CCMA high yield questions (free) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What does the P wave represent on an EKG?

A

atrial depolarization; this is when the atria contract

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2
Q

What does the QRS wave complex represent on an EKG?

A

ventricular depolarization; this is when the ventricles contract

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3
Q

What does the T wave represent on an EKG?

A

ventricular repolarization; this is when the ventricles relax

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4
Q

What does the U wave represent on an EKG?

A

This is often not seen on an EKG; it represents further repolarization of the ventricles

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5
Q

The atria are the two ___ chambers of the heart.

A

upper

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6
Q

The ventricles are the two ___ chambers of the heart.

A

lower

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7
Q

Define cluster scheduling and provide an example.

A

Similar patients grouped for appointments; for example, all immunizations booked on Wednesday afternoons each week.

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8
Q

Define open hours schedule and provide an example.

A

Patients are seen in the order of arrival during set hours, no scheduled appointments. Ex: walk in clinic.

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9
Q

Define wave scheduling and provide an example.

A

Multiple patients are booked at one time (a “wave” of patients), seen in order of arrival. Ex: 5 patients are booked at the beginning of each hour.

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10
Q

Define modified wave scheduling and provide an example.

A

More patients are scheduled at beginning of a wave, fewer patients are scheduled towards the end of a wave. Ex: 3 patients are booked at the beginning of the hour and 2 patients are booked 30 minutes later, each hour.

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11
Q

What does the acronym SOAP stand for?

A

subjective, objective, assessment, plan

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12
Q

When setting up a sterile field, what is necessary to avoid contamination?

A

Do not reach over the sterile field.

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13
Q

When opening a sterile pack, the final flap should be opened ___ the body to maintain sterility.

A

Toward

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14
Q

Describe the proper sterile flap opening.

A

First flap - away from the body
Last flap - toward the body

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15
Q

Sterile items should be kept ___ or ___ waist level and in sight to prevent contamination.

A

At; above

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16
Q

Sterile items should be placed at the ___ of the sterile field.

A

Center

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17
Q

If the sterile drape does not cover the entire surface, a ___-inch margin around the edge of the drape is considered unsterile.

A

1

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18
Q

Describe the lithotomy position.

A

The patient lying on their back with their feet supported by stirrups. Used for pelvic exams.

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19
Q

Describe the Semi-Fowler’s position.

A

The head and upper body are elevated at an angle of 15-45 degrees (30 degrees is common). This position is used for patients who need to be elevated for comfort or who have difficulty breathing.

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20
Q

Describe the High Fowler’s position.

A

Bed that is elevated to an angle of 90 degrees (patient is seated fully upright). Often used for patients who are having significant trouble breathing, such as those with COPD.

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21
Q

Describe the left lateral position.

A

Formerly referred to as Sims’. Patient is lying on the left side, the left hip and left leg are straight, and the right hip and right knee are bent. Used for rectal exams.

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22
Q

Describe the supine position.

A

Patient lying on their back with their arms by their sides. Used for general exams or procedures.

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23
Q

Describe HMO’s (health maintenance organizations).

A

Requires a patient to choose a PCP and receive referrals for specialist care, but generally has lower out-of-pocket costs.

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24
Q

Describe PPO’s (preferred provider organization).

A

Offers more flexibility in choosing healthcare providers, but may come with higher out-of-pocket costs.

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25
Q

Describe implied consent.

A

The assumption of permission to do something that is understood from an individual’s actions rather than directly stated.

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26
Q

Describe explicit consent.

A

When the patient gives clear and specific permission for a medical treatment (verbal, written)

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27
Q

When you hear of congestive heart failure (CHF), what are the symptoms you will see?

A

Edema (swelling), particularly of the lower legs; shortness of breath, difficulty breathing; fatigued.

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28
Q

Describe angina.

A

Chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. This is a result of atherosclerosis (plaque buildup in the arteries).

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29
Q

Describe syncope.

A

Fainting or temporary loss of consciousness. Caused by temporary reduction in blood flow to the brain. Common precursor symptoms: Paleness, sweating, dizziness, nausea, a slow or rapid pulse.

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30
Q

A patient who is at risk for or is in syncope should be placed either ___ or ideally in the ___ position, which is on the back with feet elevated above the head.

A

supine; Trendelenburg

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31
Q

Describe anemia.

A

A condition in which there are low red blood cells, which can cause fatigue and shortness of breath.

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32
Q

Describe heart attack.

A

A medical emergency that occurs when the blood supply to the heart is blocked, which can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and other symptoms.

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33
Q

Describe hypoglycemia.

A

Low blood sugar. This can cause dizziness, sweating, and a weak pulse. It is more common in diabetics who have either: taken too much insulin; have not eaten enough carbohydrate-rich food.

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34
Q

AC

A

before meals

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35
Q

PC

A

after meals

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36
Q

Describe therapeutic communication.

A

A communication style that focuses on helping patients to feel heard and that the listener actually cares and wants to resolve the patient’s problems. Techniques include; active listening, allowing silence, using open ended questions, asking for clarification, restating information to confirm understanding and to show the patient you’ve listened to them, acknowledgement of the person and their personal struggles so the patient feels heard, recognized and valued.

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37
Q

Describe anaphylactic reaction.

A

A severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction, where the immune system responds aggressively to an allergen, leading to symptoms like dizziness, swelling of the airways and throat, and difficulty breathing.

38
Q

Sudden onset of confusion, vision loss, weakness, and loss of coordination are symptoms indicative of:

A

A stroke, which is when blood flow to an area of the brain is interrupted, leading to tissue ischemia (lack of oxygen)

39
Q

Chest pain, shortness of breath, and jaw pain are symptoms indicative of:

A

A heart attack (aka myocardial infarction)

40
Q

Describe sanitization.

A

Reducing the number of harmful microbes on a surface or equipment to a lower level, preparing for further disinfection/sterilization. Sanitization is often the first step in cleaning surfaces or equipment. Especially important if there is visible debris present (ex: caked on blood), as this must be removed.

41
Q

Describe disinfection.

A

The process of killing MOST harmful microbes on a surface or object, but not necessarily all of them. Often done with chemicals such as 1:10 bleach: solution or glutaraldehyde.

42
Q

Describe sterilization.

A

The process of killing ALL forms of microbes, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and spores, on a surface or object. Done with an autoclave or UV radiation, though this is less common.

43
Q

Describe palliative care.

A

Provides comfort and quality of life for patients with serious illnesses, rather than trying to cure the disease.

44
Q

Describe the meniscus.

A

The curved top of a liquid in a container. The bottom of the meniscus should be read for an accurate reading.

45
Q

To ensure that an accurate dose of liquid medication is delivered, the MA should:

A

pour the medication into a medicine cup that is placed on a flat surface.

46
Q

The tourniquet should be removed within __ minute of being applied. If left on too long, the tourniquet can cause ___.

A

1; hemoconcentration

47
Q

Describe hemoconcentration.

A

When the blood is too thick due to a high concentration of blood cells. This happens because a tourniquet slows blood flow and causes the blood to pool in the arm. This can thicken he blood and affect test results.

48
Q

Describe the chain of infection.

A

Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host.

49
Q

What is a mnemonic to remember the chain of infection?

A

I (infectious agent) - REMEMBER (reservoir) - EXITING (portal of exit) - TODAY (mode of transmission) - ENTERING (portal of entry) - HOME (susceptible host)

50
Q

Describe advance directive.

A

This is also known as a living will; it is a document that outlines a person’s healthcare wishes in the even that they become unable to make decisions for themselves due to illness or incapacitation.

51
Q

The power of attorney is an example of:

A

an advance directive

52
Q

Describe will.

A

A legal document that outlines how a person’s assets and property will be distributed after their death. This is different from a living will.

53
Q

Describe the proper procedure for a finger-stick capillary puncture.

A

Puncture the middle or ring finger of the nondominant hand perpendicular to the grooves of the fingerprint; wipe away the first drop of blood, then collect the second.

54
Q

Hematemesis refers to:

A

blood in the vomit

55
Q

Hematochezia refers to:

A

blood in the feces

56
Q

Fomites:

A

non-living objects or surfaces that can harbor infectious agents and potentially facilitate transmission.

57
Q

Vectors:

A

living organisms, such as mosquitoes or ticks, that can transmit pathogens from one host to another.

58
Q

Normal oxygen saturation levels range from:

A

95-100%.

59
Q

A pulse oximeter can be used on:

A

a patient’s toe, finger, or earlobe

60
Q

What can cause artificially low oxygen saturation measurements?

A

cold hands and fingers

61
Q

Describe hyperventilation.

A

Increased breathing rate; this will lead to a higher oxygen saturation.

62
Q

Describe guidelines for urine collection for drug testing purposes.

A

*Must be sent to the lab the day of collection. *Temperature must be verified within 4 minutes of collection. *Pt cannot flush the toilet. *30-45ML is the minimum volume required (routine collection is 10ML, although 30-50ML is ideal).

63
Q

Describe ischemia.

A

Lack of blood flow to a particular body part or organ; this can cause heart attack or stroke.

64
Q

Describe absorption.

A

How a drug enters the bloodstream after administration (IM, IV injections; inhalation; swallowed orally).

65
Q

Describe distribution.

A

How a drug is transported throughout the body.

66
Q

Describe metabolism.

A

How the body breaks down a drug into smaller components. The LIVER breaks down a drug into metabolites.

67
Q

Describe elimination.

A

How a drug and its metabolites are eliminated from the body. A drug and its metabolites are excreted through the KIDNEYS and eliminated in urine.

68
Q

What’s an important consideration for collecting a stool sample?

A

This cannot be mixed with urine, and urine samples cannot be mixed with stool. This causes contamination.

69
Q

What is a spiking fever?

A

Rises and falls quickly

70
Q

What is a remittent fever?

A

Fever fluctuates a few degrees up and down

71
Q

What is a continuous fever?

A

Persistently high

72
Q

Describe the simplified letter style.

A

No salutation or complimentary close; all text is left aligned; subject line in ALL CAPS

73
Q

What should an MA instruct a patient in regards to a transdermal patch?

A

Instruct patient to avoid touching the medication on the patch.

74
Q

Describe type 1 diabetes.

A

Type 1 is auto1mmune; the body’s immune system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells. This results in insulin deficiency. Treatment is insulin injections.

75
Q

What is insulin?

A

Insulin is a naturally occurring hormone your pancreas makes that’s essential for allowing your body to use sugar (glucose) for energy. If your pancreas doesn’t make enough insulin or your body doesn’t use insulin properly, it leads to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia).

76
Q

Describe type 2 diabetes.

A

Type 2 is from 2 much food; i.e., lifestyle factors, such as obesity, lack of exercise, and poor diet.

77
Q

What BP is considered hypotension?

A

Less than 90 systolic or less than 60 diastolic

78
Q

What BP is considered normal?

A

90-120 systolic and 60-80 diastolic

79
Q

What BP is considered elevated?

A

120 to 129 systolic and less than 80 diastolic

80
Q

What BP is considered stage 1 hypertension?

A

130 to 139 systolic OR 80-89 diastolic

81
Q

What BP is stage 2 hypertension?

A

140 systolic or higher -OR- 90 diastolic or higher

82
Q

BMI is a measure of:

A

body fat based on ht and wt

83
Q

A BMI of less than ___ is considered underweight.

A

18.5

84
Q

A BMI between ___ and ___ is considered normal weight.

A

18.5 and 24.9

85
Q

A BMI between ___ and ___ is considered overweight.

A

25 and 29.9

86
Q

A BMI of ___ or higher is considered obese.

A

30

87
Q

Describe customary fee.

A

What most providers in a given area charge.

88
Q

Describe usual fee.

A

What one provider usually charges.

89
Q

Describe reasonable fee.

A

A charge is considered reasonable if it requires extra investment of time or effort by the provider because it is more complex.

90
Q

Describe accepted fee.

A

The fee that is accepted by patients and payers as fair.

91
Q
A