Practice Test #3 Questions Flashcards
You are helping to set up a backup plan for your organization. The current plan states that all of the organization’s Linux servers must have a daily backup conducted. These backups are then saved to a local NAS device. You have been asked to recommend a method to ensure the backups will work when needed for restoration. Which of the following should you recommend?
a) Create an additional copy of the backups in an off-site datacenter
b) Attempt to restore to a test server from one of the backup files to verify them
c) Set up scripts to automatically reattempt any failed backup jobs
d) Frequently restore the server from backup files to test them
b) Attempt to restore to a test server from one of the backup files to verify them
The only way to fully ensure that a backup will work when needed is to restore the files from the backups. To do that, it is best to restore them to a test server since this will not affect your production environment
Gina just installed a 4 TB HDD into her Windows 10 computer and wants to assign the drive letter “M” to store her media files. Which type of partition should Gina use if she wants to mount the drive as a single partition?
a) FAT32
b) ISO
c) MBR
d) GPT
d) GPT
GPT is a newer way to partition disks that allows partition sizes over the 2 TB limit imposed by MBR. The GUID partition table (GPT) is a modern disk partitioning system allowing large numbers of partitions and very large partition sizes. The GPT is used in modern computers that support the UEFI standard and can support a maximum capacity of up to 9.7 ZB and up to 128 partitions. The master boot record (MBR) is a sector on a hard disk storing information about partitions configured on the disk.
The MBR holds the information on how the logical partitions that contain the file systems are organized on the physical disk. Systems that rely on BIOS utilize the MBR to determine which partitions are on a given hard disk. MBR partition tables have a maximum capacity of 2 TB and only 4 separation partitions.
An optical disc image (ISO) file is a file that contains all of the contents from an optical disc in a single file which can be mounted to the file system as though it were a physical optical drive. An ISO is a disk image that contains everything that would be written to an optical disc, disk sector by disc sector, including the optical disc file system. The file allocation table 32-bit (FAT32) is the 32-bit file system supported by Windows, macOS, and Linux computers.
FAT32 can support maximum volume sizes of up to 2 TB and maximum file sizes of up to 4 GB.
A developer uses a MacBook Pro when working from home, but they need access to both a Windows and macOS system to test their programs. Which of the following tools should be used to allow both operating systems to exist on their MacBook Pro?
a) Boot Camp
b) Mission Control
c) Device Manager
d) Terminal
a) Boot Camp
Boot Camp is used to allow dual booting on a Macintosh computer. It allows the user to boot into either macOS (OS X) or Windows as the computer is rebooted. Boot Camp is only supported on Intel-based macOS systems, though.
The terminal in macOS is the equivalent to the Windows Command Prompt window. The terminal is used to run network troubleshooting utilities such as the ping command and other advanced commands to modify the macOS environment.
Mission Control is an application for facilitating multiple desktops in the macOS environment.
The Device Manager is used to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. The device manager will highlight a piece of hardware that is not working so that a technician can repair or replace it.
Jason has built a custom Android application that he wants to install on an Android tablet without having to install it through the Play Store. Which of the following would be required to allow him to install the app’s APK on the device?
a) Jailbroken device
b) Sideloading
c) Developer mode
d) Rooted device
b) Sideloading
An android application package (APK) is a third-party or custom program that is installed directly on an Android device to give users and business the flexibility to install apps directly on Android devices. Android supports sideloading through the APK package format. An APK file contains all of that program’s code, including .dex files, resources, assets, certificates, and manifest files. Jailbreaking is conducted on an iOS device to remove manufacturer restrictions on the device and allow other software, operating systems, or networks to work with a device.
A rooted device is an Android device that has been hacked to provide the user with administrative rights to install unapproved apps, update OS, delete unwanted apps, underclock or overclock the processor, replace firmware and customize anything else. A rooted device is not required just to install an APK outside of the Play Store, though, on an Android device.
Devleoper mode is used on an Android device to show additional diagnostic information when using apps or making network connections.
You are working as a mobile device technician for a large corporation’s enterprise service desk. A user complains that every time they attempt to launch the company’s mobile email application, it crashes and displays an error message of Code123. This is the third user with this error on an Android (model DTA) smartphone. The same app is working on your smartphone, but it is a model DTX. Which of the following should you do FIRST to attempt to solve this problem?
a) Clear the app’s cache
b) Reinstall the email app
c) Update the smartphone’s OS
d) Rollback the app to an earlier version
c) Update the smartphone’s OS
- Normally, your first step would be to uninstall and reinstall the application. But, since this issue is occurring on multiple devices with the same model, it would be a better first step to update the smartphone’s OS. Based on the scenario, you know that the app works on a different smartphone model. With Android devices, the OS is usually modified by the smartphone manufacturer, specifically for their devices. If the app doesn’t work on one model, but it does on another, it may be an operating system issue.*
Jason wants to configure his Windows 10 workstation to automatically block pop-ups when searching for websites online. Which of the following Control Panel sections should he use to achieve this?
a) Power Options
b) Indexing Options
c) Internet Options
d) File Explorer Options
c) Internet Options
The Internet Options section of the Control Panel allows a technician to manage the Internet settings for their computers, including the security settings, access settings, and add-on control settings. Using Internet Options, a technician can set the homepage of the browser, set up the proxy server connection details, and change the trust and security settings used by the system.
The Indexing Options is used to configure the method used by Windows when searching for content within the storage devices. When indexing is properly configured, the system will catalog the information on the computer using the words within the files and their metadata to more easily find the content when requested by a user.
The Power Options section of the Control Panel allows technicians to customize how a computer manages its power to either conserve energy at the expense of performance or to maximize performance at the expense of energy savings by creating a power plan.
The File Explorer Options section of the Control Panel allows technicians to customize the display of files and folders. For example, the File Explorer Options can enable or disable the ability to show hidden files, hide file extensions, and more.
What is the FIFTH step of the seven-step malware removal process?
a) Remediate the infected systems
b) Enable System Restore and create a restore point in Windows
c) Schedule scans and run updates
d) Investigate and verify malware symptoms
c) Schedule scans and run updates
The seven steps of the malware removal procedures are:
(1) Investigate and verify malware symptoms,
(2) Quarantine the infected systems,
(3) Disable System Restore in Windows,
(4) Remediate the infected systems, update anti-malware software, scan the system, and use removal techniques (e.g., safe mode, pre-installation environment),
(5) Schedule scans and run updates,
(6) Enable System Restore and create a restore point in Windows, and
(7) Educate the end user.
What is the minimum processor required to install Windows 10 (x64) on a device?
a) 1 GHz single-core processor
b) 2 GHz dual-core processor
c) 2 GHz single-core processor
d) 1 GHz dual-core processor
a) 1 GHz single-core processor
For the Windows 10 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor and 1 GB of RAM.
For the Windows 10 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor and 2 GB of RAM.
For the Windows 11 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a dual-core 1 GHz processor and 4 GB of RAM.
Dion Training has configured Windows Defender Firewall on all of its corporate Windows 10 workstations. When connected to a private network, the firewall has been configured to only allow inbound connections that match an existing rule and to only allow outbound connections that do not match any existing rules. What type of security posture has Dion Training implemented?
a) Implicit allow for inbound, explicitly allow for outbound
b) Explicit allow for inbound, explicit allow for outbound
c) Explicit allow for inbound, implicit allow for outbound
d) Implicit allow for inbound, implicit allow for outbound
c) Explicit allow for inbound, implicit allow for outbound
- Explicit allow refers to a security posture where the system will only allow an item to traverse the firewall if the traffic matches an existing rule.
Implicit allow refers to a security posture where the system will allow all traffic to traverse the firewall unless there is a specific rule to prevent it.*
Which of the following is considered a form of regulated data?
a) DMCA
b) PII
c) DRM
d) AUP
b) PII
What are the four forms of regulated data covered by the exam?
1) PII (Personally Identifiable Information)
2) PCI (Payment Card Industry)
3) GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)
4) PHI (Protected Health Information).
A laptop is running Windows 10 with Windows Defender on it. A user believes their laptop may have become infected with malware, so they install a second antivirus program that supposedly includes real-time protection. Now, the laptop is sluggish and sometimes non-responsive. Which of the following should you do FIRST to resolve this problem?
a) Enable real-time protection in Windows Defender
b) Uninstall the real-time protection antivirus
c) Install and run Spybot Search & Destroy on the laptop
d) Run the Windows Update utility
b) Uninstall the real-time protection antivirus
*You should not have two antivirus or antimalware solutions running simultaneously on a single computer. Since the issues began for the user when they installed the real-time protection scanner, it should be uninstalled FIRST.
Then, you could enable real-time protection in Windows Defender to provide this functionality. While you can have two antivirus and antimalware solutions installed, you should only have one set up for real-time protection at a time. The other could be used to scan the computer during the bootup process if desired. Windows Defender, by default, already has real-time protection enabled. This is why the installation of the second real-time protection service was causing issues on this laptop.
A recently hired security employee at a bank was asked to perform daily scans of the bank’s intranet to look for unauthorized devices. The new employee decides to create a script that scans the network for unauthorized devices every morning at 2:00 am. Which programming language would work best to create this script?
a) Python
b) ASP.NET
c) PHP
d) C#
a) Python
*Python is a commonly used scripting language used in cybersecurity. Python is a general-purpose programming language that can develop many different kinds of applications. It is designed to be easy to read, and the programs use fewer lines of code compared to other programming languages. The code runs in an interpreter. Python is preinstalled on many Linux distributions and can be installed on Windows. Python scripts are saved using the .py extension.
PHP is used as a scripting language for web applications.
C# and ASP.NET are both compiled languages, not scripting languages.
Which of the following policies or plans would dictate the complexity requirements for a wireless network’s shared secret key?
a) Password policy
b) Data loss prevention policy
c) Remote access policy
d) Acceptable use policy
a) Password policy
A password policy is a set of rules created to improve computer security by motivating users to create dependable, secure passwords and then store and utilize them properly. This document promotes strong passwords by specifying a minimum password length, complexity requirements, requiring periodic password changes, and placing limits on the reuse of passwords.
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules applied by the owner, creator, or administrator of a network, website, or service, that restrict how the network, website, or system may be used and sets guidelines as to how it should be used.
A data loss prevention policy is a document that defines how organizations can share and protect data. It guides how data can be used in decision-making without it being exposed to anyone who should not have access to it. The goal of a data loss prevention policy is to minimize accidental or malicious data loss.
A remote access policy is a document that outlines and defines acceptable methods of remotely connecting to the internal network.
What does the command “shutdown /s” do on a Windows workstation?
a) Enter sleep mode
b) Log off the workstation
c) Reboot the workstation
d) Shutdown the workstation
d) Shutdown the workstation
Using the /r option will reboot the computer.
Using the /s option will shut down the computer.
Using the /l option will log off the current user.
Using the /h option will enter sleep or hibernation mode.
Your home network is configured with a long, strong, and complex pre-shared key for its WPA2 encryption. You noticed that your wireless network has been running slow, so you checked the list of “connected clients” and see that “Bob’s Laptop” is connected to it. Bob lives downstairs and is the maintenance man for your apartment building. You know that you never gave Bob your password, but somehow he has figured out how to connect to your wireless network. Which of the following actions should you take to prevent anyone from connecting to your wireless network without the proper WPA2 password?
a) Disable WPS
b) Disable SSID broadcast
c) Disable WPA3
d) Enable WEP
a) Disable WPS
WPS was created to ease the setup and configuration of new wireless devices by allowing the router to automatically configure them after a short eight-digit PIN was entered. Unfortunately, WPS is vulnerable to a brute-force attack and is easily compromised. Therefore, WPS should be disabled on all wireless networks. If Bob could enter your apartment and press the WPS button, he could have configured his laptop to use your wireless network without your WPA2 password.
While disabling the SSID broadcast could help prevent someone from seeing your network, the issue was someone connecting to your network without having the password. Disabling the SSID broadcast would not solve this issue.
Which of the following contains virtual memory that can supplement the physical system memory in a Linux system?
a) ext4
b) NFS
c) ext3
d) Swap partition
d) Swap partition
The swap partition on a Linux system is a portion of the hard disk formatted with a minimal kind of file system and used in situations when the operating system runs out of physical memory and needs more of it. It can only be used by the memory manager and not for the storage of ordinary data files.
The third extended filesystem (ext3) is a journaled file system commonly used by the Linux kernel. The ext3 file system can support a maximum volume size of up to 32 TB.
The fourth extended filesystem (ext4) is a journaled file system that is used natively by modern Linux operating systems such as Debian and Ubuntu. The ext4 file system can support a maximum volume size of up to 1 EB.
The network file system (NFS) is used to mount remote storage devices into the local file system on a Linux system. It allows you to mount your local file systems over a network and remote hosts to interact with them while mounted locally on the same system.
Which of the following types of encryption uses a 128-bit encryption key but is considered weak due to its use of a 24-bit initialization vector?
a) WEP
b) WPS
c) WPA2
d) WPA
a) WEP
Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an older mechanism for encrypting data sent over a wireless connection. WEP is considered vulnerable to attacks that can break its encryption. WEP relies on the use of a 24-bit initialization vector to secure its preshared key. Wi-Fi protected access (WPA) is an improved encryption scheme for protecting Wi-Fi communications designed to replace WEP.
WPA uses the RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme. Wi-Fi protected access version 2 (WPA2) replaced the original version of WPA after the completion of the 802.11i security standard.
WPA2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the pre-shared key method is still available for home and small office networks. WPA2 uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption.
The Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. On compatible equipment, users push a button on the access point and connect adapters to associate them securely. WPS is subject to brute force attacks against the PIN used to secure them, making them vulnerable to attack.
A workstation at Dion Training’s office is taking a long time to boot up. Once it finishes booting to the Windows 10 desktop, which of the following tools can a technician use to diagnose and fix the boot issues?
a) msinfo32.exe
b) msconfig.exe
c) resmon.exe
d) perfmon.msc
b) msconfig.exe
System configuration (msconfig.exe) is a system utility to troubleshoot the Microsoft Windows startup processes. MSConfig is used to disable or re-enable software, device drivers, and Windows services that run at startup, or to change boot parameters.
PerfMon is a performance monitoring and system monitoring utility in Windows that is used to monitor the activities on CPU and memory activity on a computer. Performance monitor is used for viewing performance data either in real-time or from a log file. The performance monitor can only monitor the resource utilization, but it cannot manage or terminate those processes. Resource monitor is a utility used to display information about the use of hardware (CPU, memory, disk, and network) and software (file handles and modules) resources in real-time.
The resource monitor helps check the performance counters of specific resources and decide a course of action to improve the performance.
System information (msinfo32.exe) is a utility that gathers information about your computer and displays a comprehensive list of hardware, system components, and the software environment that can be used to diagnose computer issues.
