Practice Test 03 Flashcards
1
Q
The firing cycle steps of a standard weapon are as follows:
A
Feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting,
ejecting, cocking.
2
Q
The ___________ was established to provide relieving battalions
with a status/condition evaluation of CESE.
A
BEEP
3
Q
What is the responsibility of the Commanding Officer with regard
to the safety program?
A
Ultimately responsible for all safety matters within the command.
4
Q
What is the responsibility of the Executive Officer with regard to safety?
A
Chairman of the Safety Policy Counsel.
5
Q
What is the responsibility of the Safety Officer?
A
To serve as an advisor to the CO on safety issues.
6
Q
What is the responsibility of all hands with regard to safety?
A
What is the responsibility of all hands with regard to safety?
7
Q
What is the purpose of a Mishap Investigation?
A
To establish the cause of the mishap and prevent reoccurrence.
8
Q
When is a mishap investigated?
A
Any time a mishap occurs, on or off duty.
9
Q
Who is responsible for conducting a mishap investigation?
A
The Safety Officer.
10
Q
What is a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) used for?
A
Containing safety information on the product or chemical.
11
Q
When are personnel required to enter into a hearing conservation program?
A
When their workspace exposes them to noise levels greater than 84
decibels.
12
Q
State when single hearing protective devices are required.
A
When noise levels are between 84 and 104 dB.
13
Q
When are ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI) required?
A
When using all electrical power tools and cords.
14
Q
What types of respirators are available, today?
A
Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus.
Particulate respirator.
Air supplied.
All of the above.
15
Q
What are the minimum requirements for respirator use?
A
Know how to identify respiratory hazards.
Know how to properly care for the respirator.
Have a proper fit test and donning procedure training.
All of the above.
16
Q
What is the main purpose of the Navy Recreation, Athletics, and Home Safety Program?
A
To protect personnel from accidental death or injury,
which occur in the home and during recreational activities.
17
Q
When are steel toed boots required to be worn?
A
In all shops.
On all project sites.
Both A & B.
17
Q
When are steel toed boots required to be worn?
A
In all shops.
On all project sites.
Both A & B.
18
Q
What is the importance of the Command Asbestos Policy?
A
To eliminate asbestos exposure.
To make personnel aware of asbestos hazards.
To prevent personnel from working in any area that appears to have
asbestos.
All of the above.
19
Q
What is the Navy’s policy on the use of portable headphones or other listening devices while on base?
A
May not be used while operating a vehicle.
May not be used when jogging or walking. Both A & B.
20
Q
Why are rubber aprons required to complete some tasks safely?
A
To provide protection to the torso when handling chemicals.
21
Q
What is the definition of first aid?
A
Emergency care given to a sick or injured person.
22
Q
What is the purpose of first aid?
A
To save lives.
To provide resistance to infection.
To prevent further injury.
All of the above.
23
Q
What is the ratio of chest compressions to breaths for 2 person CPR?
A
5 to 1
24
If an artery is cut, how will blood exit the wound?
Spurting
25
If a victim shows signs of shock and the injuries permit, which of the following actions should you take?
Elevate the feet 6 to 12 inches.
26
Atropine is a substance used for:
Reversal of the effects of nerve agents.
27
what method is the easiest for one person to lift and carry a casualty?
Fireman’s carry.
28
Shock is defined by which of the following conditions?
Blood circulation is seriously disturbed
29
A victim in shock often feels ___________, his skin is _______________, and feels cold and ____________?
Weak, Pale, Moist.
30
Two major problems of injuries, which include broken skin, are _________ and ___________?
Infection and serious blood loss.
31
What is a pressure point?
A place where the artery is close to the skin surface and over a
bone.
32
How many pressures points, which may be used to control bleeding,
are on each side of the body?
11
33
What heat exposure injury results from a loss of excessive amounts of salt and water?
heat exhaustion
34
What type of weather causes the most severe cold injuries?
cold, wet and windy
35
What type of rifle is the M16A2E3?
Magazine fed, gas operated, semi-automatic or automatic weapon.
36
What are the maximum effective ranges of the M16A3E3 for a point and area target?
550 meters and 800 meters.
37
What is the capacity of a M16A2E3 magazine?
30 rounds
38
A misfire in a weapon is when a weapon malfunctions and continues to fire.
False
39
Which sites are adjustable on the M16A2E3 rifle?
front and rear sites
40
What size ammunition does the M16A2E3 use?
5.56mm
41
What type of weapon is the M9-pistol?
Semi-automatic, recoil operated, magazine fed hand weapon.
42
What is the maximum capacity of the M9-pistol magazine?
15 rounds
43
What is the maximum effective range of the M9-pistol?
50m
44
A runaway in a weapon is:
When a weapon malfunctions and continues to fire.
45
How often should you clean any weapon?
after each use plus monthly
46
What are the shooting positions when qualifying with the M16A2E3 rifle?
standing sitting and prone
47
Which grenade launcher attaches to the M16A2E3 rifle?
40mm grenade launcher
48
What is the maximum effective range of the M60 machine gun?
1100m
49
How many personnel make up a M60 gun team?
3
50
When should the headspace on the M2HB.50 cal be checked?
before firing
51
How many different types of grenades are there in use in the NCF?
6
52
The M67 is what type of grenade?
fragmentation
53
The safety pin on the MK1 Illumination grenade can be replaced after being pulled.
False
54
The M57 firing device is used with:
M18A1
55
What do all grenade bodies have in common?
The are hollow and hold a filler.
56
The maximum effective range of the M2HB.50 cal machine gun is:
1830m
57
How many safeties, other than the gunner, does the M2 machine gun have?
none
58
What are the methods of firing the M224 60mm mortar?
conventional + handheld a+b
59
What type of ammunition has a red or orange tip?
tracer
60
The MK19 Mod 3 is a
Air cooled, blowback operated, fully automatic machine gun.
61
Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on the web belt of the 782 gear?
canteen
62
Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on the web belt of the 782 gear?
Hasty individual position
63
Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a ground flare while on a security patrol?
Move out of the area as quickly and quietly as possible.
64
How many basic colors are used on a military map?
5
65
What does the color brown signify on a military map?
All relief features
66
how many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?
12
67
The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied, and keep it clear of the enemy.
true
68
What is the first priority of defense in depth?
surprise
69
Which of the following is not an echelon of a defense?
bivouac sites
70
Who is responsible for the discipline, appearance, and training of a squad?
squad leader
71
Who carries the M203 Grenade launcher in a squad?
grenadier
72
If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give to your captors?
name, rank, ssn, dob
73
What is the second general order of a sentry?
none of the above
74
When camouflaging, you should camouflage against both ground and air observation.
true
75
The weapons platoon commander is usually whom?
Chief petty officer
76
How many combat positions are used in a defense?
3
77
What is the range of the AN/PRC 119A radio?
3 to 10 miles
78
The TA-312/PT telephone has a range of how many miles?
14 to 22
79
By stacking the SB-22/PT switchboard, how many lines can be served?
29
80
What is the least secure means of communication?
Radio
81
When transmitting from your station to another, the receiving station comes back to you with a response of: BEADWINDOW-03. What would your response be?
roger out
82
To expedite radio traffic, you use a word or phrase that has been assigned a specific meaning for radio and telephone transmission purposes. This word is known as a
proword
83
The acronym COC stands for
combat operations center
84
What term is used to identify a security breech of EEFI, (Essential Elements of Friendly Information), over a clear circuit?
beadwindow
85
Chemical agents are used to produce death, injury and temporary incapacitating or irritating effects.
true
86
Which of the following are anti-personnel agents?
Casualty agents.
Non-lethal incapacitating agents.
Harassing agents.
All of the above.
87
What is a NAAK, Mark 1?
A nerve agent antidote kit.
88
Which of the following is the standard field protective mask?
The MCU-2P
89
What should all Seabees know about a biological attack?
It is normally impossible to recognize or detect.
It may be used to supplement other types of attacks.
It may be used to cause either delayed death or incapacitation for
strategic purposes.
All of the above
90
How many MOPP levels are there in the NMCB Tactical SOP?
5
91
MOPP is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents used to facilitate mission accomplishment in chemical warfare.
True
92
How many personnel are required to run an efficient Personnel Decontamination Station?
13
93
How long will the permeable protective clothing provide protection after
exposure to CBR agents?
6 hours
94
The automatic chemical agent alarm will be the primary means of detecting chemical agents arriving in a unit area from an upwind chemical attack.
True
95
Who is responsible for the operation of the Mount Out Control Center (MOCC)?
XO
96
What manual governs the handling of hazardous cargo for air, land and sea movements?
NAVSUP PUB 505
97
What are the three-color classifications used in determining convoy road routes?
green yellow and red
98
How many 463L pallets will fit onboard a C-141 Starlifter aircraft?
13
99
What is the maximum height cargo can be loaded on a 463L pallet?
96 inches
100
Which formula is used to determine the center of balance of a vehicle?
(W1 x D1) + (W2 x D2)
| GVW
101
Minor property is valued between?
$300-5000
102
Plant property has a useful life of how long?
2+ years
103
Every construction project is required to have a Bill of Material (BM).
True
104
COSAL listings are computed to allow a unit to be self sufficient for how long?
60 days/1200 construction hours
105
What is the NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?
Delete an item from an allowance list.
Add an item to an allowance list.
Increase/decrease allowance quantities.
All of the above.
106
What form is used to keep camouflage utility uniform records?
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT 4400/3
107
An operators report of a motor vehicle accident form (SF 91) must be completed at the:
On site before leaving the scene of an accident.
108
What is the main function of an Amphibious Construction Battalion (PHIBCB)?
To provide minor construction on the beach.
109
In today's Navy, what is the contingency function of a Construction Battalion Unit (CBU)?
Fleet Hospital support or NMCB augment.
110
What is the main function of Charlie/Delta Company in a Naval Mobile Construction Battalion (NMCB)?
All vertical construction.
111
What does EDVR stand for?
Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report.
112
What is an EDVR?
A monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
113
In which publication will you find the Personnel Readiness Capability Program (PRCP)?
NAVFAC P-458.
114
What is the purpose of the PRCP?
To provide accurate, up to date personnel information so the NCF can
accomplish its mission.
115
Which form below is the vehicle trip ticket?
DD Form 1970.
116
What is WHE
Weight handling equipment.
117
What is BEEP?
Battalion equipment evaluation program.
118
How are causeways transported with an amphibious group?
Side loads on a LST.
119
What is required before issuing project material?
A properly prepared 1250-1.
120
What are the correct procedures for Rapid Runway Repair?
Identify craters, repair craters, deliver stock pile and place select
fill, clean/sweep runway, assembles matting, position matting, anchor matting and paint runway.
121
How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level one and two in order to satisfy the requirements of Rapid Runway Repair (RRR)?
6 at level one, 20 at level two.
122
What is the acronym used for the post, which controls the embarkation operations?
MOCC.
123
Why is it important to have quality control and project safety plans contained in the project package?
To ensure standards of construction are maintained and work is being
performed in a safe manner.
124
Construction activity summary sheets are used to identify all material, personnel resources, equipment needed and all quality control and safety requirements.
true
125
In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in volume two?
3
126
For each day you anticipate using the straddle trench latrine, how much
deeper should it be dug?
1 ft for each day
127
is the process of adjusting a map so that north
| on the map faces true north and is performed with the aid of a compass.
Orientation
128
Who directs and controls embarkation operations?
XO
129
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing facilities?
35 yards
130
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can located from water supplies?
100 yards
131
Radio call signs would be listed in which portion of a five-paragraph order?
command and signal
132
What minimum treatment is required for collected rainwater that is to be used as a water source?
Filtration and Disinfection.
133
How many feet of detonation cord come with the M18A1 Claymore mine?
100 ft
134
Normally, how long should a generator be allowed to warm up before a load is applied?
15 minutes
135
When designating a point on a map grid, you read:
right then up
136
The primary use of surface trip flares is to
Warn of infiltrating enemy troops.
137
What power the TA-1PT field phone?
voice
138
While on patrol, you encounter an enemy trinket in the roadway, you should pick it up as a souvenir.
false
139
When a patrol encounters a mine or booby trap they should
mark and report it
140
What are the three fire team formations commonly used in patrolling?
Wedge, Column, Skirmisher.
141
Which type of organization is considered ideal for security patrols?
squad
142
Which rally point is within friendly areas where the patrol can reassemble if it becomes dispersed before departing?
initial
143
Once the danger area is cleared, all personnel cress the area at same time.
false
144
Hardening of a vehicle provides personnel with some degree of protection.
true
145
In a tactical convoy, no vehicles need to be hardened.
false
146
The senior POW, regardless of service, must accept command.
true
147
When searching detainees/EPWs, two persons should be present, one to guard and one to search.
true
148
Minor burns are __________ degree burns.
first
149
A broken blister should be treated as an open wound.
true
