Practice Test Questions Flashcards
How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?
Select one:
a. Normal conversation is maintained. Incorrect
b. Continuous talking becomes challenging
c. Inability to speak at all
d. Only a few words can be produced between breaths
Continuous talking becomes challenging
Which term best describes core training’s effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries? Select one: a. Rehabilitation b. Injury resistance c. Improved posture Incorrect d. Performance
Injury resistance
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
Select one:
a. Health and well-being
b. Competition with others
c. Being a part of a social group Incorrect
d. Improved physical appearance
Health and well-being
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? Select one: a. 30% b. 20% Incorrect c. 10% d. 5%
10%
How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?
Select one:
a. It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test. Incorrect
b. It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test.
c. It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test.
d. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.
It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.
What is end-systolic volume?
Select one:
a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction Incorrect
d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?
Select one:
a. Exercise
b. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis Incorrect
c. Thermic effect of food
d. Resting metabolic rate
Resting metabolic rate
What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?
Select one:
a. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work Incorrect
b. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes
c. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work
d. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 1 b. Zone 3 c. Zone 4 Incorrect d. Zone 2
Zone 3
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder? Select one: a. Shoulder impingement b. Frozen shoulder c. Rotator cuff tear Incorrect d. Dislocation of the shoulder
Shoulder impingement
What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?
Select one:
a. It can increase LDL cholesterol. Incorrect
b. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
c. It can lower both HDL and LDL cholesterol.
d. It increases both HDL and LDL cholesterol.
It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side? Select one: a. Condyloid b. Nonsynovial c. Nonaxial d. Synovial
Nonaxial
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Side-to-side hops Incorrect b. Depth jumps c. Sport skills d. Dual-foot drills
Dual-foot drills
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? Select one: a. Bronchioles Incorrect b. Pulmonary arteries c. Trachea d. Alveolar sacs
Alveolar sacs
The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae Incorrect
b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin? Select one: a. Pantothenic acid b. Vitamin C c. Niacin Incorrect d. Folate
Folate
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Medicine ball chest pass Incorrect b. Front medicine ball oblique throw c. Soccer throw d. Two-arm push press
Two-arm push press
A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?
Select one:
a. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal. Incorrect
b. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
c. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake.
d. Recommend she eat high-calorie “cheat meals” more often.
Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
Select one:
a. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion Incorrect
b. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
c. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches
d. Greater support and safety for elderly clients
Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 3 b. 21 c. 8 d. 12 Incorrect
8
Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?
Select one:
a. Awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion Incorrect
b. The resistance to the external disruptions to one’s postural equilibrium
c. The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements
d. The brain’s positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement
The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements
Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels? Select one: a. Calf raise b. Bench press Incorrect c. Triceps extension d. Back squat
Back squat
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Gluteus medius c. Hip flexor Incorrect d. Erector spinae
Gluteus medius
Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. 124/80 mm Hg b. 118/78 mm Hg c. 135/80 mm Hg d. 143/92 mm Hg
135/80 mm Hg
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Erector spinae c. Latissimus dorsi d. Rectus abdominis Incorrect
Erector spinae
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Select one: a. Zone 3 Incorrect b. Zone 4 c. Zone 1 d. Zone 2
Zone 2
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? Select one: a. Knowledge of results b. Motivation Incorrect c. Knowledge of performance d. Proprioception
Proprioception
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them? Coping responses b. Self-monitoring Incorrect c. Resisting social pressure d. Implementation intentions
Coping responses
What are the fat-soluble vitamins?
a. B12, B6, and C
b. C, D, and K
c. A, B12, C, and D Incorrect
d. A, D, E, and K
A, D, E, and K
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
a. Suspended bodyweight training
b. Strength machines Incorrect
c. Speed ladders
d. ViPR
ViPR
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
a. Proprioceptive plyometrics
b. Ice skaters
c. Depth jumps Incorrect
d. Squat jump
Ice skaters
How is a general warm-up best defined?
a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. Incorrect
b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
c. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
d. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club?
a. Brand-new workout clothes
b. Business casual Incorrect
c. Professional business attire
d. Jeans and a polo shirt
Professional business attire
What are the three micronutrients?
a. Vitamins, minerals, and lipids
b. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids Incorrect
c. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids
d. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia?
a. Health Canada
b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Incorrect
c. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
a. Synergist function
b. Feedback Incorrect
c. Antagonist function
d. Feed-forward
Feed-forward
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?
a. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
b. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron
c. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
d. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons Incorrect
To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?
a. 0.72
b. 0.22
c. 0.62 Incorrect
d. 0.92
0.72
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
a. Soft tissue
b. Bone
c. Nerves
d. Heart Incorrect
Nerves
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
a. Stage 4
b. Stage 1
c. Stage 2 Incorrect
d. Stage
Stage 1
Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional? Select one: a. Informational support b. Emotional support c. Companionship support d. Instrumental support Incorrect
Informational support
Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell? Select one: a. Myosin Incorrect b. A sarcomere c. Endomysium d. Actin
A sarcomere
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins? Select one: a. Vitamin C, B complex, and K b. Vitamin C, B complex, and D c. Vitamin C, D, and K Incorrect d. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
When a client’s heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?
Select one:
a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Somatic nervous system
c. Parasympathetic nervous system Incorrect
d. Central nervous system
Sympathetic nervous system
At what age is total peak bone mass reached? Select one: a. 18 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35
30
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? Select one: a. 90 minutes per week b. 120 minutes per week Incorrect c. 60 minutes per week d. 75 minutes per week
75 minutes per week
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?
Select one:
a. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.
b. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. Incorrect
c. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus.
d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Stabilize vertebral segments
b. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities Incorrect
c. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement
d. Move the trunk
Stabilize vertebral segments
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
Select one:
a. Having more fat stored on their body
b. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle
c. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle Incorrect
d. Having more mitochondria in their muscle
Having more mitochondria in their muscle
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
b. Athletic performance is a universal goal.
c. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.
d. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. Incorrect
Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Eccentric c. Amortization Incorrect d. Concentric
Eccentric
According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis?
Select one:
a. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight Incorrect
b. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight
c. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight
d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Butt to heels b. Femur parallel to ground c. Full-depth squat d. Knees to 45 degrees Incorrect
Femur parallel to ground
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?
Select one:
a. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM Incorrect
b. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
c. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM
d. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
Select one:
a. Front medicine ball oblique throw
b. Overhead medicine ball throw Incorrect
c. Medicine ball pullover throw
d. Medicine ball chest pass
Medicine ball pullover throw
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition Incorrect b. Isometric contraction c. Autogenic inhibition d. Stretch reflex
Autogenic inhibition
What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?
Select one:
a. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases
b. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase Incorrect
c. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
d. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase
Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?
Select one:
a. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
b. Exercise activity thermogenesis Incorrect
c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
d. Thermic effect of food
Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
(At this level, the body relies heavily on the anaerobic energy systems that begin to overwhelm the blood’s lactic acid buffering capacity.)
What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?
Body fat and lean mass composition
Overall level of physical fitness
Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height
An accurate measure of obesity status for all individuals
Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client’s heart rate be?
80 beats per minute
72 beats per minute
64 beats per minute
66 beats per minute
80 beats per minute
60seconds / 6 seconds = 10; 10 x 8 = 80
What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?
- 04
- 85
- 97
- 18
0.85
Which movement impairment does this belong to?
Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus
Overactive: Hip Flexor Gastrocnemius/soleus (Calves) Rectus Abdominis External Obliques
Underactive:
Gluteus Maximus
Hamstring Complex
Lumbar extensors
Excessive Forward Trunk Lean
Which movement impairment does this belong to?
Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus
Overactive:
Hip Flexors
Lumbar extensors
Latissimus Dorsi
Underactive:
Gluteus Maximus
Hamstring Complex
Abdominals
Low back arch
Which movement impairment does this belong to?
Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus
Overactive:
Latissimus dorsi
Teres Major (posterior shoulder muscle)
Pectoralis Major/Minor
Underactive: Mid/lower trapezius Rhomboids (muscles near shoulder blade) Posterior deltoids Portions of the Rotator Cuff
Arms fall forward
Which movement impairment does this belong to?
Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus
Overactive:
Gastrocnemius/soleus (calves)
Hamstring Complex
Underactive:
Anterior & Posterior Tibialis (shin)
Gluteus Maximus and Medius
Turn out (Feet turn out)
Which movement impairment does this belong to?
Excessive forward trunk lean, Low Back Arch, Arms Fall Forward, Feet Turn Out, Valgus
Overactive:
Adductor Complex (inner thigh muscles)
TFL
Underactive:
Anterior/posterior tibialis (shin)
Gluteus Maximus and Medius
Valgus (knees cave in)
This measures the muscular endurance of the upper body during pushing moves. The goal will be to complete as many reps as possible, while using good form, in a certain length of time.
The test can be done many ways, and this depends on the population being tests, but most often the standard 60 second standard _____ test is done.
Push Up Test
This is used to look at max strength and find a one rep max for the exercise of the bench press. It may not be good for all clients, but it is a solid test for those with strength-specific goals.
Bench Press Strength Assessment
This is designed to find max strength and the one rep max for the squat exercise that looks at lower body strength. It is like the bench press test where it is for the clients with strength-specific goals.
Squat Strength Assessment
This test the max jump height and lower body power of the client. It is an advanced assessment for power of the body and may be suitable for even less clients.
Vertical Jump Assessment
This is also called the broad jump, and it test the max jump distance and lower body power in the horizontal. It is an advanced assessment for power of the body and may be suitable for few clients.
Long Jump Assessment
This tests the client’s lateral speed and agility. It is very advanced and only for clients that want to work on speed and performance goals.
Lower Extremity Functional Test
This is an advanced assessment of speed and performance that is used to test the ability to react, accelerate, and sprint at max speed.
40 Yard Dash Assessment
This is used for assessing acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control. It is very advanced and only for clients that want to work on speed and performance goals.
Pro-Shuttle Assessment
Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Upper trapezius and levator scapula
Latissimus dorsi
Infraspinatus
Lower trapezius
Upper trapezius and levator scapula
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
Upper trapezius
Hip flexors
Adductor complex
Lower trapezius
Upper trapezius
What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate?
The point at which glucose provides nearly all the energy for the activity
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
The point at which the body’s energy system converts glycogen to glucose without the use of oxygen
Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?
Hip flexors
Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
Adductor complex (inner thighs)
Upper trapezius
Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius
Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?
Pulling assessment
Single-leg squat
Pushing assessment
Overhead squat
Overhead squat
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Pushing assessment
Overhead press assessment
Pulling assessment
Bench press strength assessment
Bench press strength assessment
Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow?
Bench press strength
40-yard dash
Static posture
Single-leg squat
Static posture
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Cervical extensors
Lower trapezius
Upper trapezius
Serratus anterior
Lower trapezius
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Pro shuttle
40-yard dash
Long (broad) jump
Pro shuttle
What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg?
None are needed, as this value is considered normal (i.e., maintenance is suggested).
Medical monitoring coupled with medications to lower blood pressure
Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
Lifestyle changes alone
Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Hamstrings complex
Hip flexor complex
Gluteus maximus
Gluteus medius
Hip flexor complex
Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol?
When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
When the individual says it is “challenging” to speak during the activity
When the individual responds with “yes” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
When the individual says it is “somewhat easy” to talk during the activity
When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility?
Dynamic posture assessment
Performance assessment
Overhead squat assessment
Static posture assessment
Performance assessment
How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?
Every week
Every 6 months
Every year
Every month
Every month
In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27?
Class II obesity
Overweight
Healthy weight
Obese
Overweight
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Tensor fascia latae
Adductor complex
Gluteus maximus and medius
Lower trapezius
Gluteus maximus and medius
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?
Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
Triceps, abdomen, and thigh
Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac
Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen
Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for?
Elderly individuals
Deconditioned individuals
Individuals with performance goals
Individuals recovering from an injury
Individuals with performance goals
Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?
Talk test
Exercise modality
Environmental temperature
Duration of each stage
Environmental temperature
What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body?
Skinfold measurements
Anthropometry
Body mass index (BMI)
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Vertical jump
40-yard dash
Pro shuttle
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Pro shuttle
40-yard dash
Overhead squat
40-yard dash
Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client’s balance during movement?
Single-leg squat
40-yard dash
Overhead squat
Push-up test
Single-leg squat
Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine?
Pes planus distortion syndrome
Upper crossed syndrome
Excessive pronation
Lower crossed syndrome
Lower crossed syndrome
Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?
Adductor complex
Abdominals
Anterior and posterior tibialis
Upper trapezius
Anterior and posterior tibialis
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus medius
Gluteus maximus
Hamstrings complex
Hip flexors
Hip flexors
Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Vertical jump
Pro shuttle
40-yard dash
Vertical jump
What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test?
The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being administered.
Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment.
Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise.
The individual is tired from the test.
The individual is tired from the test.
What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow?
Body composition
Biometric data
Performance assessments
Movement assessments
Performance assessments
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck
Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck
Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck
Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest
Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck
What is the definition of anthropometry?
The measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity
A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body
The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface
The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Gluteus maximus and medius
Adductor complex
Hip flexors
Upper trapezius
Adductor complex
Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?
Postural assessment
Health risk assessment
Cardiorespiratory assessment
Anthropometric assessment
Health risk assessment
Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?
A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula
A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?
The scapula protruding excessively from the back
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
The arms falling forward
The trunk leaning forward
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Adductor complex
Abdominals
Lower trapezius
Hip flexors
Abdominals
How can diastolic blood pressure be defined?
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded
The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)
The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Hip flexor complex
Gastrocnemius and soleus
Gluteus maximus
Rectus abdominis
Gluteus maximus
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school’s rugby team?
The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
YMCA 3-minute step test
Rockport 1-mile walk test
The talk test
The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
Lumbar extensors
Hip flexor complex
Latissimus dorsi
Gluteus maximus
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Heart rate
Thermoregulation
Peripheral vasodilation
Blood pressure
Peripheral vasodilation
Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?
143/92 mm Hg
124/80 mm Hg
118/78 mm Hg
135/80 mm Hg
135/80 mm Hg
Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall?
Stage 2 hypertension
Elevated
Stage 1 hypertension
Normal
Elevated
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?
Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome
Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward
Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward
Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
Which of these options is released in the synaptic terminal in order to stimulate muscle contraction? Actin Troponin Acetylcholine Calcium
C (3): Acetylcholine
When the calves experience tightness, causing the feet to turn out, which of the following has happened? Altered reciprocal inhibition Altered length-tension relationship Altered force couple relationship Muscular imbalance
C (2): Altered length-tension relationship
While the foot is in a plant position touching the floor, what muscle is able to internally rotate the hip? Adductor Longus TFL Gluteus maximus Vastus Medialis
TFL
Big tip: Remember that the TFL is associated with multiple different muscular imbalances. I assure you that this question is not the only question that it comes up in.
Within the lower extremity proprioceptive progression continuum, what exercise comes after the half foam roll? Balance disc Balance beam Foam Pad Bosu ball
Foam Pad
Which for supplements have the highest potential in adults to produce excess dosage?
Vitamin D, Vitamin A, Iron, and Zinc
Magnesium, Selenium, Thiamine and Vitamin D
Iodine, Potassium, Vitamin A and Vitamin K
Biotin, Vitamin B12, vitamin D, and Manganese
Vitamin D, Vitamin A, Iron and Zinc
Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?
Consistent in its approach
Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
Predetermined timelines
Increasing intensity while decreasing volume
Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?
Pushing
Squatting
Pulling
Hip hinge
Pushing
Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next?
Phase 4
Phase 2
Phase 3
Phase 5
Phase 2
An elastic resistance band should not be stretched longer than what percentage of its resting length?
A
50%
B
80%
C
100%
D
250%
250%
How many minutes of vigorous aerobic activity per week do the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the World Health Organization recommend for optimal health?
A
60 minutes
B
75 minutes
C
120 minutes
D
150 minutes
B
75 minutes
Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor?
Barbell squats
Suspended bodyweight crunch
Medicine ball catch and pass
Stability ball plank
Medicine ball catch and pass
Wrist-worn devices are less accurate when the user is performing higher-intensity activities and maybe prone to more inaccurate readings when performing upper-body movements.
Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability?
Strength machines
Terra-Core
Resistance bands
Suspended bodyweight training
Strength machines
Proprioceptive modalities, not strength machines, can be an effective strategy for optimizing movement patterns, joint stability, and performance.
The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement?
Flexion and extension
Abduction and Adduction
Inversion and eversion
Rotation
Rotation
The TRX® Rip Trainer is designed to engage the core by integrating torso rotational movements and antirotational exercises, via asymmetrical resistance loading.
Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?
Strength machines
BOSU balls
Medicine balls
Suspended bodyweight trainers
Medicine balls
Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?
Suspended bodyweight training
Kettlebell
Medicine ball
Resistance band
Medicine ball
Balance is best described as which of the following?
The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate
The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration
Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping
The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
Which training modality is this?
- Supersets, circuit training
- Progress to dumbbell shoulder press after shoulder press machine
- Trains in one plane of motion and fixed range of motion
Strength Training Machines
Which training modality is this?
- Supersets, circuit training
- Progress to dumbbell shoulder press after shoulder press machine
- Trains in one plane of motion and fixed range of motion
Strength Training Machines
Which training modality is this?
- Allows all planes of motions
- Good for proprioception, motor learning, muscular coordination and performance
- Con: Can be a risk for new clients causing injury
Exercises:
DB chest press -> Bilateral: 2 arms to Unilateral: 1 arm Progression
Regression would be a strength training machine
Free Weights (Dumbbells + Barbells)
Which training modality is this?
- Free movements like free weights, but provides some security
- Good at developing some stability, muscular endurance and hypertrophy
- Align to line of pulling of muscle
Exercises:
Cable bicep curls
Standing tricep extensions
standing cable row (shoulder extension & scapular retraction), resistance should pull shoulders to flexion and protraction
Standing cable chest press (shoulder horizontal adduction) pull the shoulders out for resistance
Cable Machines
Which training modality is this?
Exercises:
Tubing bicep curls
Tubing speed squats
- Improves coordination, muscular endurance, joint stabilization
- Many planes of motion & greater ROM
- CON: stretches on the band can change the resistance
- PRO: can be used in all phases in OPT Model and clients
Elastic Resistance/Tubing
Which training modality is this?
Used in markets, then Russian Military
PROS: Effective in all OPT Phases
Benefits:
Enhanced athleticism , coordination, and balance
Increased mental focus, stamina, oxygen uptake, total body and conditioning
Increased core stability and muscular endurance, strength, power, grip strength, metabolic demands & caloric expenditures
Exercises:
Uses gluteals and latissimus dorsi
Kettle bell 5 kinetic chain
kettlebell renegade row (Phase 1) -> (Phase 2): Super set with cable row -> (Phase 5): Superset Squat to overhead press with kettle bell snatch
Kettle bells
Which training modality is this?
Closed-chained movements
Kinesthestic awareness
All planes of motion
Exercises: Push up pull ups body weight squats sit ups
Body Weight Training
Which training modality is this?
Phase 1 + 2 of OPT Model (Core and balance)
TRX Suspension Trainer
Stabilization Level
Phase 1: Suspended push ups
Phase 2: Superset with Barbell Bench Press
Benefits:
Increased core muscle activation, balance, flexibility, joint mobility
Suspended Body Weight Training
Which training modality is this?
Reconditioning, performance and Vitality
Dragging, tossing, lifting, more
Core stability thru rotational movements (transverse)
Loaded movement training
ViPr
Which training modality is this?
Hiit
Circuit Training
Carrying, lifting, throwing, and pulling with handles
Military personnel used this and 1st responders
Sandbags
Which training modality is this?
Hiit and Increased Cardio
Lower impact actvity
Smaller ropes (1-1.5 diameter) = aerobic endurance and muscular endurance (PHASE 2 Strength endurance)
Heavier ropes (2 inch diameter) = strength and power (PHASE 5 Power)
Battle Ropes
Which training modality is this?
Transverse Rotational Movements
Rotational movements: twisting motion of core (internal obliques, external obliques, hip rotators)
Antirotational: stationary trunk, deep muscles of core and lumbar spine
For both novice and fitness enthusiasts or atheletes
Resistance bands with levers (lighter bands (less resistance) and heavier bands (more resistance)
Engage core, torso rotational
Benefits:
Core, balance, stability, power, coordination
Phase 1 and Phase 2?
TRX RIP Trainer
Which training modality is this?
- Greek and Egyptians used them
- 4 Horseman’s of fitness
- Many planes of motions
Benefits:
Increased muscular strength, endurance, power sometime rehabilitate from injury
Phase 5 OPT Power
Exercises:
Medicine ball squat
Medicine ball push up
Kneeling ball chest pass
Medicine Balls
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?
Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening
Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion
Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
When a muscle is stretched, the muscle spindle records the change in muscle length and speed (rate) of length change and sends this information to the central nervous system (CNS).
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?
Hip hinge
Pulling
Pushing
Squatting
Squatting
A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?
Pyramid system
Giant set
Complex training
Drop set
Complex training
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
Stabilize individual vertebral segments
Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
Limiting strain on the vertebral discs
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Zone 1
Zone 4
Zone 2
Zone 3
Zone 3
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
60 to 90 seconds
90 to 120 seconds
0 to 15 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Transverse abdominis
Erector spinae
Multifidus
Pelvic floor muscles
Erector spinae
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Squat jump with stabilization
Tuck jump with stabilization
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Box jump-up with stabilization
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?
Law of thermodynamics
Theory of general relativity
Archimedes’ principle
SAID principle
SAID principle
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
Somatosensation
Vision
Vestibular senses
Strength
Strength
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?
Aqua therapy
Biomechanical ankle platform system
Stable floor environment
Weight training
Biomechanical ankle platform system
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Frequency
Volume
Intensity
Recovery
Intensity
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
Loading phase
Unloading phase
Stretch-shortening cycle
Amortization phase
Stretch-shortening cycle
Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
Compression of the myofascia increases psychological alertness and stimulates release of growth hormones.
Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
Compression of the myofascia causes the delayed onset of muscle soreness within 48 hours of rolling.
Compression of the myofascia “tightens” the tissues by decreasing local blood flow, which increases myofascial restriction.
Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Triceps brachii
Latissimus dorsi
Quadriceps
Biceps brachii
Triceps brachii
Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body?
The highest elevation of the body in space when walking
The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
The approximate midpoint of the body
The approximate midpoint of the body
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Dead bug
Plank
Medicine ball overhead throw
Back extension
Back extension
Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?
Metabolic equivalents
Percentage of VO2max
Percentage of maximal heart rate
Ratings of perceived exertion
Percentage of VO2max is not considered a subjective measurement as it is assessed
Ratings of perceived exertion
Which Zone?
Below ZT1
Starting to sweat
Can still carry convo
Zone 1 (Light to Moderate)
Which Training Zone?
VT1 to midpoint
Noticeably sweaty
Using larger volumes of breath
Continue talking is challenging
Zone 2 (Challenging hard)
Which training zone?
Midpoint to VT2
Profuse sweating
Vigorous breathing and ability to talk is limited
Vigorous-Hard
Zone 3 (Vigorous-Hard)
Which training zone?
Above VT2
Very hard-Max
Breathing is hard
Speaking is impossible
Zone 4 (Very hard-Max)
What is the formula for TRAINING VOLUME?
reps x sets x weight
What ACUTE VARIABLE is the total # of weekly training session?
Training Frequency
How many training sessions/week is recommended for beginner/novice clients?
2-3 sessions/week
How many training sessions/week is recommended for intermediate clients?
3 if it is total body
4 days if split
How many training sessions/week is recommended for advanced clients?
4-6 sessions/week if can perform many sessions in a single day
What phase is 4 in tempo 4/2/2/1?
Isometric hold; pause
Eccentric action; lowering phase
Concentric contraction; raising
4 sec eccentric action; lowering
Eccentric (lowering)/ Isometric (hold)/Concentric (raise)/Isomentric(hold)
What is the recommended training duration?
30-90 minutes
What stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome is this where there is DOMs (Delayed-onset Muscle Soreness) and it happens in 6-48 hours after initial injury??
Resistance Development
Exhaustion
Alarm reaction
Alarm reaction
What stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome where the body will increase it’s capabilities or get a recruitment of muscle fibers?
Resistance development
What stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome where it can lead to injury?
Exhaustion
Resistance Training Systems:
1-2 sets at a low intensity to psychologically and physiologically prepare for resistance training
Warm up set
Resistance Training Systems:
Performing one set of each exercise
Single set
Resistance Training Systems:
Performing a multiple # of sets
multiple set
Resistance Training Systems:
Increasing or Decreasing weight in each set
Pyramid
Resistance Training Systems:
Performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest
superset
Resistance Training Systems:
Performing a multijoint or compound exercise, with a heavy load, immediately followed by an explosive movment
ex) Barbell Squat, then Vertical Jump
Complex training
Resistance Training Systems:
Performing set till failure, then removing small % of the load and continuing set
Drop set
It’s performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load (typically 5–20%) and continuing with the set, completing a small number of repetitions (usually 2–4). This procedure can be repeated several times (typically 2–3 drops per set).
Resistance Training Systems:
4 or more exercises in rotation with as little rest as possible between sets
Giant set
Resistance Training Systems:
Incorporation a slight pause between reps within one series of sets
Rest pause
Resistance Training Systems:
Performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest
Circuit training
Resistance Training Systems:
A variation of circuit training alternates between upper body and lower body throughout set
Peripheral heart action
Resistance Training Systems:
A resistance training routine that workouts different body parts on different days
Split routine
Resistance Training Systems:
Rapid succession, start at upper body all the way down to lower
Vertical loading
Resistance Training Systems:
Performing all sets of an exercise (or body part) before moving on to the next exercise (or body part)
Horizontal loading
How many seconds of ATP recovery to be at 50%?
20-30 seconds
How many seconds to be at 75% ATP recovery?
40 seconds
How many seconds to be at 85% ATP recovery?
60 secs
How many minutes to be at 100% ATP recovery?
3 minutes
Which Level of the OPT Model are these exercises?
Standing cable row progression
Single-leg row progression
Kneeling kettlebell bottoms-up exercise
Earthquake bar
Stabilization: core stability, proprioception, bilateral/unilateral movements
Which Level of the OPT Model are these exercises?
Squats
Romanian deadlifts
Bench presses
Similar exercises
Strength-focused exercises
Which Level of the OPT Model are these exercises?
Explosive movements
Medicine ball throws
Explosive plyometrics
Power Level: increased rate of force production or speed of muscle contraction
Force x Velocity
or
Work / Time
What term refers to the phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle?
A
Pre-activation potentiation
B
Pre-activation amortization
C
Post-activation potentiation
D
Post-activation amortization
Post-activation potentiation
A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
SAID (specific adaptation to imposed demands) principle, describes the body’s responses and adaptations to exercise and training.
Specificity of energy systems (anaerobic and aerobic)
Specificity of mode of training
Specificity of muscle groups and movement patterns
Posture specificity
For example, if someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. Conversely, if a person repeatedly lifts lighter weights for many repetitions, that person will develop higher levels of muscular endurance.
A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body.
Mechanical specificity
Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.
Neuromuscular specificity
Refers to the energy demand placed on the body.
Metabolic specificity
What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)?
Ball squat to curl press
Multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press (Phase 1)
Single-leg squat, curl to overhead press (Phase 1)
Multiplanar lunge to two arm dumbbell press
Squat, curl to two-arm press
Two are push press (Need to be good at advanced, POWER PHASE 5)
Barbell Clean (Advanced, need good stabilization, POWER PHASE 5)
TOTAL BODY EXERCISES
What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)?
push up push up: hands on balls standing cable chest press flat dumbbell chest press barbell chest press barbell bench press medicine ball chest press medicine ball rotation chest pass
Chest/pushing exercises
Muscles worked:
chest
deltoids
triceps
What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)?
Ball cobra ball dumbbell row standing cable row seated cable row seated lat pulldowns medicine ball pullover row soccer throw
Back/pulling exercises
Muscles worked: latissimus dorsi trapezius rotator cuff posterior deltoids rhomboids biceps forearms
What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)?
Tubing external rotation
Tubing internal rotation
Single-leg dumbbell scaption (regression is bilateral stance, 2 legs planted)
Ball Combo I (Y scaption, then T then A, thumbs are pointed up)
Ball Combo II (dumbbell row to shoulder press)
Standing dumbbell shoulder press
seated dumbbell shoulder press
seated machine shoulder press machine
front medicine ball oblique throw
overhead medicine ball throw
Shoulder/vertical pressing exercises
What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)?
single leg db curl standing db curl standing barbell curl standing hammer curl seated two arm db bicep curls bicep curl machine
Bicep exercises
What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)?
Supine ball db tricep extensions (skull crushers)
Prone ball db tricep extensions
cable pushdown
supine bench barbell tricep extensions (barbell skull crushers)
close grip bench press
Tricep exercises
What type of RESISTANCE TRAINING EXERCISES are these (total body, chest/pushing, back/pulling, shoulder/vertical presses, biceps, triceps, or legs)?
ball squat single leg squat (Phase 1 Stabilization) single leg rdl calf raises multiplanar step up multiplanar lunge (step ups is regression to the lunge) dumbbell squat barbell squat Leg press (hip sled) deadlift squat jump tuck jump
Legs
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?
Intrinsic core musculature
Anterior chain
Deep cervical flexors
Posterior chain
Posterior chain (backside of body)
What is the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorus in a segment bone?
Bone density
This is lower than normal bone density and a precursor to osteoporois.
Osteopenia
SAQ training for seniors may help with bone density
1-2 sets
1-2 drills, progress more slowly
This is a condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases the risk of bone fracture
Osteoporosis
The approximate midpoint of the body; while the location may vary between individuals, it is typically located at the midportion of the trunk.
Center of gravity
The area beneath a person that consists of every point of contact made between the body and the support surface.
Base of support
The area within which an individual can move one’s center of gravity without changing the base of support (i.e., moving the feet) without falling.
Limits of stability
The ability to maintain the center of mass within the base of support in a stationary position, meaning no linear or angular movement.
Static balance
The ability to maintain the center of mass with a stationary base of support yet allowing movement for the base supporting the body.
Semi-dynamic balance
The ability to maintain a center of mass over an ever-changing base of support.
Dynamic balance
Provides information about the position of the body and head, and spatial orientation relative to its surrounding environment; located in the inner ears that assist with balance.
- Turning head side to side
- Looking ahead while rotating trunk right and left
Vestibular system
Provides information that is acquired from receptors in the body (skin, muscle, joints, tendons) about the position and motion of the body parts relative to other body regions and the support surface.
- Changing balance surface (i.e. stable to unstable)
- Shoes on versus barefoot
Somatosensory system
The interaction between the way the body processes visual, vestibular, and somatosensory information with the motor response of the body to that information.
Sensorimotor function
typically used to provide information to the central nervous system about the body’s location in space
- Eyes closed
- Light to dark environment
Vision
Change in length
Stretch Reflex
Causes contraction
Ex) Throwing a baseball
Muscle Spindles
Attached to tendons
Change in muscle tension
Causes relaxation
ex) Doing really heavy back squats and don’t want to cause injury
Golgi tendon
Which core muscles generally attach on or near the vertebrae.
They provide dynamic control of the spinal segments, limiting excessive compression, shear, and rotational forces between spinal segments.
Examples: rotatores multifidus transverse abdominis diaphragm pelvic floor musculature quadratus lumborum
Local Core Muscles
Which core muscle is more superficial on the trunk?
They act to move the trunk, transfer loads between the upper and lower extremities, and provide stability of the spine by stabilizing multiple segments together as functional units.
Examples:
rectus abdominis, external abdominal obliques, internal abdominal obliques, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi, iliopsoas
(abdominis, obliques, lats)
Global core muscles
The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine:
Kyphotic/kyphosis
or
Lordotic/lordosis
Kyphotic/Kyphosis
An excessive forward rotation of the pelvis that results in greater lumbar lordosis:
Posterior pelvic tilt
or
Anterior pelvic tilt
Anterior pelvic tilt
The sequence is critical for optimizing function:
Intervertebral stability (stabilization of individual spinal segments) Lumbopelvic stability (stabilization of lumbo-pelvic-hip complex) Movement efficiency (improved movement quality and force output)
This is for what training program?
Core
These exercises primarily target the local core muscles discussed earlier in the chapter. Sample exercises that follow this protocol include (but are not limited to) the following:
Marching Floor bridge Ball bridge Floor cobra Ball cobra Fire hydrant Plank Side plank Dead bug Bird dog Pallof press Farmer’s carry
These exercises should initially focus on __________________ through the __________ and pelvis without gross movement of the trunk. Involves bracing.
stabilization; spine
The next progression is to involve more ________ and __________movements of the spine throughout a full __________. Involve flexion, extension, and rotation of the trunk
These exercises are designed to improve lumbopelvic stability, concentric strength (force production), eccentric strength (force reduction), and neuromuscular efficiency (coordination) of the core. Sample exercises that follow this protocol include (but are not limited to) the following:
Floor crunch Ball crunch Back extension Reverse crunch Knee-up Cable rotation Cable lift Cable chop
dynamic eccentric and concentric movements; full range of motion
This core training progression includes exercises that are designed to improve the _____________________and movement efficiency of the core musculature and extremities. These forms of exercise prepare an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable (explosive) speeds (Butcher et al., 2007). Example exercises include (but are not limited to) the following:
Medicine ball rotation chest pass Ball medicine ball pullover throw Front medicine ball oblique throw Side medicine ball oblique throw Medicine ball soccer throw Medicine ball woodchop throw Medicine ball overhead throw
rate of force production (power)
1) Increased oxygen
2) Smaller
3) Less force produced
4) Slow to fatigue “slow twitch”
Contains a larger # of myoglobin and mitochondria capillaries to carry more oxygen
Produces long term contractions
Which muscle type fiber is this?
Type I
Type II
Type I “slow twitch” fibers
1) Decreased oxygen, less oxygen
2) larger
3) more force produced
4) fast to fatigue “fast twitch”
Less capillaries, myoglobin and mitochondria
Good for high power & force
(ex. sprinting)
Type II, “fast twitch” fiber
Think about fast as in sprinting, sprinting gets you fatigued fast
Which ENERGY SYSTEM is this? Which ENERGY SYSTEM? ATP-PC GLYCOLYSIS THE OXIDATIVE SYSTEM
An energy system that provides energy very rapidly, for approximately 10-15 seconds, via anaerobic metabolism.
1) 10-15 seconds- body transitions from low to high intensity
2) Fastest- way to generate more ATP
3) No O2- considered anaerobic
4) High intensity- short duration bouts of energy
ATP-PC
Which ENERGY SYSTEM?
ATP-PC
GLYCOLYSIS
THE OXIDATIVE SYSTEM
1) 30-60 SECS duration
2) high intensity
3) produce increase amount of energy than ATP-PC
4) slower than ATP-PC
5) turns free blood glucose/stored glycogen into pyruvate
6) uses carbs
7) medium duration
glycolysis
Which ENERGY SYSTEM?
ATP-PC
GLYCOLYSIS
THE OXIDATIVE SYSTEM
1) uses O2 to convert food substrates to ATP
2) low-mod intensity
3) slower process
4) produces CO2
5) long duration (jogging & running for an extended period)
The oxidative system
Exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action.
What type of integrated training is this?
plyometric training
Reaction force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it.
Ground reaction force
_______________ training involves exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action.
plyometric training
Loading of a muscle eccentrically to prepare it for a rapid concentric contraction.
Stretch-shortening cycle : The stretch-shortening cycle improves the elastic properties of connective tissue and muscle fibers by enhancing stored elastic energy through the eccentric phase and releasing it during the concentric phase to increase force production.
What are the 3 phases of PLYOMETRIC EXERCISE?
ECCENTRIC PHASE: loading/deceleration, force reduction ex. stretching a rubber band preparing to shoot
AMORTIZATION PHASE: The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading during the stretch-shortening cycle.
CONCENTRIC PHASE: force production, unloading/acceleration, ex. when you shoot the rubber band
This phase is plyometric exercise preloads or stretches the agonist muscle.
Eccentric phase
This stage of the plyometric training refers to as the transition period, which represents the time between the eccentric phase and the initiation of the concentric contraction. A.K.A electromechanical delay, where the space in time during which the muscle must switch from overcoming force to imparting force in the intended direction.
Amortization Phase
The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body’s structure in all three planes of motion.
Neuromuscular efficiency
Which of the following refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time?
A
Watts
B
Strength speed
C
Rate of force production
D
Speed of power production
Rate of force production
TRUE OR FALSE? As a general rule, clients should practice plyometric skills involving dual-foot drills before progressing to single-foot drills.
A
True
B
False
True
When introducing plyometric exercises, especially to new or beginner clients, movements should involve lower amplitude jumps, designed to establish which of the following?
A
Agility
B
Proprioception
C
Optimal landing mechanics
D
Optimal force production
D
Optimal force production
When performing a squat jump with stabilization exercise, where should the client’s knees be positioned upon landing?
A
In line with the toes
B
Slightly inward of the feet
C
Slightly outward of the feet
D
In line with the toes and directly over the ankles
A
In line with the toes
When initially attempting a multiplanar box jump-down with stabilization exercise, the client should be instructed to do which of the following?
A
Jump as far as possible
B
Jump as high as possible
C
Step off and drop from the prescribed height
D
Step off and drop from the prescribed height, landing on a single leg
C
Step off and drop from the prescribed height
What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?
0 seconds
5 minutes
60 to 120 seconds
30 seconds
60 to 120 seconds
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?
Concentric
Isometric
Eccentric
Isokinetic
Isometric
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Movement assessments
PAR-Q+
Body composition assessments
Strength assessments
Movement assessments
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Box jump-up with stabilization
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Squat jump with stabilization
Tuck jump with stabilization
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization?
Keeping the knees in line with the toes
Letting the knees cave inward
Letting feet turn out for support
Performing reps as quickly as possible
Keeping the knees in line with the toes
What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?
It makes the next jump too easy to execute.
It causes stress to the connective tissues.
It creates too powerful a jump.
It reduces force too much.
It causes stress to the connective tissues.
Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients?
Letting the client choose the box size
Choosing only small step boxes
Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities
Choosing the highest box available
Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Overall base strength
Motor unit recruitment
Core stability
Balance
Motor unit recruitment
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
Stabilization of the LPHC
Slow and controlled movements
Use of heavy weights
A faster tempo, similar to daily life
A faster tempo, similar to daily life
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?
Dual-foot drills
Sport skills
Side-to-side hops
Depth jumps
Dual-foot drills
What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on?
Fat content
Speed of force generation
Speed of force reduction
Muscle size
Speed of force generation
What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?
Ankle stability
Increased amortization
Eccentric loading
Concentric contractions
Eccentric loading
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
Single-leg hops
Ice skaters
Depth jumps
Box jumps
Depth jumps
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?
Functional movement
Force production
Tissue overload
Motor unit recruitment
Tissue overload
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
Transitioning of forces
Stretching of the agonist muscle
Shortening of the agonist muscle
Stretching of the antagonist muscle
Stretching of the agonist muscle
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Isometric
Eccentric
Amortization
Concentric
Amortization
When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased?
Rate of force production
Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing
Speed
Explosiveness
Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing
If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?
The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain.
The attempt at jumping will fail.
The unused energy is stored for the next jump.
The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Concentric
Eccentric
Stabilization
Amortization
Amortization
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
Butt kick
Power step-up
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Tuck jump
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?
Jump
Land
Stabilize
Gait
Jump
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
Frequency
Intensity
Recovery
Volume
Volume
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
Core stability
Landing mechanics
Force production
Power development
Landing mechanics
Once children become accustomed to completing four to five simple SAQ exercises once or twice per week, what is an appropriate progression for a Certified Personal Trainer to implement over the next few months?
A
Increase the number of daily sessions
B
Increase the rest periods between sets
C
Double the number of drills performed each session
D
Increase weekly sessions to 2 or 3, and add more exercises
D
Increase weekly sessions to 2 or 3, and add more exercises
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Ankle dorsiflexion
Knee flexion
Ankle plantar flexion
Hip abduction
Ankle plantar flexion
Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?
Less forward drive
Less speed
Less braking force
Less stability
Less braking force
Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training?
SAQ training increases LDL cholesterol.
SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.
SAQ training decreases the risk of cancer.
There is no evidence to support this adaptation.
SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.
How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?
6 to 8 reps
8 to 10 reps
1 or 2 reps
3 to 5 reps
3 to 5 reps
SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions?
Arthritis
There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition.
Osteopenia
Lung cancer
Osteopenia
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
3 or 4 sets
1 or 2 sets
6 to 8 sets
5 or 6 sets
1 or 2 sets
Which is involved in frontside mechanics?
Lead leg
Ankle plantar flexion
Knee extension
Rear leg
Lead leg
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
0 to 15 seconds
60 to 90 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
90 to 120 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?
5 or 6 sets
1 to 4 sets
7 to 9 sets
0 sets
1 to 4 sets
You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?
0 times per week
1 to 3 times per week
5 to 7 times per week
4 or 5 times per week
1 to 3 times per week
When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.
Muscle Imbalances
The synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to produce movement around a joint.
Force-couple relationships
Movement of a limb that is visible.
Osteokinematic
The description of joint surface movement; consists of three major types: roll, slide, and spin.
Arthrokinematics
This type of stretching is?
Autogenic inhibition occurs
ex) foam roller, handheld roller, massage ball
Used for: treating and breaking up adhesions of the fascia and the surrounding muscle tissues:
Training variables:
1-3 Sets: Hold each tender area of 30 seconds
Self-Myofascial Techniques
Which type of stretch is this?
Involves reciprocal inhibition (mechanical of action)
- Uses agonist and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion
- Usually requires same body position and movement
Training Variable:
1-3 sets
Hold each stretch for 1-2 seconds
Repeat for 5-10 reps
Active Stretching
Which type of Stretching is this?
Involves reciprocal inhibition
Uses force production of a muscle and the body’s momentum to take a joint through full ROM
Good for warm-ups/mimic workouts
Training variables:
1 Set
10-15 reps
3-10 exercises
ex) prisoner squats, multiplanar lunges, lunge with rotation
dynamic stretching
Which of the following states that soft tissue models along the line of stress?
A
Davis’s law
B
Boyle’s law
C
Henry’s law
D
Dalton’s law
A
Davis’s law
With regard to the cumulative injury cycle, current theory supports the idea that repetitive movements, such as long periods of poor posture, are believed to lead to which of the following?
A
Arthritis
B
Decreased vascular tone
C
Decreased pain response
D
Tissue trauma and inflammation
D
Tissue trauma and inflammation
TRUE OR FALSE? The mechanical effect of direct roller compression is the relaxation of the local myofascia by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restriction and adhesions.
A
True
B
False
A
True
What is the term used to describe the pain or discomfort that is often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity?
A
Afterburn
B
Rhizopathy
C
Lactic acidosis
D
Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)
D
Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)
What is the minimum duration for which a static stretch should be held?
A
15 seconds
B
30 seconds
C
45 seconds
D
60 seconds
B
30 seconds
TRUE OR FALSE? Static stretching, when performed for 30 seconds or less prior to every workout and followed by dynamic activities, impairs athletic performance.
A
True
B
False
B
False
What is the term used to describe a type of stretching that uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion?
A
Active stretching
B
Ballistic stretching
C
Passive stretching
D
Isometric stretching
A
Active stretching
What is the mechanism of action for active stretching?
A
Stretch tolerance
B
Myofascial techniques
C
Autogenic inhibition
D
Reciprocal inhibition
D
Reciprocal inhibition
What should precede dynamic stretching if an individual possesses muscle imbalances?
A
PNF stretching
B
Ballistic stretching
C
Light aerobic activity
D
Self-myofascial techniques and static stretching
D
Self-myofascial techniques and static stretching
What is the goal of dynamic stretching?
A
To pre-fatigue the muscles
B
To decrease neuromuscular efficiency
C
To prepare the body for more intense activity
D
To cause temporary breathlessness and exhaustion
C
To prepare the body for more intense activity
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Arthrokinematics
Osteokinematics
Kinesiology
Biomechanics
Osteokinematics
Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?
Eccentric overload
Altered reciprocal inhibition
Overtraining syndrome
Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)
Altered reciprocal inhibition
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise?
Local muscle endurance
Dynamic posture control
Eccentric strength
Delayed-onset muscle soreness
Delayed-onset muscle soreness
Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)?
The sight, hearing, and taste systems
These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS.
The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions?
Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries
High blood pressure, muscle strains, and balance deficits
Type 2 diabetes, anxiety, and muscle strains
Anxiety, poor posture, and ligament sprains
Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions
3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique?
Dynamic stretching
Static stretching
Active stretching
Ballistic stretching
Static stretching
Flexibility is defined as the following:
The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees
A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched
Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Ability to stretch only one muscle
Ability to stretch in small increments
Altered movement patterns
Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods
Altered movement patterns
What term is used to describe the process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased?
A
Periodization
B
The FITT principle
C
Rate of progression
D
Progressive overload
C
Rate of progression
The five components of fitness include which of the following?
A
Balance training
B
Reactive training
C
Stabilization training
D
Cardiorespiratory (aerobic) fitness
D
Cardiorespiratory (aerobic) fitness
What term is used to describe the point during graded exercise in which there is a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production?
A
VO2max
B
Aerobic baseline
C
Lactate threshold
D Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)
D Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)
Which stage(s) are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise?
A
Stage 1 only
B
Stages 1 and 2
C
Stages 2 and 3
D
Stages 3 and 4
B
Stages 1 and 2
What does the term midpoint refer to?
A
The intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2
B
The halfway point within a work interval
C
The halfway point in a stage training session
D
The intensity level between each work-rest interval
A
The intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2
TRUE OR FALSE? The forward rounding of the shoulders theoretically limits the ability to lift the ribcage during ventilation and forcefully contract the diaphragm during inspiration.
A
True
B
False
A
True
Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?
Warm-up phase
Cool-down phase
Interval phase
Conditioning phase
Interval phase
Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?
Ratings of perceived exertion
Percentage of maximal heart rate
Percentage of VO2max
Metabolic equivalents
Ratings of perceived exertion
How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?
An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods
An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout
An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes
Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work.
It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work.
It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.
It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort.
The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.
The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.
The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
Zone 3
Zone 1
Zone 4
Zone 2
Zone 2
What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
300 minutes per week
75 minutes per week
125 minutes per week
150 minutes per week
150 minutes per week
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
Above VT2
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2
Below VT1
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.
Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake
An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods
An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
How is Fartlek training best described?
Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.
In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.
Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
An RPE of 7 to 8
An RPE of 5 to 6
An RPE of 3 to 4
An RPE of 9 to 10
An RPE of 5 to 6
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
TRUE OR FALSE? While performing the ball bridge exercise, clients should be instructed to avoid resting the head and shoulders on top of the stability ball.
A
True
B
False
B
False
Which of the following is an antirotational exercise designed to target the local core muscles?
A
Reverse crunch
B
Cable chop
C
Kneeling Pallof press
D
Front medicine ball oblique throw
C
Kneeling Pallof press
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?
Frontal plane
Horizontal plane
Transverse plane
Sagittal plane
Frontal plane
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?
Medicine ball throw
Drawing-in maneuver
Bracing
Back squat
Drawing-in maneuver
What term refers to the interaction between the body’s processing of information (visual, vestibular, and somatosensory) and the body’s motor response to that information?
A
Agility
B
Balance
C
Propioception
D
Sensorimotor function
D
Sensorimotor function
What is the most accurate term for an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms?
A
Multisensory environment
B
Balance-challenged environment
C
Dynamically enriched environment
D
Proprioceptively enriched environment
D
Proprioceptively enriched environment
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.
Somatosensory
Visual
Vestibular
Sensorimotor function
Vestibular
Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
Neuromuscular control
Sensorimotor function
Perturbation
Somatosensation
Perturbation
An alteration of the body’s current state caused by the application of an external force.
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Dynamic balance
Stable balance
Semi-dynamic balance
Static balance
Semi-dynamic balance
Maintaining one’s balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance?
Semi-dynamic balance
Stationary balance
Static balance
Dynamic balance
Semi-dynamic balance
The ability to maintain the center of mass with a stationary base of support yet allowing movement for the base supporting the body.
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
Single-leg squat
Single-leg balance
Single-leg lift and chop
Multiplanar hop with stabilization
Single-leg squat
The ability to maintain the center of mass within the base of support in a stationary position, meaning no linear or angular movement.
Static Balance
The ability to maintain the center of mass with a stationary base of support yet allowing movement for the base supporting the body.
Semi-dynamic balance
The ability to maintain a center of mass over an ever-changing base of support.
Dynamic Balance
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet? Select one: a. 20 to 35% of total calories b. 45 to 65% of total calories c. 5 to 20% of total calories d. 10 to 35% of total calories
a. 20 to 35% of total calories
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?
Select one:
a. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
b. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
c. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
d. Cancer and bleeding disorders
a. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Which of the following is a ketone body? Select one: a. Lactic acid b. Glycogen c. Acetoacetic acid d. Pyruvate
c. Acetoacetic acid
What does EMG stand for? Select one: a. Electromyography b. Electrocardiogram c. Electromagnetic spectrum d. Elektrokardiogramm
a. Electromyography
Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1? Select one: a. Develop anaerobic capacity b. Develop an appropriate aerobic base c. Improve anaerobic capacity and power d. Develop aerobic efficiency
b. Develop an appropriate aerobic base
Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?
Select one:
a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.
b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
c. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.
Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?
Select one:
a. Central to the left and anterior to the spine
b. Central to the left and posterior to the spine
c. Central to the right and posterior to the spine
d. Central to the right and anterior to the spine
a. Central to the left and anterior to the spine
Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism? Select one: a. Fat-soluble vitamins b. B vitamins c. Water-soluble vitamins d. Vitamin C
b. B vitamins
Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Select one: a. Strength b. Stability c. Endurance d. Power
b. Stability
A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her? Select one: a. Autonomy motivation b. Extrinsic motivation c. Affiliation motivation d. Intrinsic motivation
b. Extrinsic motivation
What is sarcopenia?
Select one:
a. Lower than normal bone mineral density
b. Chronic inflammation of the joints
c. Age-related loss of muscle tissue
d. Age-related loss in bone mineral density
c. Age-related loss of muscle tissue
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Select one: a. Stretching of the antagonist muscle b. Shortening of the agonist muscle c. Stretching of the agonist muscle d. Transitioning of forces
c. Stretching of the agonist muscle
What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?
Select one:
a. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.
b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.
d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?
Select one:
a. The exercise targets large muscle groups
b. The exercise is continuous in nature.
c. The exercise is intense.
d. The exercise is rhythmic.
c. The exercise is intense.
When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users?
Select one:
a. Increased multiplanar movement
b. Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements
c. Increased user safety
d. Decreased challenges to balance and stability
a. Increased multiplanar movement
These are above the water or under the water in the “Iceberg Effect?”
Decrease functional movement
Proper movement
mobility
stability
Under the water
These are under the water or above water in the “Iceberg” effect?
Endurance
Increased athletic performance
Power and SAQ
Strength and hypertrophy
Above water
Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?
Select one:
a. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.
b. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism. Incorrect
c. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes.
d. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.
d. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening? Select one: a. Isokinetic action b. Concentric action c. Eccentric action d. Isometric action
c. Eccentric action
When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? Select one: a. Resting heart rate b. Body composition c. Blood pressure d. Flexibility
d. Flexibility
When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? Select one: a. Oxidation b. Transformation c. Phosphorylation d. ATP-PC
c. Phosphorylation
The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach? Select one: a. Systematic approach b. Progressive overload c. SAID principle d. All-or-nothing principle
b. Progressive overload
Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. Decreased rate of muscle contraction and metabolic rate
b. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature
c. Decreased oxygen exchange capacity
d. Increased parasympathetic nervous activity
b. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
Select one:
a. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions.
b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
c. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP.
d. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.
b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
What is the RDA for protein? Select one: a. 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 0.8 g/kg of body weight c. 1.6 g/kg of body weight d. 1.2 g/kg of body weight
0.8 g/kg of body weight
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following?
Select one:
a. Groups function only when all members are present.
b. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in.
c. Groups rely only on the leader for support.
d. The group feels distinct from other people.
The group feels distinct from other people.
Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?
Select one:
a. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise
b. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
c. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise
d. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
d. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
Which of the following is an example of a client’s intrinsic motivation for exercise?
Select one:
a. Exercising because it is fun
b. Exercising because they want to look better for others when on vacation
c. Exercising because a doctor tells them to
d. Exercising because they feel guilty
a. Exercising because it is fun
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased venous return b. Decreased ventricular filling c. Increased ventricular filling d. Venous pooling
c. Increased ventricular filling
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior? Select one: a. Social psychology b. Health psychology c. Sport and exercise psychology d. Developmental psychology
c. Sport and exercise psychology
What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?
Select one:
a. Expiration becomes more forceful.
b. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm.
c. Breathing becomes more shallow.
d. Inspiration is prolonged.
Expiration becomes more forceful.
The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following?
Select one:
a. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.
b. The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to the gland to exert a particular action.
c. The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action.
d. The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to exert a particular effect.
a. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms? Select one: a. Societal influence b. Group influence c. Peer pressure d. Health influence
b. Group influence
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Lateral pelvic tilt b. Anterior pelvic tilt c. Medial pelvic tilt d. Posterior pelvic tilt
b. Anterior pelvic tilt
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Select one: a. Bench press strength assessment b. Push-up test c. Pushing assessment d. Overhead press
b. Push-up test
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?
Select one:
a. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
b. Biologically active forms are less efficient.
c. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity.
d. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency.
a. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
How does taking “high” doses of vitamin C impact health?
Select one:
a. It improves the immune system.
b. High doses can be dangerous.
c. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.
d. High doses can improve heart health.
c. More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption. Correct
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?
Select one:
a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases.
b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
c. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
d. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.
b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Select one:
a. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
c. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
d. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects?
Select one:
a. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid
b. Slow inhalation with expansion of the stomach
c. Slow inhalation through the nose with limited chest movement
d. Deep breaths with use of the diaphragm
a. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid
What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere
b. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction
c. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
d. The Z-lines moving farther apart
c. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?
Select one:
a. 2 to 3 liters of fluid
b. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity
c. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid
d. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
d. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Behavior change techniques c. Determinants d. Attitudes
c. Determinants
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?
Select one:
a. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation.
b. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle.
c. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.
d. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
d. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 2.5 mL/kg/min b. 5.0 mL/kg/min c. 3.5 mL/kg/min d. 7.0 mL/kg/min
c. 3.5 mL/kg/min
Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise?
Select one:
a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
b. Fat would be the main energy source.
c. A steady-state intensity would be used.
d. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source
a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue? Select one: a. Glycogen stores were exhausted. b. ADP was depleted. c. Phosphocreatine was depleted. d. Fatty acid stores were exhausted.
a. Glycogen stores were exhausted.
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?
Select one:
a. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction
b. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction
d. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction
b. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
Davis’s law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
Select one:
a. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage.
b. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
c. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload.
d. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.
Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
What are essential amino acids?
Select one:
a. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body
b. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body
c. The only type of amino acid found in protein sources
d. Amino acids responsible for protein synthesis
Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body
Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Isokinetic c. Concentric d. Isometric
c. Concentric
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex? Select one: a. Lateral subsystem b. Posterior oblique subsystem c. Deep longitudinal subsystem d. Anterior oblique subsystem
a. Lateral subsystem
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion? Select one: a. Static stretching b. Dynamic stretching c. Self-myofascial techniques d. Active stretching
c. Self-myofascial techniques
What is the primary function of the large intestine?
Select one:
a. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum
b. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
c. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine
d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine
Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
Which individual is suffering from an acute disease?
Select one:
a. Tricia, who has type 1 diabetes
b. Jorge, who is sick with the flu
c. Roger, who has type 2 diabetes
d. Perry, who suffers from a congenital heart condition
b. Jorge, who is sick with the flu
The posterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
c. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change?
Select one:
a. Tell them to exercise with a friend
b. Provide them with education and knowledge
c. Help them identify barriers to exercise
d. Encourage them to make plans to exercise
c. Help them identify barriers to exercise
Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site? Select one: a. Fascicles b. Actin Incorrect c. Myosin d. Troponin
d. Troponin
What is glycogen?
Select one:
a. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
b. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals Incorrect
c. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants
d. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans
a. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
Bridget, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is looking for ways to satisfy her CEU requirement. Which of the following would be an accepted means to fulfill this requirement?
Select one:
a. Completing an approved CEU course for 0.9 CEUs, along with the CPR/AED for 0.1 CEUs Incorrect
b. Attending an 8-hour fitness seminar
c. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs
d. Reading a textbook on a related fitness topic
c. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Select one: a. Stable balance b. Dynamic balance c. Static balance Incorrect d. Semi-dynamic balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Select one: a. Power b. Flexibility c. Aerobic fitness d. Muscular strength
a. Power
