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SCW > Practice Test 03 > Flashcards

Practice Test 03 Flashcards

1
Q

The firing cycle steps of a standard weapon are as follows:

A

Feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting,
ejecting, cocking.

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2
Q

The ___________ was established to provide relieving battalions
with a status/condition evaluation of CESE.

A

BEEP

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3
Q

What is the responsibility of the Commanding Officer with regard
to the safety program?

A

Ultimately responsible for all safety matters within the command.

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4
Q

What is the responsibility of the Executive Officer with regard to safety?

A

Chairman of the Safety Policy Counsel.

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5
Q

What is the responsibility of the Safety Officer?

A

To serve as an advisor to the CO on safety issues.

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6
Q

What is the responsibility of all hands with regard to safety?

A

What is the responsibility of all hands with regard to safety?

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7
Q

What is the purpose of a Mishap Investigation?

A

To establish the cause of the mishap and prevent reoccurrence.

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8
Q

When is a mishap investigated?

A

Any time a mishap occurs, on or off duty.

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9
Q

Who is responsible for conducting a mishap investigation?

A

The Safety Officer.

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10
Q

What is a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) used for?

A

Containing safety information on the product or chemical.

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11
Q

When are personnel required to enter into a hearing conservation program?

A

When their workspace exposes them to noise levels greater than 84
decibels.

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12
Q

State when single hearing protective devices are required.

A

When noise levels are between 84 and 104 dB.

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13
Q

When are ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI) required?

A

When using all electrical power tools and cords.

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14
Q

What types of respirators are available, today?

A

Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus.
Particulate respirator.
Air supplied.
All of the above.

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15
Q

What are the minimum requirements for respirator use?

A

Know how to identify respiratory hazards.
Know how to properly care for the respirator.
Have a proper fit test and donning procedure training.
All of the above.

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16
Q

What is the main purpose of the Navy Recreation, Athletics, and Home Safety Program?

A

To protect personnel from accidental death or injury,

which occur in the home and during recreational activities.

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17
Q

When are steel toed boots required to be worn?

A

In all shops.
On all project sites.
Both A & B.

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17
Q

When are steel toed boots required to be worn?

A

In all shops.
On all project sites.
Both A & B.

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18
Q

What is the importance of the Command Asbestos Policy?

A

To eliminate asbestos exposure.
To make personnel aware of asbestos hazards.
To prevent personnel from working in any area that appears to have
asbestos.
All of the above.

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19
Q

What is the Navy’s policy on the use of portable headphones or other listening devices while on base?

A

May not be used while operating a vehicle.

May not be used when jogging or walking. Both A & B.

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20
Q

Why are rubber aprons required to complete some tasks safely?

A

To provide protection to the torso when handling chemicals.

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21
Q

What is the definition of first aid?

A

Emergency care given to a sick or injured person.

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22
Q

What is the purpose of first aid?

A

To save lives.
To provide resistance to infection.
To prevent further injury.
All of the above.

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23
Q

What is the ratio of chest compressions to breaths for 2 person CPR?

A

5 to 1

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24
Q

If an artery is cut, how will blood exit the wound?

A

Spurting

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25
Q

If a victim shows signs of shock and the injuries permit, which of the following actions should you take?

A

Elevate the feet 6 to 12 inches.

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26
Q

Atropine is a substance used for:

A

Reversal of the effects of nerve agents.

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27
Q

what method is the easiest for one person to lift and carry a casualty?

A

Fireman’s carry.

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28
Q

Shock is defined by which of the following conditions?

A

Blood circulation is seriously disturbed

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29
Q

A victim in shock often feels ___________, his skin is _______________, and feels cold and ____________?

A

Weak, Pale, Moist.

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30
Q

Two major problems of injuries, which include broken skin, are _________ and ___________?

A

Infection and serious blood loss.

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31
Q

What is a pressure point?

A

A place where the artery is close to the skin surface and over a
bone.

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32
Q

How many pressures points, which may be used to control bleeding,
are on each side of the body?

A

11

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33
Q

What heat exposure injury results from a loss of excessive amounts of salt and water?

A

heat exhaustion

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34
Q

What type of weather causes the most severe cold injuries?

A

cold, wet and windy

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35
Q

What type of rifle is the M16A2E3?

A

Magazine fed, gas operated, semi-automatic or automatic weapon.

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36
Q

What are the maximum effective ranges of the M16A3E3 for a point and area target?

A

550 meters and 800 meters.

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37
Q

What is the capacity of a M16A2E3 magazine?

A

30 rounds

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38
Q

A misfire in a weapon is when a weapon malfunctions and continues to fire.

A

False

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39
Q

Which sites are adjustable on the M16A2E3 rifle?

A

front and rear sites

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40
Q

What size ammunition does the M16A2E3 use?

A

5.56mm

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41
Q

What type of weapon is the M9-pistol?

A

Semi-automatic, recoil operated, magazine fed hand weapon.

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42
Q

What is the maximum capacity of the M9-pistol magazine?

A

15 rounds

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43
Q

What is the maximum effective range of the M9-pistol?

A

50m

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44
Q

A runaway in a weapon is:

A

When a weapon malfunctions and continues to fire.

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45
Q

How often should you clean any weapon?

A

after each use plus monthly

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46
Q

What are the shooting positions when qualifying with the M16A2E3 rifle?

A

standing sitting and prone

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47
Q

Which grenade launcher attaches to the M16A2E3 rifle?

A

40mm grenade launcher

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48
Q

What is the maximum effective range of the M60 machine gun?

A

1100m

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49
Q

How many personnel make up a M60 gun team?

A

3

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50
Q

When should the headspace on the M2HB.50 cal be checked?

A

before firing

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51
Q

How many different types of grenades are there in use in the NCF?

A

6

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52
Q

The M67 is what type of grenade?

A

fragmentation

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53
Q

The safety pin on the MK1 Illumination grenade can be replaced after being pulled.

A

False

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54
Q

The M57 firing device is used with:

A

M18A1

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55
Q

What do all grenade bodies have in common?

A

The are hollow and hold a filler.

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56
Q

The maximum effective range of the M2HB.50 cal machine gun is:

A

1830m

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57
Q

How many safeties, other than the gunner, does the M2 machine gun have?

A

none

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58
Q

What are the methods of firing the M224 60mm mortar?

A

conventional + handheld a+b

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59
Q

What type of ammunition has a red or orange tip?

A

tracer

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60
Q

The MK19 Mod 3 is a

A

Air cooled, blowback operated, fully automatic machine gun.

61
Q

Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on the web belt of the 782 gear?

A

canteen

62
Q

Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on the web belt of the 782 gear?

A

Hasty individual position

63
Q

Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a ground flare while on a security patrol?

A

Move out of the area as quickly and quietly as possible.

64
Q

How many basic colors are used on a military map?

A

5

65
Q

What does the color brown signify on a military map?

A

All relief features

66
Q

how many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?

A

12

67
Q

The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied, and keep it clear of the enemy.

A

true

68
Q

What is the first priority of defense in depth?

A

surprise

69
Q

Which of the following is not an echelon of a defense?

A

bivouac sites

70
Q

Who is responsible for the discipline, appearance, and training of a squad?

A

squad leader

71
Q

Who carries the M203 Grenade launcher in a squad?

A

grenadier

72
Q

If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give to your captors?

A

name, rank, ssn, dob

73
Q

What is the second general order of a sentry?

A

none of the above

74
Q

When camouflaging, you should camouflage against both ground and air observation.

A

true

75
Q

The weapons platoon commander is usually whom?

A

Chief petty officer

76
Q

How many combat positions are used in a defense?

A

3

77
Q

What is the range of the AN/PRC 119A radio?

A

3 to 10 miles

78
Q

The TA-312/PT telephone has a range of how many miles?

A

14 to 22

79
Q

By stacking the SB-22/PT switchboard, how many lines can be served?

A

29

80
Q

What is the least secure means of communication?

A

Radio

81
Q

When transmitting from your station to another, the receiving station comes back to you with a response of: BEADWINDOW-03. What would your response be?

A

roger out

82
Q

To expedite radio traffic, you use a word or phrase that has been assigned a specific meaning for radio and telephone transmission purposes. This word is known as a

A

proword

83
Q

The acronym COC stands for

A

combat operations center

84
Q

What term is used to identify a security breech of EEFI, (Essential Elements of Friendly Information), over a clear circuit?

A

beadwindow

85
Q

Chemical agents are used to produce death, injury and temporary incapacitating or irritating effects.

A

true

86
Q

Which of the following are anti-personnel agents?

A

Casualty agents.
Non-lethal incapacitating agents.
Harassing agents.
All of the above.

87
Q

What is a NAAK, Mark 1?

A

A nerve agent antidote kit.

88
Q

Which of the following is the standard field protective mask?

A

The MCU-2P

89
Q

What should all Seabees know about a biological attack?

A

It is normally impossible to recognize or detect.
It may be used to supplement other types of attacks.
It may be used to cause either delayed death or incapacitation for
strategic purposes.
All of the above

90
Q

How many MOPP levels are there in the NMCB Tactical SOP?

A

5

91
Q

MOPP is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents used to facilitate mission accomplishment in chemical warfare.

A

True

92
Q

How many personnel are required to run an efficient Personnel Decontamination Station?

A

13

93
Q

How long will the permeable protective clothing provide protection after
exposure to CBR agents?

A

6 hours

94
Q

The automatic chemical agent alarm will be the primary means of detecting chemical agents arriving in a unit area from an upwind chemical attack.

A

True

95
Q

Who is responsible for the operation of the Mount Out Control Center (MOCC)?

A

XO

96
Q

What manual governs the handling of hazardous cargo for air, land and sea movements?

A

NAVSUP PUB 505

97
Q

What are the three-color classifications used in determining convoy road routes?

A

green yellow and red

98
Q

How many 463L pallets will fit onboard a C-141 Starlifter aircraft?

A

13

99
Q

What is the maximum height cargo can be loaded on a 463L pallet?

A

96 inches

100
Q

Which formula is used to determine the center of balance of a vehicle?

A

(W1 x D1) + (W2 x D2)

GVW

101
Q

Minor property is valued between?

A

$300-5000

102
Q

Plant property has a useful life of how long?

A

2+ years

103
Q

Every construction project is required to have a Bill of Material (BM).

A

True

104
Q

COSAL listings are computed to allow a unit to be self sufficient for how long?

A

60 days/1200 construction hours

105
Q

What is the NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?

A

Delete an item from an allowance list.
Add an item to an allowance list.
Increase/decrease allowance quantities.
All of the above.

106
Q

What form is used to keep camouflage utility uniform records?

A

COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT 4400/3

107
Q

An operators report of a motor vehicle accident form (SF 91) must be completed at the:

A

On site before leaving the scene of an accident.

108
Q

What is the main function of an Amphibious Construction Battalion (PHIBCB)?

A

To provide minor construction on the beach.

109
Q

In today’s Navy, what is the contingency function of a Construction Battalion Unit (CBU)?

A

Fleet Hospital support or NMCB augment.

110
Q

What is the main function of Charlie/Delta Company in a Naval Mobile Construction Battalion (NMCB)?

A

All vertical construction.

111
Q

What does EDVR stand for?

A

Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report.

112
Q

What is an EDVR?

A

A monthly statement of an activity’s enlisted personnel account.

113
Q

In which publication will you find the Personnel Readiness Capability Program (PRCP)?

A

NAVFAC P-458.

114
Q

What is the purpose of the PRCP?

A

To provide accurate, up to date personnel information so the NCF can
accomplish its mission.

115
Q

Which form below is the vehicle trip ticket?

A

DD Form 1970.

116
Q

What is WHE

A

Weight handling equipment.

117
Q

What is BEEP?

A

Battalion equipment evaluation program.

118
Q

How are causeways transported with an amphibious group?

A

Side loads on a LST.

119
Q

What is required before issuing project material?

A

A properly prepared 1250-1.

120
Q

What are the correct procedures for Rapid Runway Repair?

A

Identify craters, repair craters, deliver stock pile and place select
fill, clean/sweep runway, assembles matting, position matting, anchor matting and paint runway.

121
Q

How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level one and two in order to satisfy the requirements of Rapid Runway Repair (RRR)?

A

6 at level one, 20 at level two.

122
Q

What is the acronym used for the post, which controls the embarkation operations?

A

MOCC.

123
Q

Why is it important to have quality control and project safety plans contained in the project package?

A

To ensure standards of construction are maintained and work is being
performed in a safe manner.

124
Q

Construction activity summary sheets are used to identify all material, personnel resources, equipment needed and all quality control and safety requirements.

A

true

125
Q

In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in volume two?

A

3

126
Q

For each day you anticipate using the straddle trench latrine, how much
deeper should it be dug?

A

1 ft for each day

127
Q

is the process of adjusting a map so that north

on the map faces true north and is performed with the aid of a compass.

A

Orientation

128
Q

Who directs and controls embarkation operations?

A

XO

129
Q

What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing facilities?

A

35 yards

130
Q

What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can located from water supplies?

A

100 yards

131
Q

Radio call signs would be listed in which portion of a five-paragraph order?

A

command and signal

132
Q

What minimum treatment is required for collected rainwater that is to be used as a water source?

A

Filtration and Disinfection.

133
Q

How many feet of detonation cord come with the M18A1 Claymore mine?

A

100 ft

134
Q

Normally, how long should a generator be allowed to warm up before a load is applied?

A

15 minutes

135
Q

When designating a point on a map grid, you read:

A

right then up

136
Q

The primary use of surface trip flares is to

A

Warn of infiltrating enemy troops.

137
Q

What power the TA-1PT field phone?

A

voice

138
Q

While on patrol, you encounter an enemy trinket in the roadway, you should pick it up as a souvenir.

A

false

139
Q

When a patrol encounters a mine or booby trap they should

A

mark and report it

140
Q

What are the three fire team formations commonly used in patrolling?

A

Wedge, Column, Skirmisher.

141
Q

Which type of organization is considered ideal for security patrols?

A

squad

142
Q

Which rally point is within friendly areas where the patrol can reassemble if it becomes dispersed before departing?

A

initial

143
Q

Once the danger area is cleared, all personnel cress the area at same time.

A

false

144
Q

Hardening of a vehicle provides personnel with some degree of protection.

A

true

145
Q

In a tactical convoy, no vehicles need to be hardened.

A

false

146
Q

The senior POW, regardless of service, must accept command.

A

true

147
Q

When searching detainees/EPWs, two persons should be present, one to guard and one to search.

A

true

148
Q

Minor burns are __________ degree burns.

A

first

149
Q

A broken blister should be treated as an open wound.

A

true

SCW (16 decks)

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