Practice Test Questions Flashcards by Trudy Hy

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?
Select one:
a. Normal conversation is maintained. Incorrect
b. Continuous talking becomes challenging
c. Inability to speak at all
d. Only a few words can be produced between breaths

Continuous talking becomes challenging

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Which term best describes core training’s effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?
Select one:
a. Rehabilitation
b. Injury resistance
c. Improved posture Incorrect
d. Performance

Injury resistance

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When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
Select one:
a. Health and well-being
b. Competition with others
c. Being a part of a social group Incorrect
d. Improved physical appearance

Health and well-being

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Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
Select one:
a. 30%
b. 20% Incorrect
c. 10%
d. 5%

10%

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How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?
Select one:
a. It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test. Incorrect
b. It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test.
c. It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test.
d. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.

It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.

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What is end-systolic volume?
Select one:
a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction Incorrect
d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

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Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?
Select one:
a. Exercise
b. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis Incorrect
c. Thermic effect of food
d. Resting metabolic rate

Resting metabolic rate

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What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?
Select one:
a. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work Incorrect
b. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes
c. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work
d. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

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In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Select one:
a. Zone 1
b. Zone 3
c. Zone 4 Incorrect
d. Zone 2

Zone 3

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What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder?
Select one:
a. Shoulder impingement
b. Frozen shoulder
c. Rotator cuff tear Incorrect
d. Dislocation of the shoulder

Shoulder impingement

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What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?
Select one:
a. It can increase LDL cholesterol. Incorrect
b. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
c. It can lower both HDL and LDL cholesterol.
d. It increases both HDL and LDL cholesterol.

It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.

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Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?
Select one:
a. Condyloid
b. Nonsynovial
c. Nonaxial
d. Synovial

Nonaxial

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What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?
Select one:
a. Side-to-side hops Incorrect
b. Depth jumps
c. Sport skills
d. Dual-foot drills

Dual-foot drills

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The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
Select one:
a. Bronchioles Incorrect
b. Pulmonary arteries
c. Trachea
d. Alveolar sacs

Alveolar sacs

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The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae Incorrect
b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators

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Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin?
Select one:
a. Pantothenic acid
b. Vitamin C
c. Niacin Incorrect
d. Folate

Folate

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Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball chest pass Incorrect
b. Front medicine ball oblique throw
c. Soccer throw
d. Two-arm push press

Two-arm push press

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A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?
Select one:
a. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal. Incorrect
b. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
c. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake.
d. Recommend she eat high-calorie “cheat meals” more often.

Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.

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Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
Select one:
a. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion Incorrect
b. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
c. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches
d. Greater support and safety for elderly clients

Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

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How many B vitamins are there?
Select one:
a. 3
b. 21
c. 8
d. 12 Incorrect

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Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?
Select one:
a. Awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion Incorrect
b. The resistance to the external disruptions to one’s postural equilibrium
c. The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements
d. The brain’s positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement

The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements

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Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels?
Select one:
a. Calf raise
b. Bench press Incorrect
c. Triceps extension
d. Back squat

Back squat

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Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Gluteus medius
c. Hip flexor Incorrect
d. Erector spinae

Gluteus medius

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Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?
Select one:
a. 124/80 mm Hg
b. 118/78 mm Hg
c. 135/80 mm Hg
d. 143/92 mm Hg

135/80 mm Hg

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``` What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Erector spinae c. Latissimus dorsi d. Rectus abdominis Incorrect ```

Erector spinae

``` In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Select one: a. Zone 3 Incorrect b. Zone 4 c. Zone 1 d. Zone 2 ```

Zone 2

``` What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? Select one: a. Knowledge of results b. Motivation Incorrect c. Knowledge of performance d. Proprioception ```

Proprioception

``` Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them? Coping responses b. Self-monitoring Incorrect c. Resisting social pressure d. Implementation intentions ```

Coping responses

What are the fat-soluble vitamins? a. B12, B6, and C b. C, D, and K c. A, B12, C, and D Incorrect d. A, D, E, and K

A, D, E, and K

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? a. Suspended bodyweight training b. Strength machines Incorrect c. Speed ladders d. ViPR

ViPR

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? a. Proprioceptive plyometrics b. Ice skaters c. Depth jumps Incorrect d. Squat jump

Ice skaters

How is a general warm-up best defined? a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. Incorrect b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following. c. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. d. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club? a. Brand-new workout clothes b. Business casual Incorrect c. Professional business attire d. Jeans and a polo shirt

Professional business attire

What are the three micronutrients? a. Vitamins, minerals, and lipids b. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids Incorrect c. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids d. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients

Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia? a. Health Canada b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Incorrect c. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? a. Synergist function b. Feedback Incorrect c. Antagonist function d. Feed-forward

Feed-forward

What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system? a. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body b. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron c. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body d. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons Incorrect

To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? a. 0.72 b. 0.22 c. 0.62 Incorrect d. 0.92

0.72

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training? a. Soft tissue b. Bone c. Nerves d. Heart Incorrect

Nerves

What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes? a. Stage 4 b. Stage 1 c. Stage 2 Incorrect d. Stage

Stage 1

``` Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional? Select one: a. Informational support b. Emotional support c. Companionship support d. Instrumental support Incorrect ```

Informational support

``` Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell? Select one: a. Myosin Incorrect b. A sarcomere c. Endomysium d. Actin ```

A sarcomere

``` The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins? Select one: a. Vitamin C, B complex, and K b. Vitamin C, B complex, and D c. Vitamin C, D, and K Incorrect d. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins ```

Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins

When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system? Select one: a. Sympathetic nervous system b. Somatic nervous system c. Parasympathetic nervous system Incorrect d. Central nervous system

Sympathetic nervous system

``` At what age is total peak bone mass reached? Select one: a. 18 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35 ```

``` What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? Select one: a. 90 minutes per week b. 120 minutes per week Incorrect c. 60 minutes per week d. 75 minutes per week ```

75 minutes per week

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood. b. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. Incorrect c. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Stabilize vertebral segments b. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities Incorrect c. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement d. Move the trunk

Stabilize vertebral segments

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having more fat stored on their body b. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle c. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle Incorrect d. Having more mitochondria in their muscle

Having more mitochondria in their muscle

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? Select one: a. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally. b. Athletic performance is a universal goal. c. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane. d. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. Incorrect

Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

``` In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Eccentric c. Amortization Incorrect d. Concentric ```

Eccentric

According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight Incorrect b. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight c. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

``` What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Butt to heels b. Femur parallel to ground c. Full-depth squat d. Knees to 45 degrees Incorrect ```

Femur parallel to ground

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? Select one: a. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM Incorrect b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM d. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature? Select one: a. Front medicine ball oblique throw b. Overhead medicine ball throw Incorrect c. Medicine ball pullover throw d. Medicine ball chest pass

Medicine ball pullover throw

``` What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition Incorrect b. Isometric contraction c. Autogenic inhibition d. Stretch reflex ```

Autogenic inhibition

What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine? Select one: a. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases b. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase Incorrect c. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases d. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase

Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases

What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise? Select one: a. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption b. Exercise activity thermogenesis Incorrect c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis d. Thermic effect of food

Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2? The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels

The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes (At this level, the body relies heavily on the anaerobic energy systems that begin to overwhelm the blood’s lactic acid buffering capacity.)

What does BMI (body mass index) assess for? Body fat and lean mass composition Overall level of physical fitness Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height An accurate measure of obesity status for all individuals

Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client’s heart rate be? 80 beats per minute 72 beats per minute 64 beats per minute 66 beats per minute

80 beats per minute | 60seconds / 6 seconds = 10; 10 x 8 = 80

What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches? 1. 04 0. 85 0. 97 1. 18

0.85

Which movement impairment does this belong to? Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus ``` Overactive: Hip Flexor Gastrocnemius/soleus (Calves) Rectus Abdominis External Obliques ``` Underactive: Gluteus Maximus Hamstring Complex Lumbar extensors

Excessive Forward Trunk Lean

Which movement impairment does this belong to? Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus Overactive: Hip Flexors Lumbar extensors Latissimus Dorsi Underactive: Gluteus Maximus Hamstring Complex Abdominals

Low back arch

Which movement impairment does this belong to? Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus Overactive: Latissimus dorsi Teres Major (posterior shoulder muscle) Pectoralis Major/Minor ``` Underactive: Mid/lower trapezius Rhomboids (muscles near shoulder blade) Posterior deltoids Portions of the Rotator Cuff ```

Arms fall forward

Which movement impairment does this belong to? Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus Overactive: Gastrocnemius/soleus (calves) Hamstring Complex Underactive: Anterior & Posterior Tibialis (shin) Gluteus Maximus and Medius

Turn out (Feet turn out)

Which movement impairment does this belong to? Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus Overactive: Adductor Complex (inner thigh muscles) TFL Underactive: Anterior/posterior tibialis (shin) Gluteus Maximus and Medius

Valgus (knees cave in)

This measures the muscular endurance of the upper body during pushing moves. The goal will be to complete as many reps as possible, while using good form, in a certain length of time. The test can be done many ways, and this depends on the population being tests, but most often the standard 60 second standard _____ test is done.

Push Up Test

This is used to look at max strength and find a one rep max for the exercise of the bench press. It may not be good for all clients, but it is a solid test for those with strength-specific goals.

Bench Press Strength Assessment

This is designed to find max strength and the one rep max for the squat exercise that looks at lower body strength. It is like the bench press test where it is for the clients with strength-specific goals.

Squat Strength Assessment

This test the max jump height and lower body power of the client. It is an advanced assessment for power of the body and may be suitable for even less clients.

Vertical Jump Assessment

This is also called the broad jump, and it test the max jump distance and lower body power in the horizontal. It is an advanced assessment for power of the body and may be suitable for few clients.

Long Jump Assessment

This tests the client’s lateral speed and agility. It is very advanced and only for clients that want to work on speed and performance goals.

Lower Extremity Functional Test

This is an advanced assessment of speed and performance that is used to test the ability to react, accelerate, and sprint at max speed.

40 Yard Dash Assessment

This is used for assessing acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control. It is very advanced and only for clients that want to work on speed and performance goals.

Pro-Shuttle Assessment

Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Upper trapezius and levator scapula Latissimus dorsi Infraspinatus Lower trapezius

Upper trapezius and levator scapula

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Upper trapezius Hip flexors Adductor complex Lower trapezius

Upper trapezius

What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate? The point at which glucose provides nearly all the energy for the activity The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed The point at which the body's energy system converts glycogen to glucose without the use of oxygen

Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome? Hip flexors Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius Adductor complex (inner thighs) Upper trapezius

Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients? Pulling assessment Single-leg squat Pushing assessment Overhead squat

Overhead squat

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Pushing assessment Overhead press assessment Pulling assessment Bench press strength assessment

Bench press strength assessment

Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow? Bench press strength 40-yard dash Static posture Single-leg squat

Static posture

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Cervical extensors Lower trapezius Upper trapezius Serratus anterior

Lower trapezius

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control? Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) Pro shuttle 40-yard dash Long (broad) jump

Pro shuttle

What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg? None are needed, as this value is considered normal (i.e., maintenance is suggested). Medical monitoring coupled with medications to lower blood pressure Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring Lifestyle changes alone

Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Hamstrings complex Hip flexor complex Gluteus maximus Gluteus medius

Hip flexor complex

Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol? When the individual responds with "no" when asked, “Can you speak competently?” When the individual says it is "challenging" to speak during the activity When the individual responds with "yes" when asked, “Can you speak competently?” When the individual says it is "somewhat easy" to talk during the activity

When the individual responds with "no" when asked, “Can you speak competently?”

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility? Dynamic posture assessment Performance assessment Overhead squat assessment Static posture assessment

Performance assessment

How often is it recommended to reassess clientele? Every week Every 6 months Every year Every month

Every month

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27? Class II obesity Overweight Healthy weight Obese

Overweight

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Tensor fascia latae Adductor complex Gluteus maximus and medius Lower trapezius

Gluteus maximus and medius

The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites? Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps Triceps, abdomen, and thigh Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen

Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps

What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? Elderly individuals Deconditioned individuals Individuals with performance goals Individuals recovering from an injury

Individuals with performance goals

Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test? Talk test Exercise modality Environmental temperature Duration of each stage

Environmental temperature

What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body? Skinfold measurements Anthropometry Body mass index (BMI) Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) Vertical jump 40-yard dash Pro shuttle

Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed? Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) Pro shuttle 40-yard dash Overhead squat

40-yard dash

Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client's balance during movement? Single-leg squat 40-yard dash Overhead squat Push-up test

Single-leg squat

Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine? Pes planus distortion syndrome Upper crossed syndrome Excessive pronation Lower crossed syndrome

Lower crossed syndrome

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out? Adductor complex Abdominals Anterior and posterior tibialis Upper trapezius

Anterior and posterior tibialis

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Gluteus medius Gluteus maximus Hamstrings complex Hip flexors

Hip flexors

Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power? Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) Vertical jump Pro shuttle 40-yard dash

Vertical jump

What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test? The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being administered. Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment. Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise. The individual is tired from the test.

The individual is tired from the test.

What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow? Body composition Biometric data Performance assessments Movement assessments

Performance assessments

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest

Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

What is the definition of anthropometry? The measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface

The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Gluteus maximus and medius Adductor complex Hip flexors Upper trapezius

Adductor complex

Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program? Postural assessment Health risk assessment Cardiorespiratory assessment Anthropometric assessment

Health risk assessment

Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men? A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)

A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation? The scapula protruding excessively from the back The shoulders moving upward toward the ears The arms falling forward The trunk leaning forward

The shoulders moving upward toward the ears

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Adductor complex Abdominals Lower trapezius Hip flexors

Abdominals

How can diastolic blood pressure be defined? The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute) The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Hip flexor complex Gastrocnemius and soleus Gluteus maximus Rectus abdominis

Gluteus maximus

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school’s rugby team? The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test YMCA 3-minute step test Rockport 1-mile walk test The talk test

The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Gluteus maximus Lumbar extensors Hip flexor complex Latissimus dorsi

Gluteus maximus

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? Heart rate Thermoregulation Peripheral vasodilation Blood pressure

Peripheral vasodilation

Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension? 143/92 mm Hg 124/80 mm Hg 118/78 mm Hg 135/80 mm Hg

135/80 mm Hg

Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall? Stage 2 hypertension Elevated Stage 1 hypertension Normal

Elevated

What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments? Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward

Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome

``` Which of these options is released in the synaptic terminal in order to stimulate muscle contraction? Actin Troponin Acetylcholine Calcium ```

C (3): Acetylcholine

``` When the calves experience tightness, causing the feet to turn out, which of the following has happened? Altered reciprocal inhibition Altered length-tension relationship Altered force couple relationship Muscular imbalance ```

C (2): Altered length-tension relationship

``` While the foot is in a plant position touching the floor, what muscle is able to internally rotate the hip? Adductor Longus TFL Gluteus maximus Vastus Medialis ```

TFL Big tip: Remember that the TFL is associated with multiple different muscular imbalances. I assure you that this question is not the only question that it comes up in.

``` Within the lower extremity proprioceptive progression continuum, what exercise comes after the half foam roll? Balance disc Balance beam Foam Pad Bosu ball ```

Foam Pad

Which for supplements have the highest potential in adults to produce excess dosage? Vitamin D, Vitamin A, Iron, and Zinc Magnesium, Selenium, Thiamine and Vitamin D Iodine, Potassium, Vitamin A and Vitamin K Biotin, Vitamin B12, vitamin D, and Manganese

Vitamin D, Vitamin A, Iron and Zinc

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization? Consistent in its approach Changing acute variables on a weekly basis Predetermined timelines Increasing intensity while decreasing volume

Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Pushing Squatting Pulling Hip hinge

Pushing

Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next? Phase 4 Phase 2 Phase 3 Phase 5

Phase 2

An elastic resistance band should not be stretched longer than what percentage of its resting length? A 50% B 80% C 100% D 250%

250%

How many minutes of vigorous aerobic activity per week do the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the World Health Organization recommend for optimal health? A 60 minutes B 75 minutes C 120 minutes D 150 minutes

B | 75 minutes

Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? Barbell squats Suspended bodyweight crunch Medicine ball catch and pass Stability ball plank

Medicine ball catch and pass Wrist-worn devices are less accurate when the user is performing higher-intensity activities and maybe prone to more inaccurate readings when performing upper-body movements.

Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability? Strength machines Terra-Core Resistance bands Suspended bodyweight training

Strength machines Proprioceptive modalities, not strength machines, can be an effective strategy for optimizing movement patterns, joint stability, and performance.

The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement? Flexion and extension Abduction and Adduction Inversion and eversion Rotation

Rotation The TRX® Rip Trainer is designed to engage the core by integrating torso rotational movements and antirotational exercises, via asymmetrical resistance loading.

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane? Strength machines BOSU balls Medicine balls Suspended bodyweight trainers

Medicine balls

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? Suspended bodyweight training Kettlebell Medicine ball Resistance band

Medicine ball

Balance is best described as which of the following? The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping

The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

Which training modality is this? - Supersets, circuit training - Progress to dumbbell shoulder press after shoulder press machine - Trains in one plane of motion and fixed range of motion

Strength Training Machines

Which training modality is this? - Supersets, circuit training - Progress to dumbbell shoulder press after shoulder press machine - Trains in one plane of motion and fixed range of motion

Strength Training Machines

Which training modality is this? - Allows all planes of motions - Good for proprioception, motor learning, muscular coordination and performance - Con: Can be a risk for new clients causing injury Exercises: DB chest press -> Bilateral: 2 arms to Unilateral: 1 arm Progression Regression would be a strength training machine

Free Weights (Dumbbells + Barbells)

Which training modality is this? - Free movements like free weights, but provides some security - Good at developing some stability, muscular endurance and hypertrophy - Align to line of pulling of muscle Exercises: Cable bicep curls Standing tricep extensions standing cable row (shoulder extension & scapular retraction), resistance should pull shoulders to flexion and protraction Standing cable chest press (shoulder horizontal adduction) pull the shoulders out for resistance

Cable Machines

Which training modality is this? Exercises: Tubing bicep curls Tubing speed squats - Improves coordination, muscular endurance, joint stabilization - Many planes of motion & greater ROM - CON: stretches on the band can change the resistance - PRO: can be used in all phases in OPT Model and clients

Elastic Resistance/Tubing

Which training modality is this? Used in markets, then Russian Military PROS: Effective in all OPT Phases Benefits: Enhanced athleticism , coordination, and balance Increased mental focus, stamina, oxygen uptake, total body and conditioning Increased core stability and muscular endurance, strength, power, grip strength, metabolic demands & caloric expenditures Exercises: Uses gluteals and latissimus dorsi Kettle bell 5 kinetic chain kettlebell renegade row (Phase 1) -> (Phase 2): Super set with cable row -> (Phase 5): Superset Squat to overhead press with kettle bell snatch

Kettle bells

Which training modality is this? Closed-chained movements Kinesthestic awareness All planes of motion ``` Exercises: Push up pull ups body weight squats sit ups ```

Body Weight Training

Which training modality is this? Phase 1 + 2 of OPT Model (Core and balance) TRX Suspension Trainer Stabilization Level Phase 1: Suspended push ups Phase 2: Superset with Barbell Bench Press Benefits: Increased core muscle activation, balance, flexibility, joint mobility

Suspended Body Weight Training

Which training modality is this? Reconditioning, performance and Vitality Dragging, tossing, lifting, more Core stability thru rotational movements (transverse) Loaded movement training

ViPr

Which training modality is this? Hiit Circuit Training Carrying, lifting, throwing, and pulling with handles Military personnel used this and 1st responders

Sandbags

Which training modality is this? Hiit and Increased Cardio Lower impact actvity Smaller ropes (1-1.5 diameter) = aerobic endurance and muscular endurance (PHASE 2 Strength endurance) Heavier ropes (2 inch diameter) = strength and power (PHASE 5 Power)

Battle Ropes

Which training modality is this? Transverse Rotational Movements Rotational movements: twisting motion of core (internal obliques, external obliques, hip rotators) Antirotational: stationary trunk, deep muscles of core and lumbar spine For both novice and fitness enthusiasts or atheletes Resistance bands with levers (lighter bands (less resistance) and heavier bands (more resistance) Engage core, torso rotational Benefits: Core, balance, stability, power, coordination Phase 1 and Phase 2?

TRX RIP Trainer

Which training modality is this? - Greek and Egyptians used them - 4 Horseman's of fitness - Many planes of motions Benefits: Increased muscular strength, endurance, power sometime rehabilitate from injury Phase 5 OPT Power Exercises: Medicine ball squat Medicine ball push up Kneeling ball chest pass

Medicine Balls

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle? Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse

Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change When a muscle is stretched, the muscle spindle records the change in muscle length and speed (rate) of length change and sends this information to the central nervous system (CNS).

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise? Hip hinge Pulling Pushing Squatting

Squatting

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? Pyramid system Giant set Complex training Drop set

Complex training

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? Stabilize individual vertebral segments Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments Force production during dynamic whole-body movements Limiting strain on the vertebral discs

Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Zone 1 Zone 4 Zone 2 Zone 3

Zone 3

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise? 60 to 90 seconds 90 to 120 seconds 0 to 15 seconds 15 to 60 seconds

15 to 60 seconds

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Transverse abdominis Erector spinae Multifidus Pelvic floor muscles

Erector spinae

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization? Squat jump with stabilization Tuck jump with stabilization Multiplanar jump with stabilization Box jump-up with stabilization

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of? Law of thermodynamics Theory of general relativity Archimedes' principle SAID principle

SAID principle

The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what? Somatosensation Vision Vestibular senses Strength

Strength

Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Aqua therapy Biomechanical ankle platform system Stable floor environment Weight training

Biomechanical ankle platform system

What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles? Frequency Volume Intensity Recovery

Intensity

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Loading phase Unloading phase Stretch-shortening cycle Amortization phase

Stretch-shortening cycle

Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling? Compression of the myofascia increases psychological alertness and stimulates release of growth hormones. Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions. Compression of the myofascia causes the delayed onset of muscle soreness within 48 hours of rolling. Compression of the myofascia "tightens" the tissues by decreasing local blood flow, which increases myofascial restriction.

Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Triceps brachii Latissimus dorsi Quadriceps Biceps brachii

Triceps brachii

Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body? The highest elevation of the body in space when walking The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface The approximate midpoint of the body

The approximate midpoint of the body

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Dead bug Plank Medicine ball overhead throw Back extension

Back extension

Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective? Metabolic equivalents Percentage of VO2max Percentage of maximal heart rate Ratings of perceived exertion Percentage of VO2max is not considered a subjective measurement as it is assessed

Ratings of perceived exertion

Which Zone? Below ZT1 Starting to sweat Can still carry convo

Zone 1 (Light to Moderate)

Which Training Zone? VT1 to midpoint Noticeably sweaty Using larger volumes of breath Continue talking is challenging

Zone 2 (Challenging hard)

Which training zone? Midpoint to VT2 Profuse sweating Vigorous breathing and ability to talk is limited Vigorous-Hard

Zone 3 (Vigorous-Hard)

Which training zone? Above VT2 Very hard-Max Breathing is hard Speaking is impossible

Zone 4 (Very hard-Max)

What is the formula for TRAINING VOLUME?

reps x sets x weight

What ACUTE VARIABLE is the total # of weekly training session?

Training Frequency

How many training sessions/week is recommended for beginner/novice clients?

2-3 sessions/week

How many training sessions/week is recommended for intermediate clients?

3 if it is total body | 4 days if split

How many training sessions/week is recommended for advanced clients?

4-6 sessions/week if can perform many sessions in a single day

What phase is 4 in tempo 4/2/2/1? Isometric hold; pause Eccentric action; lowering phase Concentric contraction; raising

4 sec eccentric action; lowering Eccentric (lowering)/ Isometric (hold)/Concentric (raise)/Isomentric(hold)

What is the recommended training duration?

30-90 minutes

What stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome is this where there is DOMs (Delayed-onset Muscle Soreness) and it happens in 6-48 hours after initial injury?? Resistance Development Exhaustion Alarm reaction

Alarm reaction

What stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome where the body will increase it's capabilities or get a recruitment of muscle fibers?

Resistance development

What stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome where it can lead to injury?

Exhaustion

Resistance Training Systems: 1-2 sets at a low intensity to psychologically and physiologically prepare for resistance training

Warm up set

Resistance Training Systems: Performing one set of each exercise

Single set

Resistance Training Systems: Performing a multiple # of sets

multiple set

Resistance Training Systems: Increasing or Decreasing weight in each set

Pyramid

Resistance Training Systems: | Performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest

superset

Resistance Training Systems: Performing a multijoint or compound exercise, with a heavy load, immediately followed by an explosive movment ex) Barbell Squat, then Vertical Jump

Complex training

Resistance Training Systems: | Performing set till failure, then removing small % of the load and continuing set

Drop set It's performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load (typically 5–20%) and continuing with the set, completing a small number of repetitions (usually 2–4). This procedure can be repeated several times (typically 2–3 drops per set).

Resistance Training Systems: 4 or more exercises in rotation with as little rest as possible between sets

Giant set

Resistance Training Systems: Incorporation a slight pause between reps within one series of sets

Rest pause

Resistance Training Systems: Performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest

Circuit training

Resistance Training Systems: A variation of circuit training alternates between upper body and lower body throughout set

Peripheral heart action

Resistance Training Systems: A resistance training routine that workouts different body parts on different days

Split routine

Resistance Training Systems: Rapid succession, start at upper body all the way down to lower

Vertical loading

Resistance Training Systems: Performing all sets of an exercise (or body part) before moving on to the next exercise (or body part)

Horizontal loading

How many seconds of ATP recovery to be at 50%?

20-30 seconds

How many seconds to be at 75% ATP recovery?

40 seconds

How many seconds to be at 85% ATP recovery?

60 secs

How many minutes to be at 100% ATP recovery?

3 minutes

Which Level of the OPT Model are these exercises? Standing cable row progression Single-leg row progression Kneeling kettlebell bottoms-up exercise Earthquake bar

Stabilization: core stability, proprioception, bilateral/unilateral movements

Which Level of the OPT Model are these exercises? Squats Romanian deadlifts Bench presses Similar exercises

Strength-focused exercises

Which Level of the OPT Model are these exercises? Explosive movements Medicine ball throws Explosive plyometrics

Power Level: increased rate of force production or speed of muscle contraction Force x Velocity or Work / Time

What term refers to the phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle? A Pre-activation potentiation B Pre-activation amortization C Post-activation potentiation D Post-activation amortization

Post-activation potentiation

A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

SAID (specific adaptation to imposed demands) principle, describes the body’s responses and adaptations to exercise and training. Specificity of energy systems (anaerobic and aerobic) Specificity of mode of training Specificity of muscle groups and movement patterns Posture specificity For example, if someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. Conversely, if a person repeatedly lifts lighter weights for many repetitions, that person will develop higher levels of muscular endurance.

A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body.

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body.

Mechanical specificity

Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.

Neuromuscular specificity

Refers to the energy demand placed on the body.

Metabolic specificity

What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)? Ball squat to curl press Multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press (Phase 1) Single-leg squat, curl to overhead press (Phase 1) Multiplanar lunge to two arm dumbbell press Squat, curl to two-arm press Two are push press (Need to be good at advanced, POWER PHASE 5) Barbell Clean (Advanced, need good stabilization, POWER PHASE 5)

TOTAL BODY EXERCISES

What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)? ``` push up push up: hands on balls standing cable chest press flat dumbbell chest press barbell chest press barbell bench press medicine ball chest press medicine ball rotation chest pass ```

Chest/pushing exercises Muscles worked: chest deltoids triceps

What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)? ``` Ball cobra ball dumbbell row standing cable row seated cable row seated lat pulldowns medicine ball pullover row soccer throw ```

Back/pulling exercises ``` Muscles worked: latissimus dorsi trapezius rotator cuff posterior deltoids rhomboids biceps forearms ```

What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)? Tubing external rotation Tubing internal rotation Single-leg dumbbell scaption (regression is bilateral stance, 2 legs planted) Ball Combo I (Y scaption, then T then A, thumbs are pointed up) Ball Combo II (dumbbell row to shoulder press) Standing dumbbell shoulder press seated dumbbell shoulder press seated machine shoulder press machine front medicine ball oblique throw overhead medicine ball throw

Shoulder/vertical pressing exercises

What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)? ``` single leg db curl standing db curl standing barbell curl standing hammer curl seated two arm db bicep curls bicep curl machine ```

Bicep exercises

What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)? Supine ball db tricep extensions (skull crushers) Prone ball db tricep extensions cable pushdown supine bench barbell tricep extensions (barbell skull crushers) close grip bench press

Tricep exercises

What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)? ``` ball squat single leg squat (Phase 1 Stabilization) single leg rdl calf raises multiplanar step up multiplanar lunge (step ups is regression to the lunge) dumbbell squat barbell squat Leg press (hip sled) deadlift squat jump tuck jump ```

Legs

What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise? Intrinsic core musculature Anterior chain Deep cervical flexors Posterior chain

Posterior chain (backside of body)

What is the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorus in a segment bone?

Bone density

This is lower than normal bone density and a precursor to osteoporois.

Osteopenia SAQ training for seniors may help with bone density 1-2 sets 1-2 drills, progress more slowly

This is a condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases the risk of bone fracture

Osteoporosis

The approximate midpoint of the body; while the location may vary between individuals, it is typically located at the midportion of the trunk.

Center of gravity

The area beneath a person that consists of every point of contact made between the body and the support surface.

Base of support

The area within which an individual can move one’s center of gravity without changing the base of support (i.e., moving the feet) without falling.

Limits of stability

The ability to maintain the center of mass within the base of support in a stationary position, meaning no linear or angular movement.

Static balance

The ability to maintain the center of mass with a stationary base of support yet allowing movement for the base supporting the body.

Semi-dynamic balance

The ability to maintain a center of mass over an ever-changing base of support.

Dynamic balance

Provides information about the position of the body and head, and spatial orientation relative to its surrounding environment; located in the inner ears that assist with balance. - Turning head side to side - Looking ahead while rotating trunk right and left

Vestibular system

Provides information that is acquired from receptors in the body (skin, muscle, joints, tendons) about the position and motion of the body parts relative to other body regions and the support surface. - Changing balance surface (i.e. stable to unstable) - Shoes on versus barefoot

Somatosensory system

The interaction between the way the body processes visual, vestibular, and somatosensory information with the motor response of the body to that information.

Sensorimotor function

typically used to provide information to the central nervous system about the body’s location in space - Eyes closed - Light to dark environment

Vision

Change in length Stretch Reflex Causes contraction Ex) Throwing a baseball

Muscle Spindles

Attached to tendons Change in muscle tension Causes relaxation ex) Doing really heavy back squats and don't want to cause injury

Golgi tendon

Which core muscles generally attach on or near the vertebrae. They provide dynamic control of the spinal segments, limiting excessive compression, shear, and rotational forces between spinal segments. ``` Examples: rotatores multifidus transverse abdominis diaphragm pelvic floor musculature quadratus lumborum ```

Local Core Muscles

Which core muscle is more superficial on the trunk? They act to move the trunk, transfer loads between the upper and lower extremities, and provide stability of the spine by stabilizing multiple segments together as functional units. Examples: rectus abdominis, external abdominal obliques, internal abdominal obliques, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi, iliopsoas (abdominis, obliques, lats)

Global core muscles

The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine: Kyphotic/kyphosis or Lordotic/lordosis

Kyphotic/Kyphosis

An excessive forward rotation of the pelvis that results in greater lumbar lordosis: Posterior pelvic tilt or Anterior pelvic tilt

Anterior pelvic tilt

The sequence is critical for optimizing function: ``` Intervertebral stability (stabilization of individual spinal segments) Lumbopelvic stability (stabilization of lumbo-pelvic-hip complex) Movement efficiency (improved movement quality and force output) ``` This is for what training program?

Core

These exercises primarily target the local core muscles discussed earlier in the chapter. Sample exercises that follow this protocol include (but are not limited to) the following: ``` Marching Floor bridge Ball bridge Floor cobra Ball cobra Fire hydrant Plank Side plank Dead bug Bird dog Pallof press Farmer’s carry ``` These exercises should initially focus on __________________ through the __________ and pelvis without gross movement of the trunk. Involves bracing.

stabilization; spine

The next progression is to involve more ________ and __________movements of the spine throughout a full __________. Involve flexion, extension, and rotation of the trunk These exercises are designed to improve lumbopelvic stability, concentric strength (force production), eccentric strength (force reduction), and neuromuscular efficiency (coordination) of the core. Sample exercises that follow this protocol include (but are not limited to) the following: ``` Floor crunch Ball crunch Back extension Reverse crunch Knee-up Cable rotation Cable lift Cable chop ```

dynamic eccentric and concentric movements; full range of motion

This core training progression includes exercises that are designed to improve the _____________________and movement efficiency of the core musculature and extremities. These forms of exercise prepare an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable (explosive) speeds (Butcher et al., 2007). Example exercises include (but are not limited to) the following: ``` Medicine ball rotation chest pass Ball medicine ball pullover throw Front medicine ball oblique throw Side medicine ball oblique throw Medicine ball soccer throw Medicine ball woodchop throw Medicine ball overhead throw ```

rate of force production (power)

1) Increased oxygen 2) Smaller 3) Less force produced 4) Slow to fatigue "slow twitch" Contains a larger # of myoglobin and mitochondria capillaries to carry more oxygen Produces long term contractions Which muscle type fiber is this? Type I Type II

Type I "slow twitch" fibers

1) Decreased oxygen, less oxygen 2) larger 3) more force produced 4) fast to fatigue "fast twitch" Less capillaries, myoglobin and mitochondria Good for high power & force (ex. sprinting)

Type II, "fast twitch" fiber Think about fast as in sprinting, sprinting gets you fatigued fast

``` Which ENERGY SYSTEM is this? Which ENERGY SYSTEM? ATP-PC GLYCOLYSIS THE OXIDATIVE SYSTEM ``` An energy system that provides energy very rapidly, for approximately 10-15 seconds, via anaerobic metabolism. 1) 10-15 seconds- body transitions from low to high intensity 2) Fastest- way to generate more ATP 3) No O2- considered anaerobic 4) High intensity- short duration bouts of energy

ATP-PC

Which ENERGY SYSTEM? ATP-PC GLYCOLYSIS THE OXIDATIVE SYSTEM 1) 30-60 SECS duration 2) high intensity 3) produce increase amount of energy than ATP-PC 4) slower than ATP-PC 5) turns free blood glucose/stored glycogen into pyruvate 6) uses carbs 7) medium duration

glycolysis

Which ENERGY SYSTEM? ATP-PC GLYCOLYSIS THE OXIDATIVE SYSTEM 1) uses O2 to convert food substrates to ATP 2) low-mod intensity 3) slower process 4) produces CO2 5) long duration (jogging & running for an extended period)

The oxidative system

Exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action. What type of integrated training is this?

plyometric training

Reaction force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it.

Ground reaction force

_______________ training involves exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action.

plyometric training

Loading of a muscle eccentrically to prepare it for a rapid concentric contraction.

Stretch-shortening cycle : The stretch-shortening cycle improves the elastic properties of connective tissue and muscle fibers by enhancing stored elastic energy through the eccentric phase and releasing it during the concentric phase to increase force production.

What are the 3 phases of PLYOMETRIC EXERCISE?

ECCENTRIC PHASE: loading/deceleration, force reduction ex. stretching a rubber band preparing to shoot AMORTIZATION PHASE: The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading during the stretch-shortening cycle. CONCENTRIC PHASE: force production, unloading/acceleration, ex. when you shoot the rubber band

This phase is plyometric exercise preloads or stretches the agonist muscle.

Eccentric phase

This stage of the plyometric training refers to as the transition period, which represents the time between the eccentric phase and the initiation of the concentric contraction. A.K.A electromechanical delay, where the space in time during which the muscle must switch from overcoming force to imparting force in the intended direction.

Amortization Phase

The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body’s structure in all three planes of motion.

Neuromuscular efficiency

Which of the following refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time? A Watts B Strength speed C Rate of force production D Speed of power production

Rate of force production

TRUE OR FALSE? As a general rule, clients should practice plyometric skills involving dual-foot drills before progressing to single-foot drills. A True B False

True

When introducing plyometric exercises, especially to new or beginner clients, movements should involve lower amplitude jumps, designed to establish which of the following? A Agility B Proprioception C Optimal landing mechanics D Optimal force production

D | Optimal force production

When performing a squat jump with stabilization exercise, where should the client’s knees be positioned upon landing? A In line with the toes B Slightly inward of the feet C Slightly outward of the feet D In line with the toes and directly over the ankles

A | In line with the toes

When initially attempting a multiplanar box jump-down with stabilization exercise, the client should be instructed to do which of the following? A Jump as far as possible B Jump as high as possible C Step off and drop from the prescribed height D Step off and drop from the prescribed height, landing on a single leg

C | Step off and drop from the prescribed height

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? 0 seconds 5 minutes 60 to 120 seconds 30 seconds

60 to 120 seconds

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training? Concentric Isometric Eccentric Isokinetic

Isometric

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training? Movement assessments PAR-Q+ Body composition assessments Strength assessments

Movement assessments

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization? Box jump-up with stabilization Multiplanar jump with stabilization Squat jump with stabilization Tuck jump with stabilization

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization? Keeping the knees in line with the toes Letting the knees cave inward Letting feet turn out for support Performing reps as quickly as possible

Keeping the knees in line with the toes

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise? It makes the next jump too easy to execute. It causes stress to the connective tissues. It creates too powerful a jump. It reduces force too much.

It causes stress to the connective tissues.

Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients? Letting the client choose the box size Choosing only small step boxes Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities Choosing the highest box available

Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Overall base strength Motor unit recruitment Core stability Balance

Motor unit recruitment

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? Stabilization of the LPHC Slow and controlled movements Use of heavy weights A faster tempo, similar to daily life

A faster tempo, similar to daily life

What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises? Dual-foot drills Sport skills Side-to-side hops Depth jumps

Dual-foot drills

What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on? Fat content Speed of force generation Speed of force reduction Muscle size

Speed of force generation

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? Ankle stability Increased amortization Eccentric loading Concentric contractions

Eccentric loading

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Single-leg hops Ice skaters Depth jumps Box jumps

Depth jumps

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? Functional movement Force production Tissue overload Motor unit recruitment

Tissue overload

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Transitioning of forces Stretching of the agonist muscle Shortening of the agonist muscle Stretching of the antagonist muscle

Stretching of the agonist muscle

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay? Isometric Eccentric Amortization Concentric

Amortization

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased? Rate of force production Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing Speed Explosiveness

Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs? The unused energy is dissipated as heat. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain. The attempt at jumping will fail. The unused energy is stored for the next jump.

The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? Concentric Eccentric Stabilization Amortization

Amortization

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Butt kick Power step-up Multiplanar jump with stabilization Tuck jump

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Jump Land Stabilize Gait

Jump

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session? Frequency Intensity Recovery Volume

Volume

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following? Core stability Landing mechanics Force production Power development

Landing mechanics

Once children become accustomed to completing four to five simple SAQ exercises once or twice per week, what is an appropriate progression for a Certified Personal Trainer to implement over the next few months? A Increase the number of daily sessions B Increase the rest periods between sets C Double the number of drills performed each session D Increase weekly sessions to 2 or 3, and add more exercises

D | Increase weekly sessions to 2 or 3, and add more exercises

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Ankle dorsiflexion Knee flexion Ankle plantar flexion Hip abduction

Ankle plantar flexion

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following? Less forward drive Less speed Less braking force Less stability

Less braking force

Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training? SAQ training increases LDL cholesterol. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia. SAQ training decreases the risk of cancer. There is no evidence to support this adaptation.

SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes? 6 to 8 reps 8 to 10 reps 1 or 2 reps 3 to 5 reps

3 to 5 reps

SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions? Arthritis There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition. Osteopenia Lung cancer

Osteopenia

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? 3 or 4 sets 1 or 2 sets 6 to 8 sets 5 or 6 sets

1 or 2 sets

Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Lead leg Ankle plantar flexion Knee extension Rear leg

Lead leg

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients? 0 to 15 seconds 60 to 90 seconds 15 to 60 seconds 90 to 120 seconds

15 to 60 seconds

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform? 5 or 6 sets 1 to 4 sets 7 to 9 sets 0 sets

1 to 4 sets

You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ? 0 times per week 1 to 3 times per week 5 to 7 times per week 4 or 5 times per week

1 to 3 times per week

When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.

Muscle Imbalances

The synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to produce movement around a joint.

Force-couple relationships

Movement of a limb that is visible.

Osteokinematic

The description of joint surface movement; consists of three major types: roll, slide, and spin.

Arthrokinematics

This type of stretching is? Autogenic inhibition occurs ex) foam roller, handheld roller, massage ball Used for: treating and breaking up adhesions of the fascia and the surrounding muscle tissues: Training variables: 1-3 Sets: Hold each tender area of 30 seconds

Self-Myofascial Techniques

Which type of stretch is this? Involves reciprocal inhibition (mechanical of action) - Uses agonist and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion - Usually requires same body position and movement Training Variable: 1-3 sets Hold each stretch for 1-2 seconds Repeat for 5-10 reps

Active Stretching

Which type of Stretching is this? Involves reciprocal inhibition Uses force production of a muscle and the body's momentum to take a joint through full ROM Good for warm-ups/mimic workouts Training variables: 1 Set 10-15 reps 3-10 exercises ex) prisoner squats, multiplanar lunges, lunge with rotation

dynamic stretching

Which of the following states that soft tissue models along the line of stress? A Davis’s law B Boyle’s law C Henry’s law D Dalton’s law

A | Davis’s law

With regard to the cumulative injury cycle, current theory supports the idea that repetitive movements, such as long periods of poor posture, are believed to lead to which of the following? A Arthritis B Decreased vascular tone C Decreased pain response D Tissue trauma and inflammation

D | Tissue trauma and inflammation

TRUE OR FALSE? The mechanical effect of direct roller compression is the relaxation of the local myofascia by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restriction and adhesions. A True B False

A | True

What is the term used to describe the pain or discomfort that is often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity? A Afterburn B Rhizopathy C Lactic acidosis D Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

D | Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

What is the minimum duration for which a static stretch should be held? A 15 seconds B 30 seconds C 45 seconds D 60 seconds

B | 30 seconds

TRUE OR FALSE? Static stretching, when performed for 30 seconds or less prior to every workout and followed by dynamic activities, impairs athletic performance. A True B False

B | False

What is the term used to describe a type of stretching that uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion? A Active stretching B Ballistic stretching C Passive stretching D Isometric stretching

A | Active stretching

What is the mechanism of action for active stretching? A Stretch tolerance B Myofascial techniques C Autogenic inhibition D Reciprocal inhibition

D | Reciprocal inhibition

What should precede dynamic stretching if an individual possesses muscle imbalances? A PNF stretching B Ballistic stretching C Light aerobic activity D Self-myofascial techniques and static stretching

D | Self-myofascial techniques and static stretching

What is the goal of dynamic stretching? A To pre-fatigue the muscles B To decrease neuromuscular efficiency C To prepare the body for more intense activity D To cause temporary breathlessness and exhaustion

C | To prepare the body for more intense activity

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? Arthrokinematics Osteokinematics Kinesiology Biomechanics

Osteokinematics

Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called? Eccentric overload Altered reciprocal inhibition Overtraining syndrome Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

Altered reciprocal inhibition

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching? 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise? Local muscle endurance Dynamic posture control Eccentric strength Delayed-onset muscle soreness

Delayed-onset muscle soreness

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? The sight, hearing, and taste systems These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions? Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries High blood pressure, muscle strains, and balance deficits Type 2 diabetes, anxiety, and muscle strains Anxiety, poor posture, and ligament sprains

Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching? 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions 4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique? Dynamic stretching Static stretching Active stretching Ballistic stretching

Static stretching

Flexibility is defined as the following: The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? Ability to stretch only one muscle Ability to stretch in small increments Altered movement patterns Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods

Altered movement patterns

What term is used to describe the process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased? A Periodization B The FITT principle C Rate of progression D Progressive overload

C | Rate of progression

The five components of fitness include which of the following? A Balance training B Reactive training C Stabilization training D Cardiorespiratory (aerobic) fitness

D | Cardiorespiratory (aerobic) fitness

What term is used to describe the point during graded exercise in which there is a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production? A VO2max B Aerobic baseline C Lactate threshold ``` D Ventilatory threshold (Tvent) ```

``` D Ventilatory threshold (Tvent) ```

Which stage(s) are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise? A Stage 1 only B Stages 1 and 2 C Stages 2 and 3 D Stages 3 and 4

B | Stages 1 and 2

What does the term midpoint refer to? A The intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2 B The halfway point within a work interval C The halfway point in a stage training session D The intensity level between each work-rest interval

A | The intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2

TRUE OR FALSE? The forward rounding of the shoulders theoretically limits the ability to lift the ribcage during ventilation and forcefully contract the diaphragm during inspiration. A True B False

A | True

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training? Warm-up phase Cool-down phase Interval phase Conditioning phase

Interval phase

Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective? Ratings of perceived exertion Percentage of maximal heart rate Percentage of VO2max Metabolic equivalents

Ratings of perceived exertion

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined? An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)? It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.

It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.

The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Zone 3 Zone 1 Zone 4 Zone 2

Zone 2

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? 300 minutes per week 75 minutes per week 125 minutes per week 150 minutes per week

150 minutes per week

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Above VT2 From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2 Below VT1

From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.

Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined? The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources

How is Fartlek training best described? Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.

Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2? An RPE of 7 to 8 An RPE of 5 to 6 An RPE of 3 to 4 An RPE of 9 to 10

An RPE of 5 to 6

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

TRUE OR FALSE? While performing the ball bridge exercise, clients should be instructed to avoid resting the head and shoulders on top of the stability ball. A True B False

B | False

Which of the following is an antirotational exercise designed to target the local core muscles? A Reverse crunch B Cable chop C Kneeling Pallof press D Front medicine ball oblique throw

C | Kneeling Pallof press

Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion? Frontal plane Horizontal plane Transverse plane Sagittal plane

Frontal plane

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis? Medicine ball throw Drawing-in maneuver Bracing Back squat

Drawing-in maneuver

What term refers to the interaction between the body’s processing of information (visual, vestibular, and somatosensory) and the body’s motor response to that information? A Agility B Balance C Propioception D Sensorimotor function

D | Sensorimotor function

What is the most accurate term for an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms? A Multisensory environment B Balance-challenged environment C Dynamically enriched environment D Proprioceptively enriched environment

D | Proprioceptively enriched environment

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground. Somatosensory Visual Vestibular Sensorimotor function

Vestibular

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance? Neuromuscular control Sensorimotor function Perturbation Somatosensation

Perturbation | An alteration of the body’s current state caused by the application of an external force.

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Dynamic balance Stable balance Semi-dynamic balance Static balance

Semi-dynamic balance

Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance? Semi-dynamic balance Stationary balance Static balance Dynamic balance

Semi-dynamic balance The ability to maintain the center of mass with a stationary base of support yet allowing movement for the base supporting the body.

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Single-leg squat Single-leg balance Single-leg lift and chop Multiplanar hop with stabilization

Single-leg squat

The ability to maintain the center of mass within the base of support in a stationary position, meaning no linear or angular movement.

Static Balance

The ability to maintain the center of mass with a stationary base of support yet allowing movement for the base supporting the body.

Semi-dynamic balance

The ability to maintain a center of mass over an ever-changing base of support.

Dynamic Balance

``` What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet? Select one: a. 20 to 35% of total calories b. 45 to 65% of total calories c. 5 to 20% of total calories d. 10 to 35% of total calories ```

a. 20 to 35% of total calories

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis b. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis c. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension d. Cancer and bleeding disorders

a. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

``` Which of the following is a ketone body? Select one: a. Lactic acid b. Glycogen c. Acetoacetic acid d. Pyruvate ```

c. Acetoacetic acid

``` What does EMG stand for? Select one: a. Electromyography b. Electrocardiogram c. Electromagnetic spectrum d. Elektrokardiogramm ```

a. Electromyography

``` Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1? Select one: a. Develop anaerobic capacity b. Develop an appropriate aerobic base c. Improve anaerobic capacity and power d. Develop aerobic efficiency ```

b. Develop an appropriate aerobic base

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold? Select one: a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale. b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) c. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity? Select one: a. Central to the left and anterior to the spine b. Central to the left and posterior to the spine c. Central to the right and posterior to the spine d. Central to the right and anterior to the spine

a. Central to the left and anterior to the spine

``` Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism? Select one: a. Fat-soluble vitamins b. B vitamins c. Water-soluble vitamins d. Vitamin C ```

b. B vitamins

``` Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Select one: a. Strength b. Stability c. Endurance d. Power ```

b. Stability

``` A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her? Select one: a. Autonomy motivation b. Extrinsic motivation c. Affiliation motivation d. Intrinsic motivation ```

b. Extrinsic motivation

What is sarcopenia? Select one: a. Lower than normal bone mineral density b. Chronic inflammation of the joints c. Age-related loss of muscle tissue d. Age-related loss in bone mineral density

c. Age-related loss of muscle tissue

``` What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Select one: a. Stretching of the antagonist muscle b. Shortening of the agonist muscle c. Stretching of the agonist muscle d. Transitioning of forces ```

c. Stretching of the agonist muscle

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories. d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise targets large muscle groups b. The exercise is continuous in nature. c. The exercise is intense. d. The exercise is rhythmic.

c. The exercise is intense.

When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users? Select one: a. Increased multiplanar movement b. Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements c. Increased user safety d. Decreased challenges to balance and stability

a. Increased multiplanar movement

These are above the water or under the water in the "Iceberg Effect?" Decrease functional movement Proper movement mobility stability

Under the water

These are under the water or above water in the "Iceberg" effect? Endurance Increased athletic performance Power and SAQ Strength and hypertrophy

Above water

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? Select one: a. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training. b. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism. Incorrect c. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. d. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

d. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

``` Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening? Select one: a. Isokinetic action b. Concentric action c. Eccentric action d. Isometric action ```

c. Eccentric action

``` When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? Select one: a. Resting heart rate b. Body composition c. Blood pressure d. Flexibility ```

d. Flexibility

``` When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? Select one: a. Oxidation b. Transformation c. Phosphorylation d. ATP-PC ```

c. Phosphorylation

``` The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach? Select one: a. Systematic approach b. Progressive overload c. SAID principle d. All-or-nothing principle ```

b. Progressive overload

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Decreased rate of muscle contraction and metabolic rate b. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature c. Decreased oxygen exchange capacity d. Increased parasympathetic nervous activity

b. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do? Select one: a. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions. b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP. c. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP. d. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.

b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

``` What is the RDA for protein? Select one: a. 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 0.8 g/kg of body weight c. 1.6 g/kg of body weight d. 1.2 g/kg of body weight ```

0.8 g/kg of body weight

An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following? Select one: a. Groups function only when all members are present. b. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in. c. Groups rely only on the leader for support. d. The group feels distinct from other people.

The group feels distinct from other people.

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise? Select one: a. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise b. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise c. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise d. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

d. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise? Select one: a. Exercising because it is fun b. Exercising because they want to look better for others when on vacation c. Exercising because a doctor tells them to d. Exercising because they feel guilty

a. Exercising because it is fun

``` Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased venous return b. Decreased ventricular filling c. Increased ventricular filling d. Venous pooling ```

c. Increased ventricular filling

``` Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior? Select one: a. Social psychology b. Health psychology c. Sport and exercise psychology d. Developmental psychology ```

c. Sport and exercise psychology

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)? Select one: a. Expiration becomes more forceful. b. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm. c. Breathing becomes more shallow. d. Inspiration is prolonged.

Expiration becomes more forceful.

The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following? Select one: a. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action. b. The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to the gland to exert a particular action. c. The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action. d. The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to exert a particular effect.

a. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

``` The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms? Select one: a. Societal influence b. Group influence c. Peer pressure d. Health influence ```

b. Group influence

``` Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Lateral pelvic tilt b. Anterior pelvic tilt c. Medial pelvic tilt d. Posterior pelvic tilt ```

b. Anterior pelvic tilt

``` Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Select one: a. Bench press strength assessment b. Push-up test c. Pushing assessment d. Overhead press ```

b. Push-up test

Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins? Select one: a. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels. b. Biologically active forms are less efficient. c. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity. d. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency.

a. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

How does taking "high" doses of vitamin C impact health? Select one: a. It improves the immune system. b. High doses can be dangerous. c. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption. d. High doses can improve heart health.

c. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption. Correct

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action? Select one: a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases. b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases. c. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant. d. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.

b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. c. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. d. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.

b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects? Select one: a. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid b. Slow inhalation with expansion of the stomach c. Slow inhalation through the nose with limited chest movement d. Deep breaths with use of the diaphragm

a. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid

What is explained by the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere b. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction c. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction d. The Z-lines moving farther apart

c. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event? Select one: a. 2 to 3 liters of fluid b. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity c. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid d. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

d. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

``` What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Behavior change techniques c. Determinants d. Attitudes ```

c. Determinants

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate? Select one: a. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. b. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle. c. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA. d. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

d. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

``` What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 2.5 mL/kg/min b. 5.0 mL/kg/min c. 3.5 mL/kg/min d. 7.0 mL/kg/min ```

c. 3.5 mL/kg/min

Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise? Select one: a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity. b. Fat would be the main energy source. c. A steady-state intensity would be used. d. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source

a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

``` A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue? Select one: a. Glycogen stores were exhausted. b. ADP was depleted. c. Phosphocreatine was depleted. d. Fatty acid stores were exhausted. ```

a. Glycogen stores were exhausted.

Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements? Select one: a. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction b. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction d. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction

b. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction

Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage. b. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue. c. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload. d. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.

Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

What are essential amino acids? Select one: a. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body b. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body c. The only type of amino acid found in protein sources d. Amino acids responsible for protein synthesis

Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body

``` Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Isokinetic c. Concentric d. Isometric ```

c. Concentric

``` Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex? Select one: a. Lateral subsystem b. Posterior oblique subsystem c. Deep longitudinal subsystem d. Anterior oblique subsystem ```

a. Lateral subsystem

``` What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion? Select one: a. Static stretching b. Dynamic stretching c. Self-myofascial techniques d. Active stretching ```

c. Self-myofascial techniques

What is the primary function of the large intestine? Select one: a. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum b. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum c. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine

Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

Which individual is suffering from an acute disease? Select one: a. Tricia, who has type 1 diabetes b. Jorge, who is sick with the flu c. Roger, who has type 2 diabetes d. Perry, who suffers from a congenital heart condition

b. Jorge, who is sick with the flu

The posterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Hamstrings and erector spinae b. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum c. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Select one: a. Tell them to exercise with a friend b. Provide them with education and knowledge c. Help them identify barriers to exercise d. Encourage them to make plans to exercise

c. Help them identify barriers to exercise

``` Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site? Select one: a. Fascicles b. Actin Incorrect c. Myosin d. Troponin ```

d. Troponin

What is glycogen? Select one: a. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans b. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals Incorrect c. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants d. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans

a. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

Bridget, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is looking for ways to satisfy her CEU requirement. Which of the following would be an accepted means to fulfill this requirement? Select one: a. Completing an approved CEU course for 0.9 CEUs, along with the CPR/AED for 0.1 CEUs Incorrect b. Attending an 8-hour fitness seminar c. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs d. Reading a textbook on a related fitness topic

c. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs

``` Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Select one: a. Stable balance b. Dynamic balance c. Static balance Incorrect d. Semi-dynamic balance ```

d. Semi-dynamic balance

``` Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Select one: a. Power b. Flexibility c. Aerobic fitness d. Muscular strength ```

a. Power