Practice Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Lipid panels are drawn in the:

A

SST

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2
Q

Yellow has what additive and is used for what test?

A

SPS; BLOOD CULTURES

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3
Q

Light blue has what additive and is used for what test?

A

Sodium citrate (anticoagulant); Coag studies - PT/INR, PT, PTT, FIBRINOGEN, D-DIMER

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4
Q

Gold or tiger top (red-gray) has what additive and is used for what test?

A

SST, clot activator, thixotropic gel (creates a barrier; used for serum determinations in chemistry: endocrine testing, immunological assays, CMP, lipid panels, liver panels, kidney panels, pregnancy test, routine blood donor screening, diagnostic testing of serum for infectious diseases

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5
Q

Orange has what additive and is used for what test?

A

Rapid serum tube (RST); clot activator; STAT serum tests

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6
Q

Green has what additive and is used for what test?

A

Sodium heparin, lithium heparin; Plasma determinations in chemistry: STAT/routine chemistry test, ammonia, troponin, electrolytes, arterial blood gases

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7
Q

Lavender

A

EDTA; whole blood hematology determinations: CBC, RBC, WBC, PLATELET COUNTS, HBA1C, HCT, SED RATE (ESR), routine immunohematology testing: sickle cell test. If a pink tube is unavailable, lavender can be used for blood donor screening

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8
Q

Pink has what additive and is used for what test?

A

EDTA; preferred for blood donor screening (blood bank)

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9
Q

Gray has what additive and is used for what test?

A

Potassium oxalate; sodium fluoride; Blood glucose testing: GTT, FBS; blood alcohol concentration test, drug test, lactic acid/lactate test

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10
Q

Light yellow has what additive and is used for what test?

A

Acid citrate dextrose (ACD); DNA and paternity testing, blood bank studies

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11
Q

Royal/dark blue has what additive and is used for what test?

A

Can contain different types; free of element contamination; Depends on the additive indicated on the tube label (order of draw also depends on the additive indicated); Toxicology - trace element testing; nutritional chemistry determinations

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12
Q

neutral urine ph =

A

7.0

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13
Q

Normal rectal temp:

A

98.6 - 101.0 F; 37.0 - 38.3 C

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14
Q

Normal urine specific gravity range

A

1.005-1.030

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15
Q

electrophoresis:

A

a lab technique used to separate molecules based on their size and charge. Commonly used to analyze chemical components from blood draws.

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16
Q

To collect a clean catch urine sample:

A

spread labia and allow a small amount of urine to pass into the toilet before collecting sample.

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17
Q

People who are allergic to shellfish are often also allergic to:

A

iodine

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18
Q

Colostomy

A

surgical procedure in which an opening (stoma) is created in the abdomen, and a portion of the colon is brought through the opening to the surface of the skin.

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19
Q

Colonoscopy

A

diagnostic procedure that involves insertion of a long, flexible tube with a camera on the end into the colon to visualize the large intestine.

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20
Q

If a patient is frequently late:

A

schedule them for the last appt of the day.

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21
Q

Exposure control plan:

A

outlines procedures and protocols in place to protect healthcare workers from exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

22
Q

An MA should assist a pt with macular degeneration by:

A

holding their elbow

23
Q

Kidney disease can lead to what in the urine?

24
Q

Before cast application, the MA should evaluate:

A

skin condition of the pt

25
What format should be used for formal and professional contexts for the date?
month-day-year; eg: "October 10, 1998"
26
Benzoin tincture is used for?
cleaning the skin prior to applying adhesive bandages
27
Biohazardous waste may be stored for a maximum of:
30 days
28
Medical charts are typically organized:
alphabetically by the patient's last name
29
exophthalmos
condition in which the eye protrudes outward from the face. Associated with Grave's disease.
30
goniometer
used to measure the range of motion of a joint
31
Capitation
payment method in which a provider is paid a set amount per patient per month regardless of the number or type of services rendered.
32
split billing
fraudulently billing for multiple visits for services performed during one visit.
33
Normal fasting blood sugar:
70-99 mg/DL
34
Hypoglycemic blood sugar:
Less than 70 mg/DL (very severe is less than 50 mg/dL)
35
Hyperglycemic blood sugar:
Greater than 140 mg/dL (severe if greater than 200 mg/dL)
36
Minimum amount of blood for an adult blood culture?
8-10 ml per bottle, for a total of 16-20 mL
37
cryosurgery:
medical procedure that uses extreme cold temperatures to destroy abnormal or diseased tissue
38
Viruses are not classified as a living microbe. They are classified as:
obligate parasites
39
In the event of an unconscious patient with V-fib:
call for assistance and begin CPR
40
The __ muscles receive signals from the nervous system to contract and initiate movement.
skeletal
41
lymphedema
a common complication after a lymph node has been removed; characterized by SWELLING of the limb or body part that the lymph nodes were removed from. Swelling occurs b/c the lymphatic system is no longer able to effectively drain excess fluid from the affected area.
42
Hyperactivity, restlessness (ie difficulty sitting still) can be a sign of possible __ abuse.
substance
43
hemoglobin is found inside:
red blood cells
44
Calipers:
a tool used to measure the thickness of skinfold at different locations of the body, which can be used to estimate body fat percentage.
45
What are common areas to measure skinfold thickness with calipers?
Triceps and suprailiac area (above the hip bone)
46
If EKG electrode adhesives are insufficient:
attach leads with cloth tape
47
The crash cart should be checked:
monthly or after every use
48
Orthopnea:
difficulty breathing when lying flat on the back
49
Eupnea
normal, regular breathing pattern without any distress.
50
Hypoglycemia is a common adverse effect in individuals using:
insulin
51
anthropometric measurements:
physical measurements of the body
52
locus of authority issue:
occurs when 2 individuals disagree on making a decision