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Psychology > CCMA Practice Test > Flashcards

CCMA Practice Test Flashcards

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1
Q

Negligence

A

failure to take reasonable care, resulting in harm to another person

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2
Q

What are the four D’s of negligence?

A

Duty, breach of duty, direct causation, damages

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3
Q

What is the RACE acronym for fires?

A

Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish

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4
Q

What is the preferred site for an IM injection for an infant or child up to age 3?

A

Vastus Lateralis

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5
Q

What are the five rights of medication administration?

A

Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time

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6
Q

Skin rash, swelling, difficulty breathing, urticaria (hives), and anaphylaxis are all examples of what type of reaction?

A

allergic reaction

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7
Q

Suppuration

A

production of pus in an infected area

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8
Q

Glycosuria

A

presence of sugar (glucose) in the urine

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9
Q

hematoma

A

collection of blood outside of the blood vessels; presents as bruising and sometimes swelling

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10
Q

goniometer

A

instrument used to measure the range of motion of a joint in a single plane

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11
Q

cytobrush

A

a small brush used to collect cells from the cervix during a Pap test

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12
Q

tonometer

A

an instrument used to measure the intraocular pressure of the eye to diagnose glaucoma

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13
Q

vs

A

vital signs

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14
Q

hct

A

hematocrit

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15
Q

hands placed on throat is a universal sign of:

A

choking

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16
Q

Seizures involve involuntary muscle movements and are a symptom of what kind of disorder?

A

neurological

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17
Q

A choking patient is often ____.

A

silent

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18
Q

spirometry

A

diagnostic test conducted using a spirometer to assess lung function by measuring the volume and flow of air during inhalation and exhalation

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19
Q

Neurologist

A

specializes in the nervous system; They focus on conditions affecting the brain, spinal cord, and nerves

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20
Q

The Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) model is a healthcare model that focuses on providing coordinated and comprehensive care to patients in a primary care setting. The main principle is:

A

the active engagement and involvement of patients in their own care; this is considered shared decision making

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21
Q

Accountable Care Organization (ACO):

A

a type of healthcare organization that aims to coordinate and improve the quality of care for Medicare patients while also controlling costs

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22
Q

ac

A

before meals

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23
Q

pc

A

after meals

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24
Q

qid

A

four times daily

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25
Q

qh

A

every hour

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26
Q

qd

A

every day

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27
Q

pr

A

rectally

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28
Q

pv

A

vaginally

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29
Q

opth

A

in the eye

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30
Q

gtt

A

drops

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31
Q

sol

A

solution

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32
Q

tab

A

tablet

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33
Q

tbsp

A

tablespoon

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34
Q

qs

A

as much as is needed

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35
Q

sig

A

write (on the label)

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36
Q

supp

A

suppository (in the rectum)

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37
Q

sl

A

sublingual (under the tongue)

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38
Q

top

A

topical

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39
Q

Administration

A

The process by which a drug is introduced into the body

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40
Q

Absorption

A

The process by which a drug enters the bloodstream after administration

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41
Q

Distribution

A

The process by which a drug is transported throughout the body via the circulatory system

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42
Q

Metabolism

A

The process by which the body breaks down a drug into smaller components, making it easier to eliminate from the body

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43
Q

Elimination

A

The process by which a drug and its metabolites are eliminated from the body

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44
Q

hemoptysis

A

coughing up blood from the respiratory tract

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45
Q

hematemesis

A

vomiting blood

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46
Q

amenorrhea

A

absence of a menstrual period

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47
Q

tardive

A

slow onset of symptoms

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48
Q

nosocomial

A

refers to infections acquired in a healthcare setting

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49
Q

Ischemia

A

refers to the restriction of oxygen-rich blood to a part of the body, leading to reduced tissue oxygenation. It can result in cell damage or death if not resolved.

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50
Q

hypertrophy

A

enlargement of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the size of its cells

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51
Q

hypotrophy

A

refers to the underdevelopment of a tissue or organ

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52
Q

necrosis

A

death of cells or tissues; ischemia can LEAD TO necrosis, but they are not the same; ischemia is a condition, while necrosis is an outcome.

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53
Q

What are the fat-soluble vitamins? Hint: remember the pneumonic “All Dogs Eat Kibble”

A

A, D, E, K; all other vitamins are water-soluble

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54
Q

petechiae present as little red, purple, or brown spots; what causes this?

A

Ruptured capillaries

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55
Q

What are the 5 states of grief? (Hint: DABDA)

A

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

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56
Q

Active immunity = self-produced antibodies; they are long-term. What is an example of this?

A

Vaccine against the flu

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57
Q

Passive immunity = Antibodies received from another individual; they are short-term. What is an example of this?

A

Mother-to-infant breast milk

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58
Q

Cross immunity occurs when immunity to one pathogen provides some level of protection against another, unrelated pathogen. What is an example of this?

A

Prior flu infection provides some protection against a new strain

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59
Q

Innate immunity is the body’s natural, non-specific defense mechanism. What is an example of this?

A

Stomach acid breaks down food-borne pathogens

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60
Q

The preferred method for prescribing controlled substances is through:

A

an electronic prescription via authorized software like EPCS

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61
Q

nsf

A

no significant findings

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62
Q

pe

A

physical examination

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63
Q

inches to centimeters:

A

multiply by 2.54

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64
Q

gram staining is a simple lab test that tells providers if bacteria are:

A

Gram-positive or Gram-negative; this is important because it helps providers choose the right antibiotic to treat an infection

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65
Q

Gram-positive bacteria stain:

A

purple; purple contains more of the letter p and positive starts with a p

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66
Q

Gram-negative bacteria stain:

A

pink; negative doesn’t have a p and pink only has one p

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67
Q

virulence measures:

A

how harmful a bacteria is

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68
Q

what has 9 calories per gram?

A

fat

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69
Q

what has 4 calories per gram? (there are two)

A

carbs and protein

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70
Q

anxiolytic

A

medications used to manage anxiety and promote relaxation

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71
Q

Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a deficiency in:

A

vitamin b12

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72
Q

gallstones

A

cholelithiasis

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73
Q

diaphoretic

A

profuse sweating

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74
Q

hypoxia

A

insufficient oxygen at the tissue level

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75
Q

Anhidrosis

A

lack of sweating

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76
Q

diabetes mellitus

A

a chronic medical condition characterized by high blood sugar levels due to insulin deficiency or resistance

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77
Q

verrucae

A

warts, caused by the HPV virus

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78
Q

Health Belief Model

A

A psychological framework for understanding why people make certain health-related decisions

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79
Q

Liniment

A

A topical preparation (like a special lotion) applied to the skin to relieve pain or stiffness

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80
Q

ascites

A

abnormal fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity

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81
Q

N/C or NC

A

no changes

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82
Q

enteral

A

within the digestive tract

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83
Q

Parenteral

A

NOT within the digestive tract

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84
Q

Melena

A

Refers to dark, tarry stools often indicative of GI bleeding

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85
Q

Hordeolum

A

An acute infection of a sebaceous gland in the eyelid, causing it to become swollen and painful; aka a “STYE”

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86
Q

When can you safely return to work if you have a fever?

A

NO fever for 24 hours without the use of fever-lowering medications

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87
Q

ddx

A

differential diagnosis

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88
Q

macrocytic

A

enlarged red blood cell

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89
Q

GTT

A

glucose tolerance test

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90
Q

nephrectomy

A

surgical removal of a kidney

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91
Q

contralateral

A

opposite side of the body

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92
Q

ipsilateral

A

same side of the body

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93
Q

lateral

A

side of the body; further away from the midline

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94
Q

an emetic is designed to:

A

induce vomiting

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95
Q

tort

A

wrongdoing that causes harm

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96
Q

libel

A

written defamation of character

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97
Q

slander

A

spoken defamation of character

98
Q

What is the RACE acronym for fires?

A

Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish

99
Q

Strabismus

A

misalignment of the eyes

100
Q

ICD-10

A

7 digits; diagnostic codes

101
Q

Volume 1: Tabular List

A

based on disease

102
Q

Volume 2: Instruction Manual

A

provider’s guidance on how to use the ICD-10 coding system

103
Q

Volume 3: Alphabetical Index

A

Volume is organize alphabetically, making it easier to find the code based on the diagnostic terms

104
Q

mainterm

A

primary word or phrase used to describe the diagnosis or condition of the patient

105
Q

Managed Care

A

an umbrella term for plans that provide healthcare in return for preset scheduled payments and coordinated care through a defined network of providers and hospitals. One of the main features of these plans is to control costs and ensure that the services provided are necessary and appropriate. Prior authorizations are a common feature of many managed care plans.

106
Q

Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)

A

has programs available to provide immunizations to those that do not have the financial means to afford them

107
Q

Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

A

provides information and recommendations on vaccinations. No programs to provide them, however.

108
Q

World Health Organization (WHO)

A

global organization that focuses on public health

109
Q

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

sets standards for workplace safety

110
Q

Subluxation

A

Refers to a partial dislocation of a joint, which can cause pain and discomfort

111
Q

How often is a pap smear recommended for patients 21 to 65?

A

every 3 years

112
Q

Accountable Care Organization (ACO)

A

a type of healthcare organization that aims to coordinate and improve the quality of care for Medicare patients while also controlling costs

113
Q

Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)

A

a type of health insurance plan that contracts with a network of healthcare providers to offer services to plan members at discounted rates; patients can see any provider within the plan’s network without a referral, but may pay more for seeing providers outside the network.

114
Q

Health Maintenance Organization (HMOs)

A

a type of insurance plan that requires patients to choose a provider who is responsible for coordinating all of the patient’s healthcare needs. The provider is responsible for referring the patient to specialist and for obtaining a pre-auth for certain procedures, test, and treatments.

115
Q

Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)

A

a model of primary care that is a team-based healthcare delivery model led by a healthcare provider to provide comprehensive and continuous medical care to patients with a goal to obtain maximal health outcomes

116
Q

osteomyelitis

A

an infection of the bone or bone marrow

117
Q

atelectasis

A

a lung condition in which the air spaces in the lung collapse or fail to expand properly

118
Q

What is the correct order of blood draw?

A

Yellow, Light Blue, Red, Gold/Tiger, Green, Lavender, Gray
YOUNG LADY BELL RARELY GETS TO GREET LUCY GRAY

119
Q

cryoprobe

A

a specialized instrument used in cryosurgery, a technique where extreme cold is applied (typically using liquid nitrogen) to destroy abnormal or diseased tissue, such as a cancerous lesion.

120
Q

What is the order of draw for capillary puncture?

A

Blood gases (lithium heparin), Lavender (EDTA), Green (sodium heparin), Other additives (light blue, gray, yellow), Serum Tubes (red and gold)

121
Q

hematocrit

A

volumetric percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood, used to assess anemia (too few RBCs) or polycythemia (too many RBCs)

122
Q

What are the normal hematocrit values?

A

adult men - 41-52%
adult women - 36-46%

123
Q

blood cultures

A

tests that detect the presence of micro-organisms (like bacteria or fungi) in a blood sample. These tests aid in diagnosing bloodstream infections

124
Q

hemoglobin

A

a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and transports carbon dioxide back to the lungs

125
Q

Normal range of hemoglobin in males is typically between

A

13 to 18 g/dL

126
Q

Blind carbon copy (BCC)

A

a feature in email that allows the sender to send a copy of an email to different recipients without the other recipients seeing the other email addresses.

127
Q

differential diagnosis

A

a set of possible conditions that could be causing a patient’s symptoms

128
Q

Full block format

A

Every part of the business letter is left-aligned, including the sender and receiver addresses (no indentations); new paragraphs are indicated by skipping a line

129
Q

Modified block format

A

Sender’s address, date, complimentary closing, signature is center-aligned; otherwise follows the same format as full block

130
Q

Semi block format

A

Paragraphs have indentations; otherwise follows the same format as full block

131
Q

Simplified style

A

All text left-aligned; salutation omitted; subject line is all caps and placed between the address and body of the letter; complimentary closing omitted and signature is typed in all capital letters

132
Q

What should the MA do when preparing liquid medication?

A

Make sure the medicine is at eye level when measuring; measure from the BOTTOM of the meniscus, not the top.

133
Q

837P/CMS-1500 FORM

A

A standard claim form used by healthcare providers to bill for services rendered; 837P refers to the electronic version

134
Q

What must be present on the 837P/CMS-1500 FORM?

A

Provider’s SSN or EIN must be included

135
Q

What modulates the body’s temperature?

A

Hypothalamus

136
Q

The thymus is located in the thorax and is involved in?

A

The immune system

137
Q

The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland involved in?

A

production of a number of hormones that regulate various bodily functions

138
Q

The thyroid gland is located in the neck and involved in?

A

producing hormones that regulate the body’s metabolism

139
Q

When taking a blood pressure, ensure that the cuff encircles what percentage of the patient’s arm?

A

80%

140
Q

The lower edge of the BP cuff should be located where?

A

1 inch above the antecubital space

141
Q

A partial-thickness burn is:

A

a type of burn injury that affects the top layer of skin and part of the dermis second layer of skin (but not all the way down to SQ tissue - which would be a full-thickness burn)

142
Q

Nonadherent dressing

A

A type of dressing that DOES NOT stick to the wound. It allows the wound to be exposed to air, which promotes healing.

143
Q

A lubricated mesh gauze is a type of gauze that:

A

contains petroleum jelly (aka vaseline, a lubricant); typically used for full-thickness burns. Not appropriate for partial-thickness burns b/c it can trap bacteria and impede the healing process.

144
Q

Gauze dressings:

A

adhere to burns and can therefore impede healing of partial-thickness burns.

145
Q

wound closure strips (aka steri strips):

A

are used to physically close wounds and approximate the edges of a wound. Not to be used on partial thickness burns b/c they can stick to the burn and impede the healing process.

146
Q

Specific gravity of urine measures:

A

how concentrated the urine is

147
Q

Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted to humans through:

A

the bite of infected ticks

148
Q

The best time to collect a urine sample for measuring hormone levels is the:

A

first void in the morning

149
Q

Where are alternative sites to obtain a pulse oximetry reading for a patient with alternative nails?

A

Earlobe, Toe

150
Q

When taking a BP, position the diaphragm of the stethoscope over the patient’s:

A

palpated brachial artery

151
Q

Hemolysis is:

A

the breakdown of red blood cells

152
Q

Needle gauges greater than ___ have a higher chance of causing hemolysis during venipuncture.

A

25

153
Q

Scabies is a skin infection caused by a type of ____. It is transmitted through ___ ___.

A

mite, which causes intense itching and a rash; direct skin contact

154
Q

EKG artifacts - AC interference (CONSISTENT THICK AND FUZZY TRACING)

A

AKA 60-cycle interference, this occurs when there is an ELECTRICAL interference from other electrical equipment in the exam room, the patient is too close to the wall (where electrical runs through), or there is no proper grounding of the right leg electrode.

155
Q

EKG artifacts - Somatic tremor artifact (JAGGED PEAKS WITH IRREGULAR HEIGHT AND SPACING)

A

This occurs when the patient is moving. Both voluntary movement or involuntary movement can lead to a somatic tremor artifact. No moving = no chewing gum or food during the test, shivering, Parkinson’s disease

156
Q

EKG artifacts - Wandering baseline (TRACING THAT WANDERS AWAY FROM THE CENTER OF THE PAPER)

A

This is caused by a poorly attached electrode, defective electrodes, wire issues, electrodes applied too loosely, dirty leads, poor gel paste, unclean skin, or anything that interferes with electrical impulse transmission. If a patient moves and this creates tension on the leads, the tension component can also lead to a wandering baseline artifact.

157
Q

EKG artifacts - Interrupted baseline (SUDDEN DISRUPTION OF TRACING)

A

This is caused by a disconnected electrode.

158
Q

Whole grain foods are a great source of:

A

fiber

159
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune condition that primarily affects:

A

Women; Caucasians are LEAST likely to be affected than other ethnicities.

160
Q

Eating a recent heavy meal may interfere with what kind of test?

A

Pulmonary Function Test (PFT)

161
Q

How long to fast before a lipid panel?

A

8-12 hours

162
Q

Hydrogen peroxide is most commonly used to clean:

A

wounds and incision sites

163
Q

The standard speed for EKG paper is:

A

25 mm per second

164
Q

Active listening is the process of:

A

fully attending to and understanding the person speaking; paraphrasing is one way of doing this.

165
Q

Normal BPM for a toddler? (1-2 y/o)

A

98-140

166
Q

Normal BMP for a preschooler? (3-5 y/o)

A

80-120

167
Q

School age (6 to 15 years)

A

75 to 118

168
Q

Adult (15+ years)

A

60 to 100

169
Q

Newborn/infant (0 to 1 year)

A

100 to 180

170
Q

The Light Blue tube is used for:

A

coagulation studies, including PT/INR, D-dimer, PT, PTT, platelet counts, and fibrinogen

171
Q

What is the additive in the light blue tube?

A

Sodium citrate (anticoagulation)

172
Q

What is the yellow tube used for and what is the additive in it?

A

Blood cultures; sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)

173
Q

Wiping ___ to ___ is important to avoid introducing bacteria from the rectum area into the urethra.

A

superior to inferior

174
Q

The usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) fee is a term used to refer to:

A

the amount accepted by a third-party payer for medical services in a geographical area, based on what providers in the area usually charge for the same or similar services.

175
Q

HbA1c is a blood test that measures:

A

the average blood sugar level over the past two to three months. It is a routine test used in the monitoring of patients with type 2 diabetes.

176
Q

Capitation is a payment method in which a healthcare provider is paid:

A

a fixed amount per patient assigned to them, regardless of services provided

177
Q

Describe the BASAL STATE.

A

Refers to a patient in a normal resting state. Patient is free from stressors and physical activity and their body is in a state of balance and equilibrium. A patient is in the basal state in the early morning approximately 12 hours after the last ingestion of food.

178
Q

What is the most likely cause of spots on instruments removed from an autoclave?

A

Mineral deposits

179
Q

A goiter is:

A

an enlarged thyroid gland, which can be caused by both hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid) and hyperthyroidism (overactive thyroid).

180
Q

The thymus gland is located:

A

in the thorax and is part of the immune system

181
Q

The adrenal glands are located:

A

above the kidneys and produce hormones

182
Q

The pituitary gland, also known as the “master gland”, is located:

A

at the base of the brain and produces hormones that regulate growth and other physiological functions

183
Q

When administering a subcutaneous injection to an obese patient, it is important to use what angle?

A

90 degrees

184
Q

define osteomalacia

A

a medical condition that is characterized by weak bones due to a deficiency in vitamin D. This can lead to an increased risk of fractures and bone deformities

185
Q

osteoporosis =

A

decreased bone mass, more common in older women

186
Q

The coronal plane divides the body into:

A

anterior and posterior portions; this is known as the frontal plane

187
Q

The axial plane dives the body into:

A

superior and inferior portions; aka horizontal or transverse plane

188
Q

The sagittal plane divides the body into:

A

left and right portions; aka the longitudinal plane

189
Q

OSHA form 301 is:

A

the injury and illness incident report; used to track workplace injuries and illnesses and help identify patterns and trends that may be addressed to prevent future incidents

190
Q

Category II CPT codes:

A

track specific quality measures or performance data

191
Q

Crohn’s disease is:

A

a chronic inflammatory bowel disease; characterized by inflammation and irritation of the lining of the digestive tract, which can lead to abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. Family hx is a significant risk factor.

192
Q

Metabolism of drugs refers to the chemical processes that the body uses to:

A

break down and eliminate medications; these processes are carried out primarily by enzymes in the LIVER.

193
Q

Absorption refers to the process by which:

A

medications are taken up by the body after they are ingested, from the bloodstream into target tissues.

194
Q

Excretion:

A

Kidneys/urinary system

195
Q

Helminths are:

A

worms that are parasites found within humans and animals; a PINWORM is a type of helminth

196
Q

Bacteria and protozoa are:

A

single-celled microbes that can cause disease

197
Q

fungi:

A

includes yeasts and molds; characterized by their ability to produce spores

198
Q

BEFORE starting venipuncture, an MA should:

A

check the seal on the needle to ensure that it is intact and that the needle has not been damaged or contaminated.

199
Q

DABDA helps you remember what process?

A

5 stages of grief - Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

200
Q

The medial or lateral areas of the heel are the preferred location for:

A

a capillary puncture in infants; this is because the tissue is thick enough to provide a good sample but not too difficult to puncture.

201
Q

Remittent fever:

A

has fluctuations above the normal temperature but does NOT return to normal between spikes. It is a type of continuous fever.

202
Q

Intermittent fever:

A

A fever that comes and goes, with periods of normal body temp in between periods of fever

203
Q

Continuous fever:

A

a fever that persists at a high level for an extended period of time and does not fluctuate

204
Q

Spiking fever:

A

a fever that spikes quickly to a high temperature and then falls, returning to normal

205
Q

ST segment elevation on an EKG is a hallmark sign of a:

A

myocardial infarction (heart attack)

206
Q

Purchase order:

A

a formal document that serves as a request to purchase items and is used for tracking expenses and inventory

207
Q

The apical pulse refers to:

A

the heartbeat detected at the apex of the heart. Used on infants.

208
Q

Icd-10 coding system is divided into three volumes:

A
  1. Tabular list (chapters based on DISEASE); 2. Instruction Manual (guidance on how to use the coding system); 3. Alphabetical Index (volume organized alphabetically).
209
Q

Accountings receivable:

A

refers to the outstanding payments owed by the patient for services provided.

210
Q

Allowed amount:

A

Maximum amount that an insurance company will pay for a particular medical service

211
Q

Accounts payable:

A

an expense account that tracks the money owed by the clinic to vendors for goods and services rendered.

212
Q

bld

A

blood

213
Q

What should an MA do prior to collecting a BLOOD CULTURE sample?

A

Scrub the site with alcohol for 1 minute using back and forth strokes

214
Q

hemoconcentration:

A

an increase in the concentration of blood components (cells and proteins) in the plasma

215
Q

hemolysis

A

the rupture of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the surrounding fluid

216
Q

What technique minimizes the risk of hemolysis?

A

Allow alcohol to completely air dry on the insertion site

217
Q

Each small square on an ECG represents how many seconds?

A

0.04

218
Q

Each large square on an ECG represents how many seconds?

A

0.20

219
Q

What does the P wave represent on an ECG?

A

atrial depolarization

220
Q

What does the QRS complex measure on an ECG?

A

ventricular depolarization

221
Q

What does the T wave represent on an ECG?

A

ventricular repolarization

222
Q

What is a normal QRS complex?

A

less than 0.12 seconds

223
Q

How many P waves should there be for every QRS complex?

A

1

224
Q

How long does a P wave last?

A

between 0.6 to 0.12 seconds

225
Q

How long does a normal T wave last?

A

0.16 seconds

226
Q

Sinus bradycardia is characterized by a heart rate of:

A

less then 60 bpm

227
Q

Sinus tachycardia is characterized by a heart rate of:

A

greater than 100 bpm

228
Q

The absence of a P wave may indicate:

A

atrial fibrillation or sinoatrial arrest

229
Q

A normal ECG has one upright and rounded __ wave before every QRS complex.

A

P wave

230
Q

A PR interval indicates:

A

AV conduction time

231
Q

To measure the PR interval:

A

Start from the beginning of the P wave and mark until the beginning of the QRS complex; normally, this interval should be between 0.12 to 0.20 seconds

232
Q

The PR interval shortens with:

A

increased heart rate

233
Q

Measure the QRS complex from:

A

The end of the PR interval to the end of the S wave. Normally, this interval should be between 0.06 to .12 seconds.

234
Q

A regular rhythm is characterized by:

A

The same duration between each R-R interval.

235
Q

What is a unique ECG feature that you’ll see in atrial fibrillation?

A

No P wave, No PR interval, variable atrial and ventricular rates

236
Q

What are causes of sinus tachycardia?

A

Anemia, hyperthyroidism, heart failure, anxiety, fear, fever, exercise, pain

237
Q

What medications can cause sinus tachycardia?

A

epinephrine (Adrenaline), norepinephrine (Levophed), theophylline (TheoDur), hydralazine (Aprresoline), and OTC cold remedies (pseudoephedrine (Sudafed))

238
Q

The SA (sinoatrial) node

A

generates an electrical signal that causes the upper heart chambers (atria) to contract.

239
Q

Vagal maneuvers may be taught to:

A

inhibit the vagus nerve to slow down the heart rate

240
Q
A

Psychology (6 decks)

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