Practice Test #5 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Your companies share drive has several folders that have become encrypted by a piece of ransomware. During your investigation, you found that only the Sales department folders were encrypted. You continue your investigation and find that a salesperson’s workstation was also encrypted. You suspect that this workstation was the original source of the infection. Since it was connected to the Sales department share drive as a mapped S:\ drive, it was also encrypted. You have unplugged the network cable from this workstation. What action should you perform NEXT to restore the company’s network to normal operation?

a) Schedule a full disk anti-malware scan on the workstation
b) Schedule weekly scans and enable on-access scanning
c) Disable System Restore on the workstation
d) Restore the Sales department folders from backups

A

d) Restore the Sales department folders from backups

Since the share drive affects multiple users, not just this one salesperson, it should be prioritized for recovery first. Since the workstation has been quarantined from the network, it is no longer a threat to the shared drive data. Therefore, you should restore the latest backup of the Sales folders to the share drive. This will enable the rest of the Sales department to get back to normal operations.
Then, you should focus on remediating this workstation. The next step for that remediation would be to disable System Restore, remediate the infected workstation by updating the anti-malware software, and conduct scans

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2
Q

Marta’s organization is concerned with the vulnerability of a user’s account being vulnerable for an extended period of time if their password was compromised. Which of the following controls should be configured as part of their password policy to minimize this vulnerability?

a) Password complexity
b) Minimum password length
c) Password expiration
d) Password history

A

c) Password expiration

A password expiration control in the policy would force users to change their passwords at specific time intervals. This will then lock out a user who types in the incorrect password or create an alter that the user’s account has been potentially compromised. While the other options are good components of password security to prevent an overall compromise, they are not effective against the vulnerability described in this particular scenario. It states the issue is based on time. Password history is used to determine the number of unique passwords a user must use before using an old password again. The Passwords must meet complexity requirements policy setting determines whether passwords must meet a series of guidelines that are considered important for a strong password. Maximum password length creates a limit to how long the password can be, but a longer password is considered stronger against a brute force attack.

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3
Q

A coworker is creating a file containing a script. You look over their shoulder and see “net use s:\fileserver\videos” in the file. Based on this, what type of file extension should this script use?

a) .vbs
b) .bat
c) .js
d) .py

A

b) .bat

Batch scripts run on the Windows operating system and, in their simplest form, contain a list of several commands that are executed in a sequence. A .bat file is used for a batch script. You can run the file by calling its name from the command line or double-clicking the file in File Explorer. Generally, batch file scripts run from end to end and are limited in branching and user input.
VBScript is a scripting language based on Microsoft’s Visual Basic programming language. Network administrators often use VBScript to perform repetitive administrative tasks. With VBScript, you can run your scripts from either the command-line or the Windows graphical interface. Scripts that you write must be run within a host environment. Windows 10 provides Internet Explorer, IIS, and Windows Script Host (WSH) for this purpose.

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4
Q

Which of the following commands can a technician use on a Linux server to verify the IP address associated with diontraining.com?

a) netstat
b) dig
c) grep
d) apt-get

A

b) dig

The dig command is used to query the domain name system (DNS) to obtain information about host addresses, mail exchanges, nameservers, and related information.
The netstat command is used to display the network statistics.
The grep is a command-line utility for searching plain-text data sets for lines that match a regular expression.
The grep command works on Unix, Linux, and macOS operating systems. Grep is an acronym that stands for Global Regular Expression Print. The apt-get utility is a powerful package management command-line program that works with Ubuntu’s APT (Advanced Packaging Tool) library to install new software packages, remove existing software packages, upgrade existing software packages, and even upgrade the entire operating system. The apt-get utility works with Ubuntu and Debian-based Linux distributions.

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5
Q

Your Windows 10 machine has just crashed. Where should you look to identify the cause of the system crash and how to fix it?

a) BSOD (blue screen of death)
b) DDOS
c) MAC
d) POST (Power On Self Test)

A

a) BSOD (blue screen of death)

*When your Windows 10 machine crashes, the Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is often the first place to look for clues. Here’s why: BSOD (Blue Screen of Death): The BSOD provides critical information about system crashes, such as error codes, memory dump, and driver or hardware issues that led to the crash. The error message displayed on the BSOD typically includes a STOP code (such as 0x0000007E or 0x00000050) and a brief description of the error, which can help in diagnosing the cause of the crash. Sometimes, the BSOD will also mention a specific driver or process that may be involved in the crash, which is useful for troubleshooting. You can analyze the minidump files (created after a BSOD occurs) to get more details on what caused the crash. Tools like Event Viewer or BlueScreenView can help you analyze these files.

Why not the other options?
b) DDOS (Distributed Denial of Service):
A DDoS attack typically causes a network service to become unavailable by overwhelming it with a flood of traffic. It does not directly cause a system crash (like a BSOD), and it would not be logged in the BSOD itself.

c) MAC (Media Access Control):
The MAC address refers to a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces and is unrelated to system crashes. It’s part of network communication and has no direct connection to the cause of a system crash in Windows.

d) POST (Power On Self Test):
POST occurs when the computer is first powered on and performs hardware diagnostics before the operating system starts loading. If your system is already crashing (after it has started running), POST is not relevant. It’s only used to detect initial hardware failures when starting the machine, not for identifying issues that occur after boot.*

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6
Q

Tony works for a company as a cybersecurity analyst. His company runs a website that allows public postings. Recently, users have started complaining about the website having pop-up messages asking for their username and password. Simultaneously, your security team has noticed a large increase in the number of compromised user accounts on the system. What type of attack is most likely the cause of both of these events?

a) Rootkit
b) Cross-site request forgery
c) SQL injection
d) Cross-site scripting

A

cross-site scripting (XSS)

This scenario is a perfect example of the effects of a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack. If your website’s HTML code does not perform input validation to remove scripts that may be entered by a user, then an attacker can create a popup window that collects passwords and uses that information to compromise other accounts further.
A cross-site request forgery (CSRF) is an attack that forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they are currently authenticated.
An XSS will allow an attacker to execute arbitrary JavaScript within the victim’s browser (such as creating pop-ups).
A CSRF would allow an attack to induce a victim to perform actions they do not intend to perform.
A rootkit is a set of software tools that enable an unauthorized user to control a computer system without being detected.
SQL injection is the placement of malicious code in SQL statements via web page input. None of the things described in this scenario would indicate a CSRF, rootkit, or SQL injection.

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7
Q

Which of the following commands is used to edit a text file on a Linux server?

a) pwd
b) nano
c) cat
d) grep

A

b) nano

The nano utility is an easy-to-use command-line text editor for Linux systems. Nano includes the functionality of a regular text editor, as well as syntax highlighting, multiple buffers, search and replace with regular expression support, spellchecking, UTF-8 encoding, and more.
The cat (short for “concatenate“) command is one of the most frequently used commands in Linux/Unix. The cat command allows the creation of single or multiple files, view file contents, concatenate files, and redirect output in the terminal to a file.
The grep is a command-line utility for searching plain-text data sets for lines that match a regular expression. The grep command works on Unix, Linux, and macOS operating systems. Grep is an acronym that stands for Global Regular Expression Print.
The pwd command displays the present working directory (current directory) path to the terminal or display. If you are working on a Linux system and are unsure of where you are in the directory structure, type “pwd” and hit enter to display the path to the screen.

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8
Q

Which of the following commands is used on a Linux system to safely turn off a server?

a) shutdown
b) kill
c) rm
d) ps

A

a) shutdown

The shutdown command brings the system down in a secure way. When the shutdown is initiated, all logged-in users and processes are notified that the system is going down, and no further logins are allowed. You can shut down your system immediately or at the specified time.
The ps command is used to list the currently running processes, and their PIDs and some other information depend on different options. It reads the process information from the virtual files in the /proc file system. The /proc directory contains virtual files and is known as a virtual file system.
The kill command sends a signal to specified processes or process groups, causing them to act according to the signal. When the signal is not specified, it defaults to -15 (-TERM), which terminates the specified process by gracefully stopping it. If “kill -9” is used instead, it will immediately kill the process.
The rm command is a command-line utility for removing files or directories. To remove a file, pass the name of a file or files to the rm command, and those files will be removed immediately from the file system.

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9
Q

A user contacts the service desk after they just finished attempting to upgrade their laptop to Windows 10. The upgrade failed, and the user asks you to explain why. Which of the following log files should you review to determine the cause of the upgrade failure?

a) Setup log
b) Application log
c) System log
d) Security log

A

a) Setup log

The setup log contains a record of the events generated during the Windows installation or upgrade process.
The application log contains information regarding application errors.
The system log contains information about service load failures, hardware conflicts, driver load failures, and more.
The security log contains information regarding audit data and security on a system. For example, the security log contains a list of every successful and failed login attempt.

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10
Q

A user’s computer was running out of storage space, so they decided to install a new second 1 TB hard disk drive (HDD) into their Windows 10 computer. Whenever they attempt to boot up the computer, an error of “No Operating System Found” is displayed on their screen. You unplugged the new 1 TB HDD, and then the computer boots up without any errors. You have just reconnected the 1 TB HDD. What step should you attempt NEXT to fix this issue?

a) Reboot the computer into safe mode
b) Verify the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI
c) Format the 1 TB HDD
d)Reinstall Windows to the 1 TB HHD

A

b) Verify the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI

If more than one hard drive is connected to the computer, it is important to verify the correct boot order is listed in the BIOS/UEFI. In this scenario, it sounds like the system is configured to boot first from the 1 TB HDD and then from the original HDD. If this order is switched in the boot order, the system will boot without generating the error message.
Formatting the HDD will not solve this problem since a formatted drive does not have an operating system installed by default.

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11
Q

You have been asked to recycle 20 of your company’s old laptops. The laptops will be donated to a local community center for underprivileged children. Which of the following data destruction and disposal methods is MOST appropriate to allow the data on the drives to be fully destroyed and the drives to be reused by the community center?

a) Drill/hammer the HDDs platters
b) Low-level formatting of the HDDs
c) Degaussing of the HDDs
d) Standard formatting of the HDDs

A

b) Low-level formatting of the HDDs

Low-level formatting is a hard disk operation that should make recovering data from your storage devices impossible once the operation is complete. It sounds like something you might want to do if giving away a hard disk or discarding an old computer that may have contained useful and important private information.
Standard formatting of the drives could allow the data to be restored and make the data vulnerable to exposure.
Drilling or hammering the HDD platters would physically destroy the drives and the data, making the laptops useless for the community center.
Degaussing the drives would also render the drives useless to the community center. Therefore, the safest method is a low-level format since it fully destroys the data and allows the drives to be reused by the community center.

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12
Q

A user’s workstation is infected with malware. You have quarantined it from the network. When you attempt to boot it to the Windows 10 desktop, it fails. Which of the following should you do NEXT to begin remediating this system?

a) Format the workstation and reinstall Windows 10
b) Disable System Restore and reinstall Window 10
c) Restore the workstation from the last system restore point
d) Restart into Safe Mode and conduct an antivirus scan

A

d) Restart into Safe Mode and conduct an antivirus scan

*Observing Windows in safe mode enables you to narrow down the source of a problem and can help you troubleshoot problems on your PC. Safe Mode will allow you to restore an earlier System Restore point, but it will not allow you to disable System Restore. Restoring to the last system restore point may not restore the system to the time before the malware infection. Formatting and reinstalling Windows would lead to data loss for the user. Therefore, you should attempt to remediate the malware infection from Safe Mode first. *

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13
Q

You were troubleshooting a recently installed NIC on a workstation and decided to ping the NIC’s loopback address. Which of the following IPv4 addresses should you ping?

a) 10.0.0.1
b) 127.0.0.1
c) 192.168.1.1
d) 172.16.1.1

A

b) 127.0.0.1

The loopback address is 127.0.0.1 in IPv4, and it is reserved for troubleshooting and testing. The loopback address is used to receive a test signal to the NIC and its software/drivers to diagnose problems. Even if the network cable is unplugged, you should be able to ping your loopback address successfully.
The other three IP addresses presented as options are private Class A, Class B, or Class C addresses, and not the loopback address.

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14
Q

You want to enable a security feature that would remember the Layer 2 address first connected to a particular switch port to prevent someone from unplugging a workstation from the switch port and connecting their own SOHO wireless router to that same switch port. Which of the following security features would BEST accomplish this goal?

a) Single sign-on
b) Firewall
c) Port security
d) Login script

A

c) Port security

Port security enables an administrator to configure individual switch ports to allow only a specified number of MAC addresses to use that port. Port Security helps secure the network by preventing unknown devices from forwarding packets. When a link goes down, all dynamically locked addresses are freed.

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15
Q

Dion Training uses a patch management server to control the distribution and installation of security patches. A technician needs to configure a new Windows 10 workstation to not perform Windows Updates automatically. Which of the following features in the Task Manager should the technician use to disable the Windows Update service?

a) Services
b) Startup
c) Processes
d) Performance

A

a) Services

*The task manager is an advanced Windows tool that has 7 tabs that are used to monitor the Processes, Performance, App History, Startup, Users, Details, and Services on a computer. By clicking the Services tab, the technician can list all of the services installed on the computer, display their status, and start/stop/restart those services. *
*By clicking the Startup tab, the technician can see every program configured to start up when Windows is booted up. This can be used to disable unwanted programs from launching during the boot-up process. *

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16
Q

During a disaster recovery, which of the following statements is true?

a) A virtual machine has more downtime than a physical server
b) A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical server
c) A virtual machine cannot be used for redundancy or load balancing
d) Both a virtual machine and a physical server has the same downtime

A

b) A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical server

A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time.
Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower.

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17
Q

Jason checks the Dion Training server room and finds that it currently has over 80% humidity. Which of the following risks to the servers could occur due to this high humidity level?

a) An under-voltage event
b) Corrosion of the servers
c) Accidental static discharge
d) An over-voltage event

A

b) Corrosion of the servers

*When humidity is high, corrosion is the biggest threat. When humidity is high, the water in the air can react with the components in the servers and cause corrosion. When humidity is low, static electricity is built up and can lead to an accidental release which damages components.
In a computer server room or work area, the humidity should be kept between 40-60% to prevent electrostatic discharge from low humidity and corrosion from high humidity. *

18
Q

Which of the following is the purpose of an ESD mat?

a) Protects equipment from dust or dirt
b) Protects casings from scratches and dents
c) Protects technician from accidental shocks
d) Protects equipment against accidental static discharge

A

d) Protects equipment against accidental static discharge

An electrostatic discharge (ESD) mat is made from materials that dissipate static to protect sensitive electronic equipment and components.

19
Q

You need to determine the best way to test operating system patches in a lab environment before deploying them to your automated patch management system. Unfortunately, your network has several different operating systems in use, but you only have one machine available to test the patches on. What is the best environment to utilize to perform the testing of the patches before deployment?

a) Bypass testing and deploy patches directly in the production environment
b) Purchase additional workstations
c) Virtualization
d) Sandboxing

A

c) Virtualization

Reason: Virtualization allows you to create multiple virtual machines (VMs) on a single physical machine, each running a different operating system. This enables you to simulate and test patches on various operating systems in an isolated environment without needing additional physical hardware. Virtual machines can be quickly cloned, restored, and configured for testing purposes, making them an efficient and cost-effective solution for patch testing.

Option a (Bypass testing and deploy patches directly) is risky, as it can cause unforeseen issues in the production environment.
Option b (Purchase additional workstations) would be expensive and inefficient.
Option d (Sandboxing) is useful for isolating specific applications but is not typically ideal for testing full operating system patches.

20
Q

A technician is trying to locate a protected .dll file to edit, but they cannot see it in the System32 folder. Which Control Panel utility should the technician use to find the file?

a) Programs and Features
b) System
c) Indexing Options
d) File Explorer Options

A

d) File Explorer Options

The File Explorer Options section of the Control Panel allows technicians to customize the display of files and folders. For example, the File Explorer Options can enable or disable the ability to show hidden files, hide file extensions, and more. General options allow a technician to configure the folders to open in a new window or the same window, to use a single-click or double-click when opening a file or program using its icon, and the ability to show or hide recently used files and folders in the Quick Access pane of the File Explorer window. The View options tab allows more customized control in terms of hiding and displaying files and folders, as well as the customization of the File Explorer window.
The Indexing Options is used to configure the method used by Windows when searching for content within the storage devices. When indexing is properly configured, the system will catalog the information on the computer using the words within the files and their metadata to more easily find the content when requested by a user.
The System section of the Control Panel allows a technician to see information about the workstation, including the processor type, amount of memory, and operating system version installed on the computer.
The Programs and Features section of the Control Panel allows a technician to install or remove applications, software packages, and features in the Windows operating system.

21
Q

The administrator would like to use the strongest encryption level possible using PSK without utilizing an additional authentication server. What encryption type should be implemented?

a) MAC filtering
b) WEP
c) WPA2 Enterprise
d) WPA personal

A

d) WPA personal

Since he wishes to use a pre-shared key and not require an authentication server, WPA personal is the most secure choice. If WPA2 Personal were an option, it would be more secure, though.
WPA2 Enterprise is incorrect since the requirement was for a PSK, whereas WPA2 Enterprise requires a RADIUS authentication server to be used with individual usernames and passwords for each client.

22
Q

You have been asked to configure your neighbor’s SOHO network. Your neighbor wants to build a Minecraft server so that all their friends can play together over the internet. When configuring their firewall, where should you place the server?

a) MAN
b) LAN
c) WAN
d) Perimeter network

A

d) Perimeter network

*A perimeter network (formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request. *

23
Q

Your supervisor has requested remote access to a particular server to check on specific data and processes in the evenings and weekends. You are concerned that the server could become infected and want to take some precautions. Which of the following is the MOST important thing to do before granting remote access to the server to your supervisor?

a) Disable internet access from the server outside of normal business hours
b) Educate your supervisor on safe internet browsing techniques
c) Set the server’s anti-virus software to automatically update itself and perform a full scan every Saturday night
d) Install the latest security updates and patches to the server

A

d) Install the latest security updates and patches to the server

To prevent infection, it is important that all servers and workstations remain patched and up to date on their security updates.
After that, the next best thing would be to set up the anti-virus to update itself daily and run a full scan nightly automatically.
Beyond that, educating your supervisor would be a good idea, as well. Disabling the internet access outside of normal business hours would not work since this would block your supervisor from accessing the server from their home.

24
Q

You need to move a new desktop computer to another desk. Which of the following actions should you take?

a) Lift with your back and not your legs
b) Ask a coworker to team lift it with you
c) Open the box and carry each piece individually
d) Lift with your legs and not your back

A

d) Lift with your legs and not your back

You should always lift with your legs and not your back. The leg muscles are much stronger than the back muscles. If you carry heavy objects with your back, you will injure yourself. If the object is greater than 50 pounds, you should ask another coworker to assist you in a team lift to carry the object to prevent injury. Team lifting is when two or more people work together to pick up a heavy or bulky object. When you need to lift or carry items, be aware of what your weight limitations are, as well as any restrictions and guidance outlined in your job description or site safety handbook. Weight limitations will vary depending on context.

25
Q

You have just installed a second monitor for a salesperson’s workstation. The user wants to clone the display so that both monitors show the exact same image. This will allow them to see one of the displays while their customer sees the other from across their desk. When you connect the second monitor and clone the display, the second monitor displays text twice as large as the other monitor. Which of the following settings should you configure?

a) Color depth
b) Resolution
c) Extended mode
d) Refresh rate

A

b) Resolution

Most monitors have a default or native resolution. When you first connect a monitor to a Windows workstation, this native resolution is detected, and Windows attempts to configure itself automatically. If this creates an imbalance between the two monitors, a technician can adjust the screen’s resolution by changing it in the Display settings area of Windows 10.
Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once.
Refresh rate is the measure of how fast an image can be updated on a monitor or display. If a monitor has a lower refresh rate, then blurring and ghosting can occur.
The extended mode allows the Windows output to be stretched across two or more monitors as if they were a single monitor. This can be configured under the Display settings in Windows 10.

26
Q

Which of the following will close all of a user’s open programs and services before powering off their Windows 10 computer?

a) Sleep
b) Shutdown
c) Lock
d) Hibernate

A

b) Shutdown

The shutdown option will close all open programs and services before powering off the computer. The user should save changes in any open files first but will be prompted to save any open files during shut down. Once powered down, the computer or laptop uses no energy. The time from a computer being fully shut down to returning to operations is longer than sleep or hibernate.
Hibernate mode is used to save the current session to disk before powering off the computer to save battery life when the system is not being used. The computer takes longer to start up again from hibernate mode than it does from the sleep or standby mode.
Sleep or standby mode is used to save the current session to memory and put the computer into a minimal power state to save battery life when the system is not being used. The computer takes less time to start up again from the sleep or standby mode than it does from the hibernate mode.
A lock will secure the desktop with a password while leaving programs running without powering off the computer.

27
Q

What is the maximum amount of memory used in a 32-bit version of the Windows operating system?

a) 8 GB
b) 4 GB
c) 2 GB
d) 1 GB

A

b) 4 GB

A 32-bit operating system can only access up to 4 GB of memory. Every byte of RAM requires its address, and the processor limits the length of those addresses. A 32-bit processor uses addresses that are 32 bits long. There are only 4,294,967,296, or 4 GB, possible 32-bit addresses. This 4 GB limit applies to the total system memory, so if the system has memory dedicated to the graphics, it is also considered a part of this 4 GB total limit.

28
Q

Which of the following Windows tools should a technician use to import and install data in the x.509 format?

a) Device manager
b) RDS
c) Certificate manager
d) Group policy editor

A

c) Certificate manager

The Certificate Manager (or certmgr.msc) is the Windows tool used to import, install, and manage certificates, including those in the x.509 format. x.509 certificates are commonly used for identity authentication, encryption, and securing communications, and Certificate Manager allows you to add them to the appropriate certificate store on the system.

Why not the others?
a) Device manager: This tool is used to manage hardware devices and their drivers, not certificates.
b) RDS (Remote Desktop Services): This is related to managing remote desktop services, not certificates.
d) Group policy editor: This is used for configuring system policies and settings, not for managing certificates.

28
Q

One of your Windows services is failing to start when you boot up your laptop. You have checked the service in the Windows Services tool and verified it is set to Automatic. What should you attempt to do NEXT to get the service to startup?

a) Reboot into Safe Mode and see if the service starts
b) Run chkdsk on the system
c) Restore from backup
d) Update the operating system

A

a) Reboot into Safe Mode and see if the service starts

Rebooting into Safe Mode can help determine whether a third-party application or service is interfering with the startup of the service. Safe Mode loads only essential system services and drivers, allowing you to check if the issue persists without external factors.

Option b) Run chkdsk on the system could be helpful if there are disk errors, but it might not directly address the issue with the service failing to start.
Option c) Restore from backup should be a last resort if other troubleshooting steps fail and there’s no other way to resolve the issue.
Option d) Update the operating system is a good idea if there are known bugs or patches related to the service, but it should not be the first troubleshooting step unless an update is specifically recommended for the issue.

29
Q

Regardless of what website Michelle types into her browser, she is being redirected to “malwarescammers.com.” What should Michelle do to fix this problem?

a) Update the anti-virus software and run a full system scan
b) Reset the web browser’s proxy settings
c) Rollback the application to the previous version
d) Restart the network services

A

**b) Reset the web browser’s proxy settings
**

When a browser redirect occurs, it usually results from a malicious proxy server setting being added to the browser. Michelle should first check her web browser’s configuration for any malicious proxies under the Connections tab under Internet Options in the Control Panel. Next, she should check the hosts.ini file to ensure that single sites are not being redirected.

30
Q

Dion Training has an open wireless network so that their students can connect to the network during class without logging in. The Dion Training security team is worried that the customers from the coffee shop next door may be connecting to the wireless network without permission. If Dion Training wants to keep the wireless network open for students but prevents the coffee shop’s customers from using it, which of the following should be changed or modified?

a) MAC filtering
b) Default SSID
c) Firewall
d) Signal strength or power level

A

d) Signal strength or power level

Since Dion Training wants to keep the wireless network open, the BEST option is to reduce the signal strength of the network’s power level. This will ensure the wireless network can only be accessed from within its classrooms and not from the coffee shop next door.
Changing the SSID won’t prevent the coffee shop’s customers from accessing the network.
While MAC filtering could be used to create an approved allow list of MAC addresses for all Dion Training’s students, this would also require it to be continuously updated with each class of students that is very time-intensive and inefficient. Therefore, the BEST solution is to reduce the signal strength.

31
Q

A user’s workstation is running slowly and cannot open some larger program files. The user complains that they often get a warning that states memory is running low on their Windows 10 workstation. Which of the following should you configure until more memory can be installed to help alleviate this problem?

a) Disable the visual effects
b) Enable the swap file
c) Increase the pagefile size
d) Defragment the hard disk

A

c) Increase the pagefile size

The Pagefile allows the computer to perform smoothly by reducing the workload of physical memory. Simply put, every time you open more applications than the RAM on your PC can accommodate, the programs already present in the RAM are automatically transferred to the Pagefile. This process is technically called Paging. Because the Pagefile works as a secondary RAM, it is often referred to as Virtual Memory. Adding more physical memory will allow the computer to run faster, but increasing the pagefile size is an acceptable short-term solution.

32
Q

Dion Training’s offices are frequently experiencing under-voltage events, sags, and power failures. Which of the following solutions would protect their servers from these issues?

a) Surge suppressor
b) Diesel generator
c) Uninterruptible power supply
d) Line conditioner

A

c) Uninterruptible power supply

A uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a battery backup. It is used to protect one server or workstation from under-voltage events, sags, and power failures. If there is a loss of power, system operation can be sustained for a few minutes or hours using a battery backup, depending on the load.
A diesel generator is a mechanical device that converts rotational motion created by a diesel motor into electrical energy. Generators take 30-60 seconds to turn on and have the electrical load transferred to them. Generators are useful for long-duration power loss events, not under-voltage events.
A line conditioner is a device that adjusts voltages in under-voltage and overvoltage conditions to maintain a 120 V output. Line conditioners raise a sag or under-voltage event back to normal levels, but they cannot protect the line from a complete power failure or power outage.
A surge protector defends against possible voltage spikes that could damage your electronics, appliances, or equipment. A power strip will not protect against voltage spikes

33
Q

A technician needs to add new features to an existing router on the network. Which of the following should be performed to add the new features?

a) Vulnerability patching
b) Firmware update
c) Migrating to IPv6
d) Clone the router

A

b) Firmware update

A firmware update will upgrade your device with advanced operational instructions without needing a hardware upgrade. A firmware update can provide new features or functions to an existing device, or patch vulnerabilities in the existing firmware code. Firmware is a specific class of computer software that provides low-level control for a device’s specific hardware.
Vulnerability patching will mitigate software bugs, but it will not add new features to an existing device.

34
Q

A user contacts the service desk and states that Microsoft Excel crashed while they were in the middle of updating their spreadsheet. Which of the following log files should you review to determine the cause of the crash?

a) Application log
b) System log
c) Security log
d) Setup

A

a) Application log

The application log contains information regarding application errors such as those caused by Microsoft Excel.
The setup log contains a record of the events generated during the Windows installation or upgrade process.
The system log contains information about service load failures, hardware conflicts, driver load failures, and more.
The security log contains information regarding audit data and security on a system.

35
Q

Dion Training has several Windows 10 Professional workstations with an internal 2 TB hard disk drive. The company wants to use full disk encryption to protect the contents of this hard drive. Which of the following security settings can be used to encrypt this storage device?

a) EFS (Encrypting File System)
b) FileVault
c) BitLocker
d) BitLocker to Go

A

c) BitLocker

*BitLocker is the built-in full disk encryption feature available in Windows 10 Professional (and higher) editions. It can be used to encrypt an entire disk drive, including system drives and data drives, to protect the contents from unauthorized access.

Here’s a breakdown of the other options:
a) EFS (Encrypting File System): EFS is used to encrypt individual files or folders, not entire drives. While it provides file-level encryption, it does not encrypt the full disk like BitLocker does.
b) FileVault: FileVault is a full disk encryption tool, but it is specific to macOS, not Windows.
d) BitLocker to Go: BitLocker to Go is used to encrypt removable drives (such as USB flash drives or external hard drives), not internal hard drives.*

36
Q

You are trying to open your company’s internal shared drive from your Windows 10 laptop but cannot reach it. You open your web browser and can connect to DionTraining.com without any issues. Which of the following commands should you use to determine if the internal shared drive is mapped to your computer properly?

a) tracert
b) net use
c) ping
d) chkdsk

A

b) net use

The net use command is used to connect to, remove, and configure connections to shared resources such as mapped drives and network printers.
The chkdsk command is used to check the file system and file system metadata of a volume for logical and physical errors.
The ping command is used to test a host’s reachability on an Internet Protocol network.
The tracert (trace route) diagnostic utility determines the route to a destination by sending Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to the destination.

37
Q

A user reports that every time they try to access https://www.diontraining.com, they receive an error stating “Invalid or Expired Security Certificate.” The technician attempts to connect to the same site from other computers on the network, and no errors or issues are observed. Which of the following settings needs to be changed on the user’s workstation to fix the “Invalid or Expired Security Certificate” error?

a) UEFI boot mode
b) Logon times
c) Date and time
d) User access control

A

c) Date and time

There are two causes of the “Invalid or Expired Security Certificate.” The first is a problem with your computer, and the second occurs when the certificate itself has an issue. Since the technician can successfully connect to the website from other computers, it shows that the error is on the user’s computer. One of the common causes of an Invalid or Expired Security Certificate error is the clock on the user’s computer being wrong. The website security certificates are issued to be valid within a given date range. If the certificate’s date is too far outside the date on the computer, the web browser will give you an invalid security certificate error because the browser thinks something is wrong. To fix this, set the computer’s clock to the correct date and time.

38
Q

A system administrator has noticed that an employee’s account has been attempting to log in to multiple workstations and servers across the network. This employee does not have access to these systems, and the login attempts are unsuccessful. Which of the following actions should the administrator do to this employee’s account in Active Directory?

a) Delete the user’s account
b) Lock the user’s account
c) Disable the user’s account
d) Reset the password of the user’s account

A

c) Disable the user’s account

The system administrator should disable the user’s account to prevent further login attempts. The system administrator should notify security, who will investigate whether the employee or another malicious actor is taking the actions.
An administrator can disable an account, but they cannot lock it. A lockout occurs when the preconfigured threshold for the number of failed login attempts is met.
Resetting the password would not solve this issue, and deleting the account would remove the user and their files from the system.

39
Q

You are concerned that your servers could be damaged during a power failure or under-voltage event. Which TWO devices would protect against these conditions?

a) Surge suppressor
b) Line conditioner
c) Battery backup
d) Grounding the server rack

A

b) Line conditioner
c) Battery backup

*b) Line conditioner: A line conditioner helps to stabilize the voltage that comes from the power supply. It can protect against under-voltage (also known as a “brownout”) by regulating and maintaining a consistent voltage level, ensuring that the servers receive a steady supply of power.
c) Battery backup: A battery backup (also known as an uninterruptible power supply, or UPS) provides power to the servers during a power failure. It gives you enough time to shut down the servers properly or continue operation for a short period until the power is restored. It also helps protect against under-voltage conditions by providing a stable output during brownouts.

The other options are less suited for these conditions:
a) Surge suppressor: While a surge suppressor protects against power surges (over-voltage) and spikes, it does not protect against under-voltage or power outages.
d) Grounding the server rack: Grounding is important for electrical safety but does not provide protection against power failures or under-voltage events.*

40
Q

A user’s workstation is opening up browser windows without any action from the user. A technician attempts to troubleshoot the workstation, but the machine is extremely slow when in use. Which of the following actions should the technician perform?

a) Update the Windows operating system
b) Enable the pop-up blocker in the web browser
c) Format and reinstall the operating system
d) Perform an anti-malware scan of the workstation

A

d) Perform an anti-malware scan of the workstation

Based on the symptoms of the pop-up windows occurring without any user action, this indicates a virus or other malware infection on the workstation. Therefore, the technician should perform an anti-malware scan of the workstation to identify the infection’s source and then remediate it.
If the pop-ups were occurring as the user was browsing the internet, then enabling the pop-up blocker in the web browser would be the first step to take. Updating the Windows operating system would not remove malware that already exists on the system.
Formatting and reinstalling the operating system would solve this issue, but it would also erase all of the user’s applications, data, and configuration settings so it is not the best action to attempt first.