Practice Test Questions Flashcards
How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?
Select one:
a. Normal conversation is maintained. Incorrect
b. Continuous talking becomes challenging
c. Inability to speak at all
d. Only a few words can be produced between breaths
Continuous talking becomes challenging
Which term best describes core training’s effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries? Select one: a. Rehabilitation b. Injury resistance c. Improved posture Incorrect d. Performance
Injury resistance
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
Select one:
a. Health and well-being
b. Competition with others
c. Being a part of a social group Incorrect
d. Improved physical appearance
Health and well-being
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? Select one: a. 30% b. 20% Incorrect c. 10% d. 5%
10%
How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?
Select one:
a. It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test. Incorrect
b. It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test.
c. It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test.
d. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.
It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.
What is end-systolic volume?
Select one:
a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction Incorrect
d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?
Select one:
a. Exercise
b. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis Incorrect
c. Thermic effect of food
d. Resting metabolic rate
Resting metabolic rate
What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?
Select one:
a. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work Incorrect
b. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes
c. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work
d. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 1 b. Zone 3 c. Zone 4 Incorrect d. Zone 2
Zone 3
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder? Select one: a. Shoulder impingement b. Frozen shoulder c. Rotator cuff tear Incorrect d. Dislocation of the shoulder
Shoulder impingement
What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?
Select one:
a. It can increase LDL cholesterol. Incorrect
b. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
c. It can lower both HDL and LDL cholesterol.
d. It increases both HDL and LDL cholesterol.
It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side? Select one: a. Condyloid b. Nonsynovial c. Nonaxial d. Synovial
Nonaxial
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Side-to-side hops Incorrect b. Depth jumps c. Sport skills d. Dual-foot drills
Dual-foot drills
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? Select one: a. Bronchioles Incorrect b. Pulmonary arteries c. Trachea d. Alveolar sacs
Alveolar sacs
The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae Incorrect
b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin? Select one: a. Pantothenic acid b. Vitamin C c. Niacin Incorrect d. Folate
Folate
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Medicine ball chest pass Incorrect b. Front medicine ball oblique throw c. Soccer throw d. Two-arm push press
Two-arm push press
A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?
Select one:
a. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal. Incorrect
b. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
c. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake.
d. Recommend she eat high-calorie “cheat meals” more often.
Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
Select one:
a. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion Incorrect
b. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
c. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches
d. Greater support and safety for elderly clients
Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 3 b. 21 c. 8 d. 12 Incorrect
8
Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?
Select one:
a. Awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion Incorrect
b. The resistance to the external disruptions to one’s postural equilibrium
c. The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements
d. The brain’s positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement
The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements
Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels? Select one: a. Calf raise b. Bench press Incorrect c. Triceps extension d. Back squat
Back squat
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Gluteus medius c. Hip flexor Incorrect d. Erector spinae
Gluteus medius
Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. 124/80 mm Hg b. 118/78 mm Hg c. 135/80 mm Hg d. 143/92 mm Hg
135/80 mm Hg
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Erector spinae c. Latissimus dorsi d. Rectus abdominis Incorrect
Erector spinae
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Select one: a. Zone 3 Incorrect b. Zone 4 c. Zone 1 d. Zone 2
Zone 2
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? Select one: a. Knowledge of results b. Motivation Incorrect c. Knowledge of performance d. Proprioception
Proprioception
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them? Coping responses b. Self-monitoring Incorrect c. Resisting social pressure d. Implementation intentions
Coping responses
What are the fat-soluble vitamins?
a. B12, B6, and C
b. C, D, and K
c. A, B12, C, and D Incorrect
d. A, D, E, and K
A, D, E, and K
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
a. Suspended bodyweight training
b. Strength machines Incorrect
c. Speed ladders
d. ViPR
ViPR
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
a. Proprioceptive plyometrics
b. Ice skaters
c. Depth jumps Incorrect
d. Squat jump
Ice skaters
How is a general warm-up best defined?
a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. Incorrect
b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
c. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
d. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club?
a. Brand-new workout clothes
b. Business casual Incorrect
c. Professional business attire
d. Jeans and a polo shirt
Professional business attire
What are the three micronutrients?
a. Vitamins, minerals, and lipids
b. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids Incorrect
c. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids
d. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia?
a. Health Canada
b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Incorrect
c. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
a. Synergist function
b. Feedback Incorrect
c. Antagonist function
d. Feed-forward
Feed-forward
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?
a. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
b. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron
c. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
d. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons Incorrect
To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?
a. 0.72
b. 0.22
c. 0.62 Incorrect
d. 0.92
0.72
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
a. Soft tissue
b. Bone
c. Nerves
d. Heart Incorrect
Nerves
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
a. Stage 4
b. Stage 1
c. Stage 2 Incorrect
d. Stage
Stage 1
Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional? Select one: a. Informational support b. Emotional support c. Companionship support d. Instrumental support Incorrect
Informational support
Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell? Select one: a. Myosin Incorrect b. A sarcomere c. Endomysium d. Actin
A sarcomere
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins? Select one: a. Vitamin C, B complex, and K b. Vitamin C, B complex, and D c. Vitamin C, D, and K Incorrect d. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
When a client’s heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?
Select one:
a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Somatic nervous system
c. Parasympathetic nervous system Incorrect
d. Central nervous system
Sympathetic nervous system
At what age is total peak bone mass reached? Select one: a. 18 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35
30
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? Select one: a. 90 minutes per week b. 120 minutes per week Incorrect c. 60 minutes per week d. 75 minutes per week
75 minutes per week
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?
Select one:
a. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.
b. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. Incorrect
c. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus.
d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Stabilize vertebral segments
b. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities Incorrect
c. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement
d. Move the trunk
Stabilize vertebral segments
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
Select one:
a. Having more fat stored on their body
b. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle
c. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle Incorrect
d. Having more mitochondria in their muscle
Having more mitochondria in their muscle
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
b. Athletic performance is a universal goal.
c. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.
d. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. Incorrect
Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Eccentric c. Amortization Incorrect d. Concentric
Eccentric
According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis?
Select one:
a. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight Incorrect
b. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight
c. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight
d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Butt to heels b. Femur parallel to ground c. Full-depth squat d. Knees to 45 degrees Incorrect
Femur parallel to ground
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?
Select one:
a. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM Incorrect
b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM
d. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
Select one:
a. Front medicine ball oblique throw
b. Overhead medicine ball throw Incorrect
c. Medicine ball pullover throw
d. Medicine ball chest pass
Medicine ball pullover throw
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition Incorrect b. Isometric contraction c. Autogenic inhibition d. Stretch reflex
Autogenic inhibition
What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?
Select one:
a. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases
b. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase Incorrect
c. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
d. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase
Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?
Select one:
a. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
b. Exercise activity thermogenesis Incorrect
c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
d. Thermic effect of food
Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
(At this level, the body relies heavily on the anaerobic energy systems that begin to overwhelm the blood’s lactic acid buffering capacity.)
What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?
Body fat and lean mass composition
Overall level of physical fitness
Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height
An accurate measure of obesity status for all individuals
Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client’s heart rate be?
80 beats per minute
72 beats per minute
64 beats per minute
66 beats per minute
80 beats per minute
60seconds / 6 seconds = 10; 10 x 8 = 80
What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?
- 04
- 85
- 97
- 18
0.85
Which movement impairment does this belong to?
Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus
Overactive: Hip Flexor Gastrocnemius/soleus (Calves) Rectus Abdominis External Obliques
Underactive:
Gluteus Maximus
Hamstring Complex
Lumbar extensors
Excessive Forward Trunk Lean
Which movement impairment does this belong to?
Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus
Overactive:
Hip Flexors
Lumbar extensors
Latissimus Dorsi
Underactive:
Gluteus Maximus
Hamstring Complex
Abdominals
Low back arch
Which movement impairment does this belong to?
Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus
Overactive:
Latissimus dorsi
Teres Major (posterior shoulder muscle)
Pectoralis Major/Minor
Underactive: Mid/lower trapezius Rhomboids (muscles near shoulder blade) Posterior deltoids Portions of the Rotator Cuff
Arms fall forward
Which movement impairment does this belong to?
Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus
Overactive:
Gastrocnemius/soleus (calves)
Hamstring Complex
Underactive:
Anterior & Posterior Tibialis (shin)
Gluteus Maximus and Medius
Turn out (Feet turn out)
Which movement impairment does this belong to?
Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus
Overactive:
Adductor Complex (inner thigh muscles)
TFL
Underactive:
Anterior/posterior tibialis (shin)
Gluteus Maximus and Medius
Valgus (knees cave in)
This measures the muscular endurance of the upper body during pushing moves. The goal will be to complete as many reps as possible, while using good form, in a certain length of time.
The test can be done many ways, and this depends on the population being tests, but most often the standard 60 second standard _____ test is done.
Push Up Test
This is used to look at max strength and find a one rep max for the exercise of the bench press. It may not be good for all clients, but it is a solid test for those with strength-specific goals.
Bench Press Strength Assessment
This is designed to find max strength and the one rep max for the squat exercise that looks at lower body strength. It is like the bench press test where it is for the clients with strength-specific goals.
Squat Strength Assessment
This test the max jump height and lower body power of the client. It is an advanced assessment for power of the body and may be suitable for even less clients.
Vertical Jump Assessment
This is also called the broad jump, and it test the max jump distance and lower body power in the horizontal. It is an advanced assessment for power of the body and may be suitable for few clients.
Long Jump Assessment
This tests the client’s lateral speed and agility. It is very advanced and only for clients that want to work on speed and performance goals.
Lower Extremity Functional Test
This is an advanced assessment of speed and performance that is used to test the ability to react, accelerate, and sprint at max speed.
40 Yard Dash Assessment
This is used for assessing acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control. It is very advanced and only for clients that want to work on speed and performance goals.
Pro-Shuttle Assessment
Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Upper trapezius and levator scapula
Latissimus dorsi
Infraspinatus
Lower trapezius
Upper trapezius and levator scapula
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
Upper trapezius
Hip flexors
Adductor complex
Lower trapezius
Upper trapezius
What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate?
The point at which glucose provides nearly all the energy for the activity
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
The point at which the body’s energy system converts glycogen to glucose without the use of oxygen
Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?
Hip flexors
Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
Adductor complex (inner thighs)
Upper trapezius
Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?
Pulling assessment
Single-leg squat
Pushing assessment
Overhead squat
Overhead squat
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Pushing assessment
Overhead press assessment
Pulling assessment
Bench press strength assessment
Bench press strength assessment
Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow?
Bench press strength
40-yard dash
Static posture
Single-leg squat
Static posture
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Cervical extensors
Lower trapezius
Upper trapezius
Serratus anterior
Lower trapezius
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Pro shuttle
40-yard dash
Long (broad) jump
Pro shuttle
What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg?
None are needed, as this value is considered normal (i.e., maintenance is suggested).
Medical monitoring coupled with medications to lower blood pressure
Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
Lifestyle changes alone
Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Hamstrings complex
Hip flexor complex
Gluteus maximus
Gluteus medius
Hip flexor complex
Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol?
When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
When the individual says it is “challenging” to speak during the activity
When the individual responds with “yes” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
When the individual says it is “somewhat easy” to talk during the activity
When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility?
Dynamic posture assessment
Performance assessment
Overhead squat assessment
Static posture assessment
Performance assessment
How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?
Every week
Every 6 months
Every year
Every month
Every month
In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27?
Class II obesity
Overweight
Healthy weight
Obese
Overweight
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Tensor fascia latae
Adductor complex
Gluteus maximus and medius
Lower trapezius
Gluteus maximus and medius
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?
Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
Triceps, abdomen, and thigh
Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac
Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen
Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for?
Elderly individuals
Deconditioned individuals
Individuals with performance goals
Individuals recovering from an injury
Individuals with performance goals
Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?
Talk test
Exercise modality
Environmental temperature
Duration of each stage
Environmental temperature
What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body?
Skinfold measurements
Anthropometry
Body mass index (BMI)
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Vertical jump
40-yard dash
Pro shuttle
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Pro shuttle
40-yard dash
Overhead squat
40-yard dash
Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client’s balance during movement?
Single-leg squat
40-yard dash
Overhead squat
Push-up test
Single-leg squat
Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine?
Pes planus distortion syndrome
Upper crossed syndrome
Excessive pronation
Lower crossed syndrome
Lower crossed syndrome
Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?
Adductor complex
Abdominals
Anterior and posterior tibialis
Upper trapezius
Anterior and posterior tibialis
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus medius
Gluteus maximus
Hamstrings complex
Hip flexors
Hip flexors
Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Vertical jump
Pro shuttle
40-yard dash
Vertical jump
What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test?
The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being administered.
Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment.
Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise.
The individual is tired from the test.
The individual is tired from the test.
What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow?
Body composition
Biometric data
Performance assessments
Movement assessments
Performance assessments
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck
Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck
Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck
Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest
Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck
What is the definition of anthropometry?
The measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity
A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body
The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface
The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Gluteus maximus and medius
Adductor complex
Hip flexors
Upper trapezius
Adductor complex
Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?
Postural assessment
Health risk assessment
Cardiorespiratory assessment
Anthropometric assessment
Health risk assessment
Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?
A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula
A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?
The scapula protruding excessively from the back
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
The arms falling forward
The trunk leaning forward
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Adductor complex
Abdominals
Lower trapezius
Hip flexors
Abdominals
How can diastolic blood pressure be defined?
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded
The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)
The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Hip flexor complex
Gastrocnemius and soleus
Gluteus maximus
Rectus abdominis
Gluteus maximus
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school’s rugby team?
The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
YMCA 3-minute step test
Rockport 1-mile walk test
The talk test
The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
Lumbar extensors
Hip flexor complex
Latissimus dorsi
Gluteus maximus
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Heart rate
Thermoregulation
Peripheral vasodilation
Blood pressure
Peripheral vasodilation
Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?
143/92 mm Hg
124/80 mm Hg
118/78 mm Hg
135/80 mm Hg
135/80 mm Hg
Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall?
Stage 2 hypertension
Elevated
Stage 1 hypertension
Normal
Elevated
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?
Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome
Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward
Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward
Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
Which of these options is released in the synaptic terminal in order to stimulate muscle contraction? Actin Troponin Acetylcholine Calcium
C (3): Acetylcholine
When the calves experience tightness, causing the feet to turn out, which of the following has happened? Altered reciprocal inhibition Altered length-tension relationship Altered force couple relationship Muscular imbalance
C (2): Altered length-tension relationship
While the foot is in a plant position touching the floor, what muscle is able to internally rotate the hip? Adductor Longus TFL Gluteus maximus Vastus Medialis
TFL
Big tip: Remember that the TFL is associated with multiple different muscular imbalances. I assure you that this question is not the only question that it comes up in.
Within the lower extremity proprioceptive progression continuum, what exercise comes after the half foam roll? Balance disc Balance beam Foam Pad Bosu ball
Foam Pad
Which for supplements have the highest potential in adults to produce excess dosage?
Vitamin D, Vitamin A, Iron, and Zinc
Magnesium, Selenium, Thiamine and Vitamin D
Iodine, Potassium, Vitamin A and Vitamin K
Biotin, Vitamin B12, vitamin D, and Manganese
Vitamin D, Vitamin A, Iron and Zinc
Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?
Consistent in its approach
Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
Predetermined timelines
Increasing intensity while decreasing volume
Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?
Pushing
Squatting
Pulling
Hip hinge
Pushing
Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next?
Phase 4
Phase 2
Phase 3
Phase 5
Phase 2
An elastic resistance band should not be stretched longer than what percentage of its resting length?
A
50%
B
80%
C
100%
D
250%
250%
How many minutes of vigorous aerobic activity per week do the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the World Health Organization recommend for optimal health?
A
60 minutes
B
75 minutes
C
120 minutes
D
150 minutes
B
75 minutes
Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor?
Barbell squats
Suspended bodyweight crunch
Medicine ball catch and pass
Stability ball plank
Medicine ball catch and pass
Wrist-worn devices are less accurate when the user is performing higher-intensity activities and maybe prone to more inaccurate readings when performing upper-body movements.
Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability?
Strength machines
Terra-Core
Resistance bands
Suspended bodyweight training
Strength machines
Proprioceptive modalities, not strength machines, can be an effective strategy for optimizing movement patterns, joint stability, and performance.
The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement?
Flexion and extension
Abduction and Adduction
Inversion and eversion
Rotation
Rotation
The TRX® Rip Trainer is designed to engage the core by integrating torso rotational movements and antirotational exercises, via asymmetrical resistance loading.
Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?
Strength machines
BOSU balls
Medicine balls
Suspended bodyweight trainers
Medicine balls
Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?
Suspended bodyweight training
Kettlebell
Medicine ball
Resistance band
Medicine ball
Balance is best described as which of the following?
The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate
The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration
Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping
The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
Which training modality is this?
- Supersets, circuit training
- Progress to dumbbell shoulder press after shoulder press machine
- Trains in one plane of motion and fixed range of motion
Strength Training Machines
Which training modality is this?
- Supersets, circuit training
- Progress to dumbbell shoulder press after shoulder press machine
- Trains in one plane of motion and fixed range of motion
Strength Training Machines
Which training modality is this?
- Allows all planes of motions
- Good for proprioception, motor learning, muscular coordination and performance
- Con: Can be a risk for new clients causing injury
Exercises:
DB chest press -> Bilateral: 2 arms to Unilateral: 1 arm Progression
Regression would be a strength training machine
Free Weights (Dumbbells + Barbells)
Which training modality is this?
- Free movements like free weights, but provides some security
- Good at developing some stability, muscular endurance and hypertrophy
- Align to line of pulling of muscle
Exercises:
Cable bicep curls
Standing tricep extensions
standing cable row (shoulder extension & scapular retraction), resistance should pull shoulders to flexion and protraction
Standing cable chest press (shoulder horizontal adduction) pull the shoulders out for resistance
Cable Machines
Which training modality is this?
Exercises:
Tubing bicep curls
Tubing speed squats
- Improves coordination, muscular endurance, joint stabilization
- Many planes of motion & greater ROM
- CON: stretches on the band can change the resistance
- PRO: can be used in all phases in OPT Model and clients
Elastic Resistance/Tubing
Which training modality is this?
Used in markets, then Russian Military
PROS: Effective in all OPT Phases
Benefits:
Enhanced athleticism , coordination, and balance
Increased mental focus, stamina, oxygen uptake, total body and conditioning
Increased core stability and muscular endurance, strength, power, grip strength, metabolic demands & caloric expenditures
Exercises:
Uses gluteals and latissimus dorsi
Kettle bell 5 kinetic chain
kettlebell renegade row (Phase 1) -> (Phase 2): Super set with cable row -> (Phase 5): Superset Squat to overhead press with kettle bell snatch
Kettle bells
Which training modality is this?
Closed-chained movements
Kinesthestic awareness
All planes of motion
Exercises: Push up pull ups body weight squats sit ups
Body Weight Training
Which training modality is this?
Phase 1 + 2 of OPT Model (Core and balance)
TRX Suspension Trainer
Stabilization Level
Phase 1: Suspended push ups
Phase 2: Superset with Barbell Bench Press
Benefits:
Increased core muscle activation, balance, flexibility, joint mobility
Suspended Body Weight Training
Which training modality is this?
Reconditioning, performance and Vitality
Dragging, tossing, lifting, more
Core stability thru rotational movements (transverse)
Loaded movement training
ViPr
Which training modality is this?
Hiit
Circuit Training
Carrying, lifting, throwing, and pulling with handles
Military personnel used this and 1st responders
Sandbags
Which training modality is this?
Hiit and Increased Cardio
Lower impact actvity
Smaller ropes (1-1.5 diameter) = aerobic endurance and muscular endurance (PHASE 2 Strength endurance)
Heavier ropes (2 inch diameter) = strength and power (PHASE 5 Power)
Battle Ropes
Which training modality is this?
Transverse Rotational Movements
Rotational movements: twisting motion of core (internal obliques, external obliques, hip rotators)
Antirotational: stationary trunk, deep muscles of core and lumbar spine
For both novice and fitness enthusiasts or atheletes
Resistance bands with levers (lighter bands (less resistance) and heavier bands (more resistance)
Engage core, torso rotational
Benefits:
Core, balance, stability, power, coordination
Phase 1 and Phase 2?
TRX RIP Trainer
Which training modality is this?
- Greek and Egyptians used them
- 4 Horseman’s of fitness
- Many planes of motions
Benefits:
Increased muscular strength, endurance, power sometime rehabilitate from injury
Phase 5 OPT Power
Exercises:
Medicine ball squat
Medicine ball push up
Kneeling ball chest pass
Medicine Balls
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?
Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening
Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion
Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
When a muscle is stretched, the muscle spindle records the change in muscle length and speed (rate) of length change and sends this information to the central nervous system (CNS).
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?
Hip hinge
Pulling
Pushing
Squatting
Squatting
A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?
Pyramid system
Giant set
Complex training
Drop set
Complex training
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
Stabilize individual vertebral segments
Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
Limiting strain on the vertebral discs
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Zone 1
Zone 4
Zone 2
Zone 3
Zone 3
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
60 to 90 seconds
90 to 120 seconds
0 to 15 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Transverse abdominis
Erector spinae
Multifidus
Pelvic floor muscles
Erector spinae
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Squat jump with stabilization
Tuck jump with stabilization
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Box jump-up with stabilization
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?
Law of thermodynamics
Theory of general relativity
Archimedes’ principle
SAID principle
SAID principle
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
Somatosensation
Vision
Vestibular senses
Strength
Strength
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?
Aqua therapy
Biomechanical ankle platform system
Stable floor environment
Weight training
Biomechanical ankle platform system
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Frequency
Volume
Intensity
Recovery
Intensity
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
Loading phase
Unloading phase
Stretch-shortening cycle
Amortization phase
Stretch-shortening cycle
Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
Compression of the myofascia increases psychological alertness and stimulates release of growth hormones.
Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
Compression of the myofascia causes the delayed onset of muscle soreness within 48 hours of rolling.
Compression of the myofascia “tightens” the tissues by decreasing local blood flow, which increases myofascial restriction.
Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Triceps brachii
Latissimus dorsi
Quadriceps
Biceps brachii
Triceps brachii
