B complex, and D
c. Vitamin C, D, and K
d. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?
Select one:
a. It involves expiring against a closed glottis.
b. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
c. It can raise an individual’s heart rate and blood pressure.
d. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.
It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?
Select one:
a. The ATP-PC system
b. The electron transport chain
c. Glycolysis
d. Oxidative phosphorylation
Glycolysis
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?
Select one:
a. Palms facing each other
b. Palms facing down
c. Thumbs pointing up
d. Thumbs pointing down
Thumbs pointing up
Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids?
Select one:
a. Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA)
b. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
c. Palmitic acid
d. Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)
Palmitic acid
Which statement best describes the final stage of the sales process?
Select one:
a. Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer’s needs
b. Communicating solutions for the customer’s needs
c. Identifying a customer’s needs
d. Asking for referrals
Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer’s needs
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
Select one:
a. Vestibular senses
b. Vision
c. Strength
d. Somatosensation
Strength
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?
Select one:
a. Active stretches
b. Self-myofascial techniques
c. Dynamic stretches
d. Sports drills
Self-myofascial techniques
Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids?
Select one:
a. Proinflammatory properties
b. Anti-inflammatory properties
c. Improved thyroid function
d. Increased energy
Anti-inflammatory properties
Which of the following hormones, if increased at baseline, may be indicative of overtraining?
Select one:
a. Testosterone
b. Thyroxin
c. Growth hormone
d. Cortisol
Cortisol
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
Select one:
a. 15 to 60 seconds
b. 0 to 15 seconds
c. 90 to 120 seconds
d. 60 to 90 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest?
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Contemplation
c. Preparation
d. Precontemplation
Maintenance
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?
Select one:
a. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
b. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.
c. This stretch is too advanced for the average person.
d. The stretch is too complicated for the older client.
The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients?
Select one:
a. Choosing only small step boxes
b. Choosing the highest box available
c. Letting the client choose the box size
d. Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities
Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities
Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?
Select one:
a. Knee valgus
b. Lower crossed syndrome
c. Pes planus distortion syndrome
d. Upper crossed syndrome
Pes planus distortion syndrome
What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?
Select one:
a. Macrocycle
b. Linear
c. Undulating
d. Mesocycle
Undulating
Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose?
Select one:
a. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
b. To mitigate the side effects of medication
c. To correct nutrient imbalances
d. For general well-being
To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
c. Upper trapezius
d. Adductor complex
Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
Select one:
a. Aerobic fitness
b. Power
c. Muscular strength
d. Flexibility
Power
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Pelvic floor muscles
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Multifidus
Erector spinae
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Select one:
a. Anterior pelvic tilt
b. Posterior pelvic tilt
c. Medial pelvic tilt
d. Lateral pelvic tilt
Anterior pelvic tilt
Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions?
Select one:
a. Pivot
b. Saddle
c. Hinge
d. Ball-and-socket
Ball-and-socket
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?
Select one:
a. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases.
b. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
c. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
d. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases.
As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
Which three senses are involved in the balance system?
Select one:
a. Visual, vestibular, and hearing systems
b. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
c. Visual, vestibular, and auditory systems
d. Vestibular, somatosensory, and auditory systems
Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
When a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client’s self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using?
Select one:
a. Verbal persuasion
b. Provide instructions
c. Set specific tasks
d. Experience mastery
Set specific tasks
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Erector spinae
c. Gluteus medius
d. Hip flexor
Gluteus medius
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?
Select one:
a. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
c. Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, and shoulder flexion
d. Spinal flexion, knee flexion, and elbow flexion
Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
Select one:
a. Stretch reflex
b. Lengthening reaction
c. Isometric contraction
d. Eccentric contraction
Stretch reflect
What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?
Select one:
a. Strengthening exercises
b. Flexibility exercises
c. Balance exercises
d. Plyometric exercises
Flexibility exercises
What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Agility
c. Stride length
d. Stride rate
Stride length
At what age is the adolescent brain considered to be fully developed?
Select one:
a. 18
b. 25
c. 22
d. 30
25
Kettlebells were first used in which setting?
Select one:
a. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales
b. The Russian military
c. Eastern European gymnastic programs
d. By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators
As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales
What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Stretch reflex
d. Pattern overload
Pattern overload
A new client is having trouble managing her busy schedule and has cancelled her last 3 personal training sessions. What is the best option for the fitness professional?
Select one:
a. Refund the remaining sessions and actively search for a new client.
b. Let the client know that cancelling sessions costs them money without providing any benefits.
c. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.
d. Politely let the client know that you are transferring them to another trainer.
Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.
Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product?
Select one:
a. The ingredients list
b. The nutrition label
c. The nutrition facts panel
d. The percent daily values
The ingredients list
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?
Select one:
a. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
b. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
c. Cancer and bleeding disorders
d. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
Select one:
a. Left atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Right ventricle
d. Right atrium
Right ventricle
A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal?
Select one:
a. I want to run 3 times per week.
b. I want to run in the morning before work.
c. I want to run outside.
d. I want to run a 6-minute mile.
I want to run a 6-minute mile.
What activity is especially beneficial for combating the loss of muscle mass, power, and strength for aging adults?
Select one:
a. Walking
b. Resistance training
c. Cardio
d. Aerobics
Resistance training
Which of the following is a primary goal of the strength endurance phase of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Enhance stabilization endurance and prime mover strength
b. Teaching optimal movement patterns
c. Maximal Strength Training
d. Maximal muscle growth
Enhance stabilization endurance and prime mover strength
Which statement about cancer is most accurate?
Select one:
a. It is most common in adults between the ages of 30 and 55.
b. Cells in the body grow abnormally.
c. There is a lack of cell growth in the body.
d. Almost all cancers are preventable.
Cells in the body grow abnormally.
A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her?
Select one:
a. Extrinsic motivation
b. Affiliation motivation
c. Autonomy motivation
d. Intrinsic motivation
Extrinsic motivation
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating?
Select one:
a. Unequivocal
b. Ambiguity
c. Confusion
d. Ambivalence
Ambivalence
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?
Select one:
a. Pyruvate
b. Glycogen
c. Fatty acids
d. Amino acids
Pyruvate
Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?
Select one:
a. Feet, knees, hips, elbows, shoulders
b. Feet, ankles, hips, shoulders, neck
c. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
d. Ankles, knees, wrists, shoulders, head
Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg?
Select one:
a. None are needed, as this value is considered normal (i.e., maintenance is suggested).
b. Lifestyle changes alone
c. Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
d. Medical monitoring coupled with medications to lower blood pressure
Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?
Select one:
a. A cadence of 60 steps per minute
b. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
c. A cadence of 112 steps per minute
d. A cadence of 36 steps per minute
A cadence of 96 steps per minute
If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Select one:
a. Adding a stabilization pause between reps
b. Increasing speed
c. Being more explosive
d. Switch to single-leg power step-ups
Adding a stabilization pause between reps
What are the two components of a sarcomere?
Select one:
a. Tropomyosin and troponin
b. Muscle fiber and muscle cell
c. Epimysium and endomysium
d. Actin and myosin
Actin and myosin
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?
Select one:
a. 10 to 35% of total calories
b. 30 to 50% of total calories
c. 45 to 65% of total calories
d. 20 to 35% of total calories
45 to 65% of total calories
Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program?
Select one:
a. Firm surface
b. BOSU ball
c. Balance beam
d. Foam pad
BOSU ball
Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?
Select one:
a. Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion
b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
c. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg
d. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg
Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system?
Select one:
a. Neuron
b. Nucleus
c. Axon
d. Spindles
Neuron
Which is involved in frontside mechanics?
Select one:
a. Lead leg
b. Rear leg
c. Ankle plantar flexion
d. Knee extension
Lead leg
Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?
Select one:
a. Auditory system
b. Somatosensory system
c. Visual system
d. Vestibular system
Somatosensory system
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Select one:
a. Pro shuttle
b. 40-yard dash
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Long (broad) jump
Pro shuttle
At her first visit to her new fitness trainer, Alisha’s BMI was 26. According to this information, how would Alisha be classified?
Select one:
a. Underweight
b. Healthy weight
c. Obese
d. Overweight
Overweight
What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Hypertrophy
b. Power
c. Stabilization
d. Speed
Hypertrophy
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
Select one:
a. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
b. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power
c. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed
d. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed
Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
Recently, what has become an effective way to deliver customized exercise solutions to clients based on their individual needs?
Select one:
a. Creating exercise programs to heal injured body parts
b. Teaching group fitness workouts
c. Offering online coaching programs
d. Offering customized meal plans for each client
Offering online coaching programs
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Select one:
a. Wolff’s law
b. Overload principle
c. Davis’s law
d. Archimedes’ principle
Davis’s law
The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called?
Select one:
a. Homeostasis
b. Neuromuscular efficiency
c. Fight-or-flight response
d. Excitation-contraction coupling
Homeostasis
