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Practice Test 02 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the responsibility of the Commanding Officer as applied to safety?

A

Ultimately responsible for all safety matters within the Command.

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2
Q

What is the responsibility of the Executive Officer as applied to safety?

A

Chairman of the Safety Policy Council.

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3
Q

What is responsibility of the Safety Officer?

A

To serve as an advisor to the CO on safety issues.

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4
Q

What is the responsibility of all hands as applied to safety?

A

Implement safety policies
Conduct all safety training.
Wear appropriate safety attire at all times.
(all of the above)

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5
Q

What is the purpose of a Mishap Investigation?

A

To establish the cause of the mishap and prevent reoccurrence.

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6
Q

What is characteristic of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?

A

It containing safety information on a product or chemical.

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7
Q

State when single hearing protective devices are required.

A

When noise levels are between 84 and 103 dB.

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8
Q

When are personnel required to enter into a hearing conservation program?

A

When their workspace exposes them to noise levels greater than 84 decibels.

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9
Q

When are ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI) required?

A

When using all electrical power tools and extension cords.

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10
Q

What type of respirators are available for use by the NCF?

A

SCBA, Air purifying, Supplied Air

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11
Q

What are the minimum requirements for respirator use?

A

Know how to identify respiratory hazards.
Know how to properly care for the respirator.
Have a proper fit test and donning procedure.
(all of the above)

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12
Q

What is the main purpose of the Navy Recreation, Athletics, and Home Safety Program?

A

To protect personnel from accidental death or injury, which occur in the home and during recreational activities.

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13
Q

When are steel-toed boots required to be worn?

A

in all shops, all projects, (both a+b)

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14
Q

What is the importance of the Command Asbestos Policy?

A

To control exposure to asbestos

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15
Q

How many levels of application are there for ORM?

A

3

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16
Q

ORM should be used at what leadership level?

A

Lowest level

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17
Q

Which of the following is a goal of ORM?

A

Maintain readiness and effectiveness

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18
Q

The 5 steps of ORM planning are similar to what other acronym we commonly use?

A

SMEAC

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19
Q

A risk assessment code (RAC) of 1 is considered

A

Extremely high

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20
Q

ORM supports mission accomplishment and troop welfare.

A

True

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21
Q

What is the definition of first aid?

A

Emergency care given to a sick or injured person. Emergency care that takes the place of medical care. Asistance given to an injured person. (AOTA)

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22
Q

What is the purpose of first aid?

A

To save lives. To provide resistance to infection. To prevent further injury.
(AOTA)

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23
Q

What is the ratio of chest compressions to breaths for 1 person CPR?

A

15 to 2

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24
Q

If an artery is cut, how will blood exit the wound?

A

Spurting in pulses

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25
Q

If a victim shows signs of shock and the injuries permit, which of the following actions should you take?

A

Elevate the feet 6 to 12 inches

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26
Q

What method is the easiest for one person to lift and carry a casualty?

A

Fireman’s carry

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27
Q

Which of the following conditions defines shock?

A

Blood circulation is seriously disturbed.

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28
Q

A victim in shock often feels _________,his skin is _______,and feels cold and _______

A

Weak, Pale, Moist

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29
Q

Two major problems of injuries, which include broken skin, are_________ and ________

A

Infection and serious blood loss

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30
Q

What is a pressure point?

A

A place where the artery is close to the skin surface and over a bone.

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31
Q

How many pressure points, are on each side of the body, which may be used to control bleeding.

A

11

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32
Q

What heat exposure injury results from a loss of excessive amounts of salt and water

A

Heat exhaustion

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33
Q

What type of weather causes the most severe cold injuries?

A

Cold, wet and windy

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34
Q

It is best to make your preliminary investigation of the victim in the same position that you found them.

A

True

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35
Q

Which of the following is not a method of purifying water?

A

Super-chlorinate

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36
Q

How often should you clean any weapon?

A

After each use plus monthly

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37
Q

What is the shooting positions when qualifying with the M16A2E3 rifle?

A

Standing, sitting, and prone

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38
Q

Which grenade launcher attaches to the M16A2E3 rifle?

A

48mm grenade launcher

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39
Q

What is the maximum effective range of the M60 machine gun?

A

1100m

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40
Q

ow many personnel make up a M60 gun team?

A

3

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41
Q

When should the headspace on the M2HB.50 cal be checked?

A

Before firing and after each barrel change

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42
Q

How many different types of grenades are there in use in the NCF?

A

6

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43
Q

The M67 is what type of grenade?

A

Fragmentation

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44
Q

The safety pin on the MK1 Illumination grenade can be replaced after being pulled.

A

False

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45
Q

The M57 firing device is used with:

A

The M18A1

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46
Q

What do all grenades used in the (NCF) have in common?

A

They have a body, filler and fuse.

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47
Q

The maximum effective range of the M2HB machine gun is:

A

1830m

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48
Q

How many safeties, other than the gunner, does the M2HB .50 cal machine guns have?

A

None

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49
Q

What are the methods of firing the M224 60mm mortar?

A

Conventional and hand held

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50
Q

What type of ammunition has a red or orange tip?

A

Tracer

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51
Q

The MK19 Mod 3 is an

A

Air-cooled, blowback operated, belt fed,

fully automatic machine-gun.

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52
Q

Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on the web belt of the 782 gear?

A

Canteen

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53
Q

Which of the following is the simplest fighting position.

A

Hasty individual position

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54
Q

Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a ground flare while on a security patrol?

A

Move out of the light as quickly and quietly as possible.

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55
Q

How many basic colors are used on a military map?

A

5

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56
Q

What does the reddish brown color signify on a military map?

A

All relief features

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57
Q

How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?

A

12

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58
Q

The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied, and keep it clear of the enemy.

A

True

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59
Q

What is the first priority of work upon completion of a security sweep?

A

Security

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60
Q

Which of the following is not a part of a battalions AOR?

A

Bivouac area

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61
Q

Who is responsible for the discipline, appearance, and training of a squad?

A

Squad leader

62
Q

What is the maximum range of the M203 Grenade launcher?

A

400m

63
Q

If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give to your captors?

A

Name, rank, ssn, dob

64
Q

What is the seventh general order of a sentry?

A

To talk to no one except in the line of duty.

65
Q

When camouflaging, you should camouflage against both ground and air observation.

A

True

66
Q

The weapons platoon commander is usually whom?

A

Chief

67
Q

How many fighting positions are used in a defense?

A

3

68
Q

What is the maximum range of the AN/PRC 119A radio?

A

10 miles

69
Q

The TA-312/PT telephone has a range of how many miles?

A

14 to 22 miles

70
Q

By “stacking” the SB-22/PT switchboard and utilizing the operator pack how many lines can be served?

A

29

71
Q

What is the least secure means of communication?

A

Radio

72
Q

When transmitting from your station to another, the receiving station comes back to you with a response of: BEADWINDOW-03. What would your response be?

A

Roger out

73
Q

To expedite radio traffic, you use a word or phrase that has been assigned a specific meaning for radio and telephone transmission purposes. This word is known as an

A

Proword

74
Q

What term is used to identify a security breech of EEFI, (Essential, Elements of Friendly Information), over a clear circuit?

A

Beadwindow

75
Q

What are the four prowords normally used in handling radio messages, and what order would they be from fastest too slowest?

A

Flash, Immediate, Priority and Routine.

76
Q

A KL-43 is used to load encrypted frequencies

A

False

77
Q

The piece of gear used to operate an AN\PRC 119 from a remote location is?

A

ANGRA 39

78
Q

Atropine is a substance used for:

A

Reversal of the effects of nerve agents

79
Q

Chemical agents are used to produce death, injury and temporary incapacitating or irritating effects.

A

True

80
Q

Which of the following are anti-personnel agents?

A

Casualty agents.
Non-lethal incapacitating agents.
Harassing agents.
aota

81
Q

What is a NAAK, Mark 1?

A

A nerve agent antidote kit

82
Q

Which of the following is the standard field protective mask?

A

The MCU-2P

83
Q

What should all Seabees know about a biological attack?

A

It is normally difficult to recognize or detect.
It may be used to supplement other types of attacks.
It may be used to cause either delayed death or
incapacitation for strategic purposes.
aota

84
Q

How many MOPP levels are there in NMCB-74’s Tactical SOP?

A

5

85
Q

MOPP is a flexible system of protection against chemical

agents used to facilitate mission accomplishment in chemical warfare.

A

True

86
Q

How many personnel are required to run an efficient Personnel Decontamination Station?

A

13

87
Q

How long will the MKIII Chemical Protective Overgarment, provide protection after exposure to CB agents? (without liquid)

A

6 hours

88
Q

The automatic chemical agent alarm can be used to detect blister agents arriving in an area from an upwind chemical attack.

A

False

89
Q

Who is responsible for the operation of the Mount-Out Control Center (MOCC)?

A

XO

90
Q

What manual governs the handling of hazardous cargo for air, land and sea movements?

A

NAVSUP PUB 505

91
Q

What are the three-color classifications used in determining convoy road routes?

A

Green, yellow, red

92
Q

How many 463L pallets will fit onboard a C-141 Starlifter aircraft?

A

13

93
Q

What is the maximum height cargo can be loaded on a 463L pallet?

A

96 inches

94
Q

Which formula is used to determine the center of balance of a vehicle?

A

(W1 x D1) + (W2 x D2)

GVW

95
Q

which of the following best describes class III materials?

A

Petroleums, Oils and Lubricants.

96
Q

Which of the following best describes class VIII materials?

A

Medical supplies

97
Q

Which of the following best describes class V materials?

A

Ammunition

98
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Advance
Officer?

A

Post traffic control personnel

99
Q

A yellow road route indicates that hostile activity is imminent.

A

False

100
Q

Minor property is valued between?

A

$300 and 5000

101
Q

Plant property has a useful life of how long?

A

2+ years

102
Q

Every construction project is required to have a Bill of Material (BM).

A

True

103
Q

What is the NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?

A

Increase/decrease allowance quantities.

104
Q

What form is used to keep camouflage utility uniform records?

A

COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT 4400/3

105
Q

What form would you use to order an item by part numbered?

A

1250-2

106
Q

What form would be used to receive or release an item?

A

DD 1348-1A

107
Q

An NMCB’s OPTAR is issued by what authority?

A

2nd/3rd Naval Construction Brigade

108
Q

What dollar value of tool loss requires a DD 200(survey)?

A

Line item over $35

Total loss over $100

109
Q

If an item experiences 2 or more hits within a year, it qualifies for the Selected Item Management (SIM) program.

A

False

110
Q

What is definition of COSAL?

A

Consolidated SEABEE Allowance list.

Coordinated Shipboard Allowance list.

111
Q

CSR stands for Central Supply Room.

A

False

112
Q

What is the main function of an Amphibious Construction Battalion
(PHIBCB)?

A

To provide amphibious construction support.

113
Q

In today’s Navy, what is the contingency function of a Construction Battalion Unit (CBU)?

A

Fleet Hospital support or NMCB augment.

113
Q

In today’s Navy, what is the contingency function of a Construction Battalion Unit (CBU)?

A

Fleet Hospital support or NMCB augment.

114
Q

What is the main function of Charlie/Delta Company in a

Naval Mobile Construction Battalion (NMCB)?

A

All vertical construction

115
Q

What does EDVR stand for?

A

Enlisted distribution and verification report

116
Q

What is an EDVR?

A

A monthly statement of an activity’s enlisted personnel account.

117
Q

In which publication will you find the Personnel Readiness Capability Program (PRCP)?

A

NAVFAC P-458

118
Q

What is the purpose of the PRCP?

A

To provide accurate, up to date, personnel information so the NCF can accomplish its mission.

119
Q

What is the acronym used for the post, that controls the

embarkation operations?

A

MOCC

120
Q

Which of the following departments is directly responsible for all TOA weapons?

A

S-7

121
Q

Which of the following departments is directly responsible for
maintenance of and training in communication?

A

S-6

122
Q

What is WHE?

A

Weight handling equipment

123
Q

What is BEEP?

A

Battalion equipment evaluation program.

124
Q

What number would be found on a Government license containing
trucks, blazers, buses, HMMWV and passenger vehicles?

A

OF 346

125
Q

After checking out a vehicle out of dispatch, what type of

maintenance is performed by you prior to operating the vehicle?

A

Operator Maintenance.

First Echelon Maintenance.

126
Q

If involved in an accident, what should be filled out by the
operator prior to leaving the scene?

A

SF 91

127
Q

Of the inspections done on camp facilities, which one does the
Battalion personnel not normally perform?

A

None of the above

128
Q

What are the correct procedures for Rapid Runway Repair?

A

Identify craters, deliver stock pile and place fill,
repair craters, position matting, assemble matting, anchor
matting, clean/sweep and paint runway.

129
Q

What is required before issuing project material?

A

1250-1

130
Q

How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level one
and two in order to satisfy the requirements of Rapid Runway Repair?

A

46 at level one, 20 at level two

131
Q

Why is it important to have quality control and project safety plans
contained in the project package?

A

To ensure standards of construction are maintained and work is being
performed in a safe manner.

132
Q

Construction Activity Summary Sheets (CASS) are used to identify all
material, personnel resources, equipment needed and all quality control
and safety requirements.

A

True

133
Q

In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in volume two?

A

3

134
Q

What does the acronym ABFC stand for?

A

Advance Base Functional Components.

135
Q

What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from
messing facilities?

A

35 yards

136
Q

What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can located from

water supplies?

A

100 yards

137
Q

Radio call signs would be listed in which portion of a

five-paragraph order?

A

Command and signal

138
Q

What minimum distance must a latrine be from water or messing?

A

100 yards

139
Q

Normally, how long should a generator be allowed to warm up
before a load is applied?

A

15 minutes

140
Q

Distribution of ammunition to the platoon (s) is the

responsibility of the?

A

Platoon Right Guide

141
Q

The Grenadier should always be positioned near the

A

Squad leader

142
Q

Who is considered the backbone of the fire team?

A

Automatic rifleman

143
Q

The barriers and obstacles should be placed within hand

grenade range.

A

false

144
Q

The fire plan sketch is prepared by the fire team leader and
submitted to the ___________ for approval?

A

Squad leader

145
Q

When a challenge and password are prescribed, the challenge

is given by the sentry

A

After the person has advanced to be recognized.

146
Q

Who is ultimately responsibility for the security of the command
lies with the _____________?

A

CO

147
Q

Who is ultimately responsibility for the security of the command
lies with the _____________?

A

false

148
Q

The ammunition for the MK-19 40MM Machine Gun is interchangeable
with M203 ammunition.

A

false

149
Q

The High Explosive (HE) round of ammunition for the MK-19

40 MM Machine Gun has a kill radius of ___________ meters?

A

5

150
Q

The M67 fragmentation grenade has a killing radius of ________ meters?

A

5

SCW (16 decks)

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