CCMA Practice Test Flashcards
1
Q
Negligence
A
failure to take reasonable care, resulting in harm to another person
2
Q
What are the four D’s of negligence?
A
Duty, breach of duty, direct causation, damages
3
Q
What is the RACE acronym for fires?
A
Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish
4
Q
What is the preferred site for an IM injection for an infant or child up to age 3?
A
Vastus Lateralis
5
Q
What are the five rights of medication administration?
A
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time
6
Q
Skin rash, swelling, difficulty breathing, urticaria (hives), and anaphylaxis are all examples of what type of reaction?
A
allergic reaction
7
Q
Suppuration
A
production of pus in an infected area
8
Q
Glycosuria
A
presence of sugar (glucose) in the urine
9
Q
hematoma
A
collection of blood outside of the blood vessels; presents as bruising and sometimes swelling
10
Q
goniometer
A
instrument used to measure the range of motion of a joint in a single plane
11
Q
cytobrush
A
a small brush used to collect cells from the cervix during a Pap test
12
Q
tonometer
A
an instrument used to measure the intraocular pressure of the eye to diagnose glaucoma
13
Q
vs
A
vital signs
14
Q
hct
A
hematocrit
15
Q
hands placed on throat is a universal sign of:
A
choking
16
Q
Seizures involve involuntary muscle movements and are a symptom of what kind of disorder?
A
neurological
17
Q
A choking patient is often ____.
A
silent
18
Q
spirometry
A
diagnostic test conducted using a spirometer to assess lung function by measuring the volume and flow of air during inhalation and exhalation
19
Q
Neurologist
A
specializes in the nervous system; They focus on conditions affecting the brain, spinal cord, and nerves
20
Q
The Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) model is a healthcare model that focuses on providing coordinated and comprehensive care to patients in a primary care setting. The main principle is:
A
the active engagement and involvement of patients in their own care; this is considered shared decision making
21
Q
Accountable Care Organization (ACO):
A
a type of healthcare organization that aims to coordinate and improve the quality of care for Medicare patients while also controlling costs
22
Q
ac
A
before meals
23
Q
pc
A
after meals
24
Q
qid
A
four times daily
25
qh
every hour
26
qd
every day
27
pr
rectally
28
pv
vaginally
29
opth
in the eye
30
gtt
drops
31
sol
solution
32
tab
tablet
33
tbsp
tablespoon
34
qs
as much as is needed
35
sig
write (on the label)
36
supp
suppository (in the rectum)
37
sl
sublingual (under the tongue)
38
top
topical
39
Administration
The process by which a drug is introduced into the body
40
Absorption
The process by which a drug enters the bloodstream after administration
41
Distribution
The process by which a drug is transported throughout the body via the circulatory system
42
Metabolism
The process by which the body breaks down a drug into smaller components, making it easier to eliminate from the body
43
Elimination
The process by which a drug and its metabolites are eliminated from the body
44
hemoptysis
coughing up blood from the respiratory tract
45
hematemesis
vomiting blood
46
amenorrhea
absence of a menstrual period
47
tardive
slow onset of symptoms
48
nosocomial
refers to infections acquired in a healthcare setting
49
Ischemia
refers to the restriction of oxygen-rich blood to a part of the body, leading to reduced tissue oxygenation. It can result in cell damage or death if not resolved.
50
hypertrophy
enlargement of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the size of its cells
51
hypotrophy
refers to the underdevelopment of a tissue or organ
52
necrosis
death of cells or tissues; ischemia can LEAD TO necrosis, but they are not the same; ischemia is a condition, while necrosis is an outcome.
53
What are the fat-soluble vitamins? Hint: remember the pneumonic "All Dogs Eat Kibble"
A, D, E, K; all other vitamins are water-soluble
54
petechiae present as little red, purple, or brown spots; what causes this?
Ruptured capillaries
55
What are the 5 states of grief? (Hint: DABDA)
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
56
Active immunity = self-produced antibodies; they are long-term. What is an example of this?
Vaccine against the flu
57
Passive immunity = Antibodies received from another individual; they are short-term. What is an example of this?
Mother-to-infant breast milk
58
Cross immunity occurs when immunity to one pathogen provides some level of protection against another, unrelated pathogen. What is an example of this?
Prior flu infection provides some protection against a new strain
59
Innate immunity is the body's natural, non-specific defense mechanism. What is an example of this?
Stomach acid breaks down food-borne pathogens
60
The preferred method for prescribing controlled substances is through:
an electronic prescription via authorized software like EPCS
61
nsf
no significant findings
62
pe
physical examination
63
inches to centimeters:
multiply by 2.54
64
gram staining is a simple lab test that tells providers if bacteria are:
Gram-positive or Gram-negative; this is important because it helps providers choose the right antibiotic to treat an infection
65
Gram-positive bacteria stain:
purple; purple contains more of the letter p and positive starts with a p
66
Gram-negative bacteria stain:
pink; negative doesn't have a p and pink only has one p
67
virulence measures:
how harmful a bacteria is
68
what has 9 calories per gram?
fat
69
what has 4 calories per gram? (there are two)
carbs and protein
70
anxiolytic
medications used to manage anxiety and promote relaxation
71
Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a deficiency in:
vitamin b12
72
gallstones
cholelithiasis
73
diaphoretic
profuse sweating
74
hypoxia
insufficient oxygen at the tissue level
75
Anhidrosis
lack of sweating
76
diabetes mellitus
a chronic medical condition characterized by high blood sugar levels due to insulin deficiency or resistance
77
verrucae
warts, caused by the HPV virus
78
Health Belief Model
A psychological framework for understanding why people make certain health-related decisions
79
Liniment
A topical preparation (like a special lotion) applied to the skin to relieve pain or stiffness
80
ascites
abnormal fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity
81
N/C or NC
no changes
82
enteral
within the digestive tract
83
Parenteral
NOT within the digestive tract
84
Melena
Refers to dark, tarry stools often indicative of GI bleeding
85
Hordeolum
An acute infection of a sebaceous gland in the eyelid, causing it to become swollen and painful; aka a "STYE"
86
When can you safely return to work if you have a fever?
NO fever for 24 hours without the use of fever-lowering medications
87
ddx
differential diagnosis
88
macrocytic
enlarged red blood cell
89
GTT
glucose tolerance test
90
nephrectomy
surgical removal of a kidney
91
contralateral
opposite side of the body
92
ipsilateral
same side of the body
93
lateral
side of the body; further away from the midline
94
an emetic is designed to:
induce vomiting
95
tort
wrongdoing that causes harm
96
libel
written defamation of character
97
slander
spoken defamation of character
98
What is the RACE acronym for fires?
Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish
99
Strabismus
misalignment of the eyes
100
ICD-10
7 digits; diagnostic codes
101
Volume 1: Tabular List
based on disease
102
Volume 2: Instruction Manual
provider's guidance on how to use the ICD-10 coding system
103
Volume 3: Alphabetical Index
Volume is organize alphabetically, making it easier to find the code based on the diagnostic terms
104
mainterm
primary word or phrase used to describe the diagnosis or condition of the patient
105
Managed Care
an umbrella term for plans that provide healthcare in return for preset scheduled payments and coordinated care through a defined network of providers and hospitals. One of the main features of these plans is to control costs and ensure that the services provided are necessary and appropriate. Prior authorizations are a common feature of many managed care plans.
106
Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
has programs available to provide immunizations to those that do not have the financial means to afford them
107
Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
provides information and recommendations on vaccinations. No programs to provide them, however.
108
World Health Organization (WHO)
global organization that focuses on public health
109
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
sets standards for workplace safety
110
Subluxation
Refers to a partial dislocation of a joint, which can cause pain and discomfort
111
How often is a pap smear recommended for patients 21 to 65?
every 3 years
112
Accountable Care Organization (ACO)
a type of healthcare organization that aims to coordinate and improve the quality of care for Medicare patients while also controlling costs
113
Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
a type of health insurance plan that contracts with a network of healthcare providers to offer services to plan members at discounted rates; patients can see any provider within the plan's network without a referral, but may pay more for seeing providers outside the network.
114
Health Maintenance Organization (HMOs)
a type of insurance plan that requires patients to choose a provider who is responsible for coordinating all of the patient's healthcare needs. The provider is responsible for referring the patient to specialist and for obtaining a pre-auth for certain procedures, test, and treatments.
115
Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)
a model of primary care that is a team-based healthcare delivery model led by a healthcare provider to provide comprehensive and continuous medical care to patients with a goal to obtain maximal health outcomes
116
osteomyelitis
an infection of the bone or bone marrow
117
atelectasis
a lung condition in which the air spaces in the lung collapse or fail to expand properly
118
What is the correct order of blood draw?
Yellow, Light Blue, Red, Gold/Tiger, Green, Lavender, Gray
**YOUNG LADY BELL RARELY GETS TO GREET LUCY GRAY**
119
cryoprobe
a specialized instrument used in cryosurgery, a technique where extreme cold is applied (typically using liquid nitrogen) to destroy abnormal or diseased tissue, such as a cancerous lesion.
120
What is the order of draw for capillary puncture?
Blood gases (lithium heparin), Lavender (EDTA), Green (sodium heparin), Other additives (light blue, gray, yellow), Serum Tubes (red and gold)
121
hematocrit
volumetric percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood, used to assess anemia (too few RBCs) or polycythemia (too many RBCs)
122
What are the normal hematocrit values?
adult men - 41-52%
adult women - 36-46%
123
blood cultures
tests that detect the presence of micro-organisms (like bacteria or fungi) in a blood sample. These tests aid in diagnosing bloodstream infections
124
hemoglobin
a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and transports carbon dioxide back to the lungs
125
Normal range of hemoglobin in males is typically between
13 to 18 g/dL
126
Blind carbon copy (BCC)
a feature in email that allows the sender to send a copy of an email to different recipients without the other recipients seeing the other email addresses.
127
differential diagnosis
a set of possible conditions that could be causing a patient's symptoms
128
Full block format
Every part of the business letter is left-aligned, including the sender and receiver addresses (no indentations); new paragraphs are indicated by skipping a line
129
Modified block format
Sender's address, date, complimentary closing, signature is center-aligned; otherwise follows the same format as full block
130
Semi block format
Paragraphs have indentations; otherwise follows the same format as full block
131
Simplified style
All text left-aligned; salutation omitted; subject line is all caps and placed between the address and body of the letter; complimentary closing omitted and signature is typed in all capital letters
132
What should the MA do when preparing liquid medication?
Make sure the medicine is at eye level when measuring; measure from the BOTTOM of the meniscus, not the top.
133
837P/CMS-1500 FORM
A standard claim form used by healthcare providers to bill for services rendered; 837P refers to the electronic version
134
What must be present on the 837P/CMS-1500 FORM?
Provider's SSN or EIN must be included
135
What modulates the body's temperature?
Hypothalamus
136
The thymus is located in the thorax and is involved in?
The immune system
137
The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland involved in?
production of a number of hormones that regulate various bodily functions
138
The thyroid gland is located in the neck and involved in?
producing hormones that regulate the body's metabolism
139
When taking a blood pressure, ensure that the cuff encircles what percentage of the patient's arm?
80%
140
The lower edge of the BP cuff should be located where?
1 inch above the antecubital space
141
A partial-thickness burn is:
a type of burn injury that affects the top layer of skin and part of the dermis second layer of skin (but not all the way down to SQ tissue - which would be a full-thickness burn)
142
Nonadherent dressing
A type of dressing that DOES NOT stick to the wound. It allows the wound to be exposed to air, which promotes healing.
143
A lubricated mesh gauze is a type of gauze that:
contains petroleum jelly (aka vaseline, a lubricant); typically used for full-thickness burns. Not appropriate for partial-thickness burns b/c it can trap bacteria and impede the healing process.
144
Gauze dressings:
adhere to burns and can therefore impede healing of partial-thickness burns.
145
wound closure strips (aka steri strips):
are used to physically close wounds and approximate the edges of a wound. Not to be used on partial thickness burns b/c they can stick to the burn and impede the healing process.
146
Specific gravity of urine measures:
how concentrated the urine is
147
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted to humans through:
the bite of infected ticks
148
The best time to collect a urine sample for measuring hormone levels is the:
first void in the morning
149
Where are alternative sites to obtain a pulse oximetry reading for a patient with alternative nails?
Earlobe, Toe
150
When taking a BP, position the diaphragm of the stethoscope over the patient's:
palpated brachial artery
151
Hemolysis is:
the breakdown of red blood cells
152
Needle gauges greater than ___ have a higher chance of causing hemolysis during venipuncture.
25
153
Scabies is a skin infection caused by a type of ____. It is transmitted through ___ ___.
mite, which causes intense itching and a rash; direct skin contact
154
EKG artifacts - AC interference (CONSISTENT THICK AND FUZZY TRACING)
AKA 60-cycle interference, this occurs when there is an ELECTRICAL interference from other electrical equipment in the exam room, the patient is too close to the wall (where electrical runs through), or there is no proper grounding of the right leg electrode.
155
EKG artifacts - Somatic tremor artifact (JAGGED PEAKS WITH IRREGULAR HEIGHT AND SPACING)
This occurs when the patient is moving. Both voluntary movement or involuntary movement can lead to a somatic tremor artifact. No moving = no chewing gum or food during the test, shivering, Parkinson's disease
156
EKG artifacts - Wandering baseline (TRACING THAT WANDERS AWAY FROM THE CENTER OF THE PAPER)
This is caused by a poorly attached electrode, defective electrodes, wire issues, electrodes applied too loosely, dirty leads, poor gel paste, unclean skin, or anything that interferes with electrical impulse transmission. If a patient moves and this creates tension on the leads, the tension component can also lead to a wandering baseline artifact.
157
EKG artifacts - Interrupted baseline (SUDDEN DISRUPTION OF TRACING)
This is caused by a disconnected electrode.
158
Whole grain foods are a great source of:
fiber
159
Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune condition that primarily affects:
Women; Caucasians are LEAST likely to be affected than other ethnicities.
160
Eating a recent heavy meal may interfere with what kind of test?
Pulmonary Function Test (PFT)
161
How long to fast before a lipid panel?
8-12 hours
162
Hydrogen peroxide is most commonly used to clean:
wounds and incision sites
163
The standard speed for EKG paper is:
25 mm per second
164
Active listening is the process of:
fully attending to and understanding the person speaking; paraphrasing is one way of doing this.
165
Normal BPM for a toddler? (1-2 y/o)
98-140
166
Normal BMP for a preschooler? (3-5 y/o)
80-120
167
School age (6 to 15 years)
75 to 118
168
Adult (15+ years)
60 to 100
169
Newborn/infant (0 to 1 year)
100 to 180
170
The Light Blue tube is used for:
coagulation studies, including PT/INR, D-dimer, PT, PTT, platelet counts, and fibrinogen
171
What is the additive in the light blue tube?
Sodium citrate (anticoagulation)
172
What is the yellow tube used for and what is the additive in it?
Blood cultures; sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)
173
Wiping ___ to ___ is important to avoid introducing bacteria from the rectum area into the urethra.
superior to inferior
174
The usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) fee is a term used to refer to:
the amount accepted by a third-party payer for medical services in a geographical area, based on what providers in the area usually charge for the same or similar services.
175
HbA1c is a blood test that measures:
the average blood sugar level over the past two to three months. It is a routine test used in the monitoring of patients with type 2 diabetes.
176
Capitation is a payment method in which a healthcare provider is paid:
a fixed amount per patient assigned to them, regardless of services provided
177
Describe the BASAL STATE.
Refers to a patient in a normal resting state. Patient is free from stressors and physical activity and their body is in a state of balance and equilibrium. A patient is in the basal state in the early morning approximately 12 hours after the last ingestion of food.
178
What is the most likely cause of spots on instruments removed from an autoclave?
Mineral deposits
179
A goiter is:
an enlarged thyroid gland, which can be caused by both hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid) and hyperthyroidism (overactive thyroid).
180
The thymus gland is located:
in the thorax and is part of the immune system
181
The adrenal glands are located:
above the kidneys and produce hormones
182
The pituitary gland, also known as the "master gland", is located:
at the base of the brain and produces hormones that regulate growth and other physiological functions
183
When administering a subcutaneous injection to an obese patient, it is important to use what angle?
90 degrees
184
define osteomalacia
a medical condition that is characterized by weak bones due to a deficiency in vitamin D. This can lead to an increased risk of fractures and bone deformities
185
osteoporosis =
decreased bone mass, more common in older women
186
The coronal plane divides the body into:
anterior and posterior portions; this is known as the frontal plane
187
The axial plane dives the body into:
superior and inferior portions; aka horizontal or transverse plane
188
The sagittal plane divides the body into:
left and right portions; aka the longitudinal plane
189
OSHA form 301 is:
the injury and illness incident report; used to track workplace injuries and illnesses and help identify patterns and trends that may be addressed to prevent future incidents
190
Category II CPT codes:
track specific quality measures or performance data
191
Crohn's disease is:
a chronic inflammatory bowel disease; characterized by inflammation and irritation of the lining of the digestive tract, which can lead to abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. Family hx is a significant risk factor.
192
Metabolism of drugs refers to the chemical processes that the body uses to:
break down and eliminate medications; these processes are carried out primarily by enzymes in the LIVER.
193
Absorption refers to the process by which:
medications are taken up by the body after they are ingested, from the bloodstream into target tissues.
194
Excretion:
Kidneys/urinary system
195
Helminths are:
worms that are parasites found within humans and animals; a PINWORM is a type of helminth
196
Bacteria and protozoa are:
single-celled microbes that can cause disease
197
fungi:
includes yeasts and molds; characterized by their ability to produce spores
198
BEFORE starting venipuncture, an MA should:
check the seal on the needle to ensure that it is intact and that the needle has not been damaged or contaminated.
199
DABDA helps you remember what process?
5 stages of grief - Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance
200
The medial or lateral areas of the heel are the preferred location for:
a capillary puncture in infants; this is because the tissue is thick enough to provide a good sample but not too difficult to puncture.
201
Remittent fever:
has fluctuations above the normal temperature but does NOT return to normal between spikes. It is a type of continuous fever.
202
Intermittent fever:
A fever that comes and goes, with periods of normal body temp in between periods of fever
203
Continuous fever:
a fever that persists at a high level for an extended period of time and does not fluctuate
204
Spiking fever:
a fever that spikes quickly to a high temperature and then falls, returning to normal
205
ST segment elevation on an EKG is a hallmark sign of a:
myocardial infarction (heart attack)
206
Purchase order:
a formal document that serves as a request to purchase items and is used for tracking expenses and inventory
207
The apical pulse refers to:
the heartbeat detected at the apex of the heart. Used on infants.
208
Icd-10 coding system is divided into three volumes:
1. Tabular list (chapters based on DISEASE); 2. Instruction Manual (guidance on how to use the coding system); 3. Alphabetical Index (volume organized alphabetically).
209
Accountings receivable:
refers to the outstanding payments owed by the patient for services provided.
210
Allowed amount:
Maximum amount that an insurance company will pay for a particular medical service
211
Accounts payable:
an expense account that tracks the money owed by the clinic to vendors for goods and services rendered.
212
bld
blood
213
What should an MA do prior to collecting a BLOOD CULTURE sample?
Scrub the site with alcohol for 1 minute using back and forth strokes
214
hemoconcentration:
an increase in the concentration of blood components (cells and proteins) in the plasma
215
hemolysis
the rupture of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the surrounding fluid
216
What technique minimizes the risk of hemolysis?
Allow alcohol to completely air dry on the insertion site
217
Each small square on an ECG represents how many seconds?
0.04
218
Each large square on an ECG represents how many seconds?
0.20
219
What does the P wave represent on an ECG?
atrial depolarization
220
What does the QRS complex measure on an ECG?
ventricular depolarization
221
What does the T wave represent on an ECG?
ventricular repolarization
222
What is a normal QRS complex?
less than 0.12 seconds
223
How many P waves should there be for every QRS complex?
1
224
How long does a P wave last?
between 0.6 to 0.12 seconds
225
How long does a normal T wave last?
0.16 seconds
226
Sinus bradycardia is characterized by a heart rate of:
less then 60 bpm
227
Sinus tachycardia is characterized by a heart rate of:
greater than 100 bpm
228
The absence of a P wave may indicate:
atrial fibrillation or sinoatrial arrest
229
A normal ECG has one upright and rounded __ wave before every QRS complex.
P wave
230
A PR interval indicates:
AV conduction time
231
To measure the PR interval:
Start from the beginning of the P wave and mark until the beginning of the QRS complex; normally, this interval should be between 0.12 to 0.20 seconds
232
The PR interval shortens with:
increased heart rate
233
Measure the QRS complex from:
The end of the PR interval to the end of the S wave. Normally, this interval should be between 0.06 to .12 seconds.
234
A regular rhythm is characterized by:
The same duration between each R-R interval.
235
What is a unique ECG feature that you'll see in atrial fibrillation?
No P wave, No PR interval, variable atrial and ventricular rates
236
What are causes of sinus tachycardia?
Anemia, hyperthyroidism, heart failure, anxiety, fear, fever, exercise, pain
237
What medications can cause sinus tachycardia?
epinephrine (Adrenaline), norepinephrine (Levophed), theophylline (TheoDur), hydralazine (Aprresoline), and OTC cold remedies (pseudoephedrine (Sudafed))
238
The SA (sinoatrial) node
generates an electrical signal that causes the upper heart chambers (atria) to contract.
239
Vagal maneuvers may be taught to:
inhibit the vagus nerve to slow down the heart rate
240
