Practice Test Questions #5

Question 1

Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins?
Select one:
a. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health.
b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
c. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy.
d. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body.

Answer 1

Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.

Question 2

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Altered length-tension relationship
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
d. Synergistic dominance

Answer 2

Synergistic dominance

Question 3

How should an eccentric muscle action be described?
Select one:
a. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue
b. The development of muscle tension during shortening of the contractile tissue
c. The development of muscle tension without shortening or lengthening of the contractile tissue
d. The development of muscle tension at a fixed speed during both shortening and lengthening of the contractile tissue

Answer 3

The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue

Question 4

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?
Select one:
a. Arrhythmia
b. Hypertension
c. Heart valve problem
d. Ischemic heart disease

Answer 4

Ischemic heart disease

Question 5

Which of the following is true about cholesterol?
Select one:
a. One can live without cholesterol.
b. Cholesterol is found only in the body’s major organs.
c. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.
d. For the body to produce enough cholesterol for daily needs, the diet must be supplemented with vitamins and minerals.

Answer 5

Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.

Question 6

Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)?
Select one:
a. Cleaning the house
b. Running for 5 miles
c. Sleeping
d. Doing 20 minutes of resistance training

Answer 6

Cleaning the house

Question 7

Which of the following is true regarding steroids and other banned substances?
Select one:
a. They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.
b. They have overexaggerated side effects that typically do not occur.
c. They should never be discussed with clients in any capacity.
d. They should always be recommended to clients to help them get results quickly.

Answer 7

They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.

Question 8

Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin C

Answer 8

Vitamin A

Question 9

What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Select one:
a. Brachial artery
b. Radial artery
c. Carotid artery
d. Femoral artery

Answer 9

Brachial artery

Question 10

Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship?
Select one:
a. Autonomous
b. Independent
c. Reciprocal
d. Unequal

Answer 10

Reciprocal

Question 11

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
Select one:
a. Knees
b. Spine
c. Shoulders
d. Ankles

Answer 11

Spine

Question 12

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?
Select one:
a. Certified nutrition specialist
b. Licensed dietitian
c. Registered dietitian nutritionist
d. Certified dietitian nutritionist

Answer 12

Registered dietitian nutritionist

Question 13

Which vitamin is the most transient?
Select one:
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin D

Answer 13

Vitamin C

Question 14

Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?
Select one:
a. Peripheral
b. Axial
c. Lateral
d. Appendicular

Answer 14

Appendicular

Question 15

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball soccer throw
b. Barbell squat
c. Single-leg cable row
d. Bench press

Answer 15

Medicine ball soccer throw

Question 16

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?
Select one:
a. An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.
b. Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.
c. Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.
d. Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program.

Answer 16

An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

Question 17

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?
Select one:
a. 0.4
b. 0.6
c. 0.8
d. 0.2

Answer 17

0.4

Question 18

Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball
b. Sandbag
c. Kettlebell
d. ViPR

Answer 18

Medicine ball

Question 19

Flexibility is defined as the following:
Select one:
a. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
b. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees
c. A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched
d. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely

Answer 19

Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

Question 20

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?
Select one:
a. Phase 4
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 2

Answer 20

Phase 2

Question 21

What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as?
Select one:
a. Utilizing supersets during training
b. Mastering basic movement patterns
c. Focusing on improving muscular growth
d. Improving the rate of force production

Answer 21

Mastering basic movement patterns

Question 22

Which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease?
Select one:
a. HDL (high-density lipoprotein)
b. MDL (medium-density lipoprotein)
c. EDL (elevated-density lipoprotein)
d. LDL (low-density lipoprotein)

Answer 22

LDL (low-density lipoprotein)

Question 23

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Select one:
a. Power Training
b. Strength Endurance Training
c. Muscular Development Training
d. Stabilization Endurance Training

Answer 23

Power Training

Question 24

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Select one:
a. Body fat loss
b. Muscle mass atrophy
c. Decreased volume and intensity
d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss

Answer 24

Body fat loss

Question 25

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Valsalva maneuver b. Venous pooling c. Peripheral resistance d. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

Answer 25

Frank Starling Law of the Heart

Question 26

When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations? Select one: a. Strength endurance b. Power c. Stabilization endurance d. Muscular development

Answer 26

Power

Question 27

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Select one: a. Bench press strength assessment b. Pulling assessment c. Pushing assessment d. Overhead press assessment

Answer 27

Bench press strength assessment

Question 28

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete’s macrocycle annual training plan? Select one: a. Off-season training b. Cardio training c. Preseason training d. In-season training

Answer 28

Cardio training

Question 29

For which population is the 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test considered most valid? Select one: a. Individuals recovering from an injury b. Older adults c. Deconditioned individuals d. College-aged athletes

Answer 29

College-aged athletes

Question 30

What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Behavior change techniques c. Attitudes d. Determinants

Answer 30

Determinants

Question 31

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Power Training b. Muscular Development Training c. Stabilization Endurance Training d. Strength Endurance Training

Answer 31

Power Training

Question 32

If a client is using social media to find inspiration, information, or support for their fitness endeavors, it would be an example of which social construct? Select one: a. Social pressure b. Social ambivalence c. Social connections d. Social influence

Answer 32

Social influence

Question 33

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? Select one: a. Thyroid function b. Kidney function c. Liver function d. Heart function

Answer 33

Thyroid function

Question 34

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Select one: a. Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck b. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck c. Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest d. Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck

Answer 34

Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

Question 35

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Gluteus maximus c. Pectoralis major d. Anterior deltoid

Answer 35

Latissimus dorsi

Question 36

Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process? Select one: a. Neuroplasticity b. Remodeling c. Osteoporosis d. Lengthening

Answer 36

Remodeling

Question 37

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise? Select one: a. 0 to 15 seconds b. 90 to 120 seconds c. 60 to 90 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds

Answer 37

15 to 60 seconds

Question 38

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver? Select one: a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, bear down with the muscles of the global core. b. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine. c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, tighten all muscles of the global core. d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, hold your breath and tighten your gluteals.

Answer 38

To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

Question 39

What two activities are part of a client's warm-up? Select one: a. Plyometrics b. Core c. Resistance d. Flexibility and cardio

Answer 39

Flexibility and cardio

Question 40

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client? Select one: a. Previous injury b. Prime-mover relaxation c. Laxity of a joint d. Stabilizer muscle relaxation

Answer 40

Previous injury

Question 41

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature? Select one: a. Seated cable row b. Ball cobra c. Lat pulldown d. Close grip bench press

Answer 41

Close grip bench press

Question 42

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Select one: a. Mechanoreceptor b. Action potential c. Nociceptor d. Neurotransmitter

Answer 42

Nociceptor

Question 43

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell? Select one: a. A dumbbell is safer. b. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle. c. A kettlebell is heavier. d. Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same.

Answer 43

With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

Question 44

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex? Select one: a. Deep longitudinal subsystem b. Lateral subsystem c. Posterior oblique subsystem d. Anterior oblique subsystem

Answer 44

Lateral subsystem

Question 45

Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Deconditioning b. Adequate core stability c. Adequate joint stability d. Power exercise familiarity

Answer 45

Deconditioning

Question 46

What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? Select one: a. Reverse listing b. Imagery c. Cognitive fusion d. Stopping

Answer 46

Reverse listing

Question 47

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Oxidation d. Gluconeogenesis

Answer 47

Gluconeogenesis

Question 48

The field of psychology focuses on which of the following domains? Select one: a. Physiological systems b. The mind and behavior c. Neuromuscular adaptations d. Pathology of disease

Answer 48

The mind and behavior

Question 49

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance b. Strength Endurance c. Maximal Strength d. Power

Answer 49

Strength Endurance

Question 50

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility? Select one: a. Static posture assessment b. Performance assessment c. Dynamic posture assessment d. Overhead squat assessment

Answer 50

Performance assessment

Question 51

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Select one: a. Right ventricle b. Right atrium c. Left ventricle d. Left atrium

Answer 51

Left ventricle

Question 52

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle b. Having more fat stored on their body c. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle d. Having more mitochondria in their muscle

Answer 52

Having more mitochondria in their muscle

Question 53

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 5 times a week b. 6 times a week c. 4 times a week d. 3 times a week

Answer 53

5 times a week

Question 54

Which of the following is a major nutritional contributor to muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. Minerals b. Vitamins c. The essential amino acids d. Caffeine

Answer 54

The essential amino acids

Question 55

Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct? Select one: a. Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power b. Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance c. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power d. Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength

Answer 55

Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

Question 56

What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume? Select one: a. A resume allows a job candidate to identify athletic accomplishments. b. A resume allows a job candidate to express a personal statement about their passion. c. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer. d. A resume allows a job candidate to highlight their expertise in a particular field.

Answer 56

A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.

Question 57

Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association? Select one: a. Systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120 b. Systolic 120 to 129 and diastolic <80 c. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80 d. Systolic 130 to 139 or diastolic 80 to 89

Answer 57

Systolic <120 and diastolic <80

Question 58

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2? Select one: a. An RPE of 5 to 6 b. An RPE of 9 to 10 c. An RPE of 7 to 8 d. An RPE of 3 to 4

Answer 58

An RPE of 5 to 6

Question 59

What is defined as steady-state exercise? Select one: a. Exercise that goes on for a long time b. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity c. Exercise that burns a lot of calories d. Exercise performed for a short duration of time

Answer 59

Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity

Question 60

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions? Select one: a. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate b. Increased lipogenesis c. Increased lipolysis d. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume

Answer 60

Increased lipolysis

Question 61

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. PAR-Q+ b. Overhead squat assessment c. Dietary assessment d. An annual physical

Answer 61

PAR-Q+

Question 62

How can systolic blood pressure be defined? Select one: a. The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body b. The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute) c. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded d. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

Answer 62

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded

Question 63

What does EMG stand for? Select one: a. Electrocardiogram b. Electromagnetic spectrum c. Electromyography d. Elektrokardiogramm

Answer 63

Electromyography

Question 64

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body? Select one: a. Ball squat b. Squat, curl to two-arm press c. Multiplanar step-up d. Single-leg Romanian deadlift

Answer 64

Squat, curl to two-arm press

Question 65

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. External obliques c. Transverse abdominis d. Erector spinae

Answer 65

Transverse abdominis

Question 66

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? Select one: a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week

Answer 66

Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

Question 67

Social support is best described by which statement? Select one: a. Providing counseling sessions with clients who exhibit signs of depression b. Rearranging a schedule to accommodate a client's availability c. The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior d. Posting on social media about the recent successes of clients

Answer 67

The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior

Question 68

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Osteopenia d. Osteoarthritis

Answer 68

Osteoarthritis

Question 69

What are the building blocks of body proteins? Select one: a. Ketone bodies b. Triglycerides c. Amino acids d. Glucose

Answer 69

Amino acids

Question 70

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Middle and lower trapezius b. Teres major c. Pectoralis major d. Latissimus dorsi

Answer 70

Middle and lower trapezius

Question 71

A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question? Select one: a. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable. b. Suggest that she avoid eating any fat during the week to promote fat loss. c. Suggest that she avoid eating carbohydrates during the week to promote fat loss. d. Explain that fat loss occurs in a caloric deficit and she should cut her caloric intake drastically over the next week to drop fat fast.

Answer 71

Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

Question 72

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Select one: a. Triceps brachii b. Latissimus dorsi c. Biceps brachii d. Quadriceps

Answer 72

Triceps brachii

Question 73

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action? Select one: a. Guided practice b. Coping plan c. Implementation intention d. Self-monitoring

Answer 73

Implementation intention

Question 74

What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult? Select one: a. Perturbation b. Sensorimotor function c. Neuromuscular control d. Somatosensation

Answer 74

Perturbation

Question 75

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Anterior and posterior tibialis c. Adductor complex d. Abdominals

Answer 75

Anterior and posterior tibialis

Question 76

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement? Select one: a. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently. b. It requires the use of less elastic energy. c. It decreases vertical jump height. d. It requires less eccentric deceleration.

Answer 76

It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

Question 77

Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility? Select one: a. Paying attention to personal grooming will make it easier to make new friends while working. b. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are. c. Personal grooming can help personal trainers appear more in shape, which is important for attracting clients. d. Personal grooming is critical for creating engaging social media posts.

Answer 77

Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.

Question 78

At what age is total peak bone mass reached? Select one: a. 25 b. 18 c. 30 d. 35

Answer 78

30

Question 79

Which condition is an example of a chronic disease? Select one: a. Appendicitis b. Strep throat c. Flu d. Type 2 diabetes

Answer 79

Type 2 diabetes

Question 80

Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following? Select one: a. Lower body temperature b. Increased cardiac output c. Decreased blood flow d. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)

Answer 80

Decreased blood flow

Question 81

How are open-ended questions best used during the sales process? Select one: a. The questions help a personal trainer learn about a customer's family medical history. b. The questions are easy for the customer to answer, as they can be answered with a simple yes or no. c. The questions identify the customer's wants, needs, fears, and desires. d. The questions help a personal trainer learn if the customer's workout schedule fits within the personal trainer's availability.

Answer 81

The questions identify the customer's wants, needs, fears, and desires.

Question 82

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion? Select one: a. 120 beats per minute b. 140 beats per minute c. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate d. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise

Answer 82

140 beats per minute

Question 83

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? Select one: a. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane. b. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. c. Athletic performance is a universal goal. d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

Answer 83

Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

Question 84

Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury? Select one: a. Knee valgus b. Low-back arching c. Posterior pelvic tilt d. Anterior pelvic tilt

Answer 84

Knee valgus

Question 85

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers. b. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers. c. Type I fibers are “slow twitch.” d. Type I fibers are “fast twitch.”

Answer 85

Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”

Question 86

A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client's goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using? Select one: a. Motivational interviewing b. Active listening c. Nonverbal communication d. Reflective listening

Answer 86

Reflective listening

Question 87

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Autogenic inhibition

Answer 87

Autogenic inhibition

Question 88

Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein? Select one: a. Synthesis of hormones b. Padding of vital internal organs c. Insulation of internal organs d. Regulation of body temperature

Answer 88

Synthesis of hormones

Question 89

Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk? Select one: a. Plantar fasciitis b. Patellar tendonitis c. A sprain d. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear

Answer 89

Plantar fasciitis

Question 90

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay? Select one: a. Concentric b. Amortization c. Isometric d. Eccentric

Answer 90

Amortization

Question 91

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance. Select one: a. Flat floor b. Static balance c. Seated weight-training exercises d. Proprioceptively enriched

Answer 91

Proprioceptively enriched

Question 92

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Lower trapezius c. Abdominals d. Hip flexors

Answer 92

Abdominals

Question 93

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise is rhythmic. b. The exercise targets large muscle groups. c. The exercise is continuous in nature. d. The exercise is intense.

Answer 93

The exercise is intense.

Question 94

What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched? Select one: a. Increased muscle strength and speed b. Increased mobility and balance c. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle d. Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion

Answer 94

Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

Question 95

Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement? Select one: a. When someone has general anxiety about physical activity b. When someone has anxiety about social situations c. When someone has anxiety about how their physique looks in the mirror d. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

Answer 95

When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

Question 96

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate? Select one: a. Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors. b. Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy. c. Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart. d. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

Answer 96

Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

Question 97

Extreme dietary restrictions may increase risk for what? Select one: a. Increased bone growth b. Mineral toxicity c. Vitamin and mineral deficiencies d. Rapid weight gain

Answer 97

Vitamin and mineral deficiencies

Question 98

What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? Select one: a. Knowledge of performance b. Knowledge of results c. Motivation d. Proprioception

Answer 98

Proprioception

Question 99

What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Sarcopenia c. Bone density Correct d. Osteopenia

Question 100

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Select one: a. Peripheral heart action system b. Complex training c. Drop set d. Pyramid system

Answer 100

Peripheral heart action system