Practice Test 02 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the responsibility of the Commanding Officer as applied to safety?
A
Ultimately responsible for all safety matters within the Command.
2
Q
What is the responsibility of the Executive Officer as applied to safety?
A
Chairman of the Safety Policy Council.
3
Q
What is responsibility of the Safety Officer?
A
To serve as an advisor to the CO on safety issues.
4
Q
What is the responsibility of all hands as applied to safety?
A
Implement safety policies
Conduct all safety training.
Wear appropriate safety attire at all times.
(all of the above)
5
Q
What is the purpose of a Mishap Investigation?
A
To establish the cause of the mishap and prevent reoccurrence.
6
Q
What is characteristic of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
A
It containing safety information on a product or chemical.
7
Q
State when single hearing protective devices are required.
A
When noise levels are between 84 and 103 dB.
8
Q
When are personnel required to enter into a hearing conservation program?
A
When their workspace exposes them to noise levels greater than 84 decibels.
9
Q
When are ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI) required?
A
When using all electrical power tools and extension cords.
10
Q
What type of respirators are available for use by the NCF?
A
SCBA, Air purifying, Supplied Air
11
Q
What are the minimum requirements for respirator use?
A
Know how to identify respiratory hazards.
Know how to properly care for the respirator.
Have a proper fit test and donning procedure.
(all of the above)
12
Q
What is the main purpose of the Navy Recreation, Athletics, and Home Safety Program?
A
To protect personnel from accidental death or injury, which occur in the home and during recreational activities.
13
Q
When are steel-toed boots required to be worn?
A
in all shops, all projects, (both a+b)
14
Q
What is the importance of the Command Asbestos Policy?
A
To control exposure to asbestos
15
Q
How many levels of application are there for ORM?
A
3
16
Q
ORM should be used at what leadership level?
A
Lowest level
17
Q
Which of the following is a goal of ORM?
A
Maintain readiness and effectiveness
18
Q
The 5 steps of ORM planning are similar to what other acronym we commonly use?
A
SMEAC
19
Q
A risk assessment code (RAC) of 1 is considered
A
Extremely high
20
Q
ORM supports mission accomplishment and troop welfare.
A
True
21
Q
What is the definition of first aid?
A
Emergency care given to a sick or injured person. Emergency care that takes the place of medical care. Asistance given to an injured person. (AOTA)
22
Q
What is the purpose of first aid?
A
To save lives. To provide resistance to infection. To prevent further injury.
(AOTA)
23
Q
What is the ratio of chest compressions to breaths for 1 person CPR?
A
15 to 2
24
Q
If an artery is cut, how will blood exit the wound?
A
Spurting in pulses
25
If a victim shows signs of shock and the injuries permit, which of the following actions should you take?
Elevate the feet 6 to 12 inches
26
What method is the easiest for one person to lift and carry a casualty?
Fireman's carry
27
Which of the following conditions defines shock?
Blood circulation is seriously disturbed.
28
A victim in shock often feels _________,his skin is _______,and feels cold and _______
Weak, Pale, Moist
29
Two major problems of injuries, which include broken skin, are_________ and ________
Infection and serious blood loss
30
What is a pressure point?
A place where the artery is close to the skin surface and over a bone.
31
How many pressure points, are on each side of the body, which may be used to control bleeding.
11
32
What heat exposure injury results from a loss of excessive amounts of salt and water
Heat exhaustion
33
What type of weather causes the most severe cold injuries?
Cold, wet and windy
34
It is best to make your preliminary investigation of the victim in the same position that you found them.
True
35
Which of the following is not a method of purifying water?
Super-chlorinate
36
How often should you clean any weapon?
After each use plus monthly
37
What is the shooting positions when qualifying with the M16A2E3 rifle?
Standing, sitting, and prone
38
Which grenade launcher attaches to the M16A2E3 rifle?
48mm grenade launcher
39
What is the maximum effective range of the M60 machine gun?
1100m
40
ow many personnel make up a M60 gun team?
3
41
When should the headspace on the M2HB.50 cal be checked?
Before firing and after each barrel change
42
How many different types of grenades are there in use in the NCF?
6
43
The M67 is what type of grenade?
Fragmentation
44
The safety pin on the MK1 Illumination grenade can be replaced after being pulled.
False
45
The M57 firing device is used with:
The M18A1
46
What do all grenades used in the (NCF) have in common?
They have a body, filler and fuse.
47
The maximum effective range of the M2HB machine gun is:
1830m
48
How many safeties, other than the gunner, does the M2HB .50 cal machine guns have?
None
49
What are the methods of firing the M224 60mm mortar?
Conventional and hand held
50
What type of ammunition has a red or orange tip?
Tracer
51
The MK19 Mod 3 is an
Air-cooled, blowback operated, belt fed,
| fully automatic machine-gun.
52
Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on the web belt of the 782 gear?
Canteen
53
Which of the following is the simplest fighting position.
Hasty individual position
54
Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a ground flare while on a security patrol?
Move out of the light as quickly and quietly as possible.
55
How many basic colors are used on a military map?
5
56
What does the reddish brown color signify on a military map?
All relief features
57
How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?
12
58
The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied, and keep it clear of the enemy.
True
59
What is the first priority of work upon completion of a security sweep?
Security
60
Which of the following is not a part of a battalions AOR?
Bivouac area
61
Who is responsible for the discipline, appearance, and training of a squad?
Squad leader
62
What is the maximum range of the M203 Grenade launcher?
400m
63
If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give to your captors?
Name, rank, ssn, dob
64
What is the seventh general order of a sentry?
To talk to no one except in the line of duty.
65
When camouflaging, you should camouflage against both ground and air observation.
True
66
The weapons platoon commander is usually whom?
Chief
67
How many fighting positions are used in a defense?
3
68
What is the maximum range of the AN/PRC 119A radio?
10 miles
69
The TA-312/PT telephone has a range of how many miles?
14 to 22 miles
70
By “stacking” the SB-22/PT switchboard and utilizing the operator pack how many lines can be served?
29
71
What is the least secure means of communication?
Radio
72
When transmitting from your station to another, the receiving station comes back to you with a response of: BEADWINDOW-03. What would your response be?
Roger out
73
To expedite radio traffic, you use a word or phrase that has been assigned a specific meaning for radio and telephone transmission purposes. This word is known as an
Proword
74
What term is used to identify a security breech of EEFI, (Essential, Elements of Friendly Information), over a clear circuit?
Beadwindow
75
What are the four prowords normally used in handling radio messages, and what order would they be from fastest too slowest?
Flash, Immediate, Priority and Routine.
76
A KL-43 is used to load encrypted frequencies
False
77
The piece of gear used to operate an AN\PRC 119 from a remote location is?
ANGRA 39
78
Atropine is a substance used for:
Reversal of the effects of nerve agents
79
Chemical agents are used to produce death, injury and temporary incapacitating or irritating effects.
True
80
Which of the following are anti-personnel agents?
Casualty agents.
Non-lethal incapacitating agents.
Harassing agents.
aota
81
What is a NAAK, Mark 1?
A nerve agent antidote kit
82
Which of the following is the standard field protective mask?
The MCU-2P
83
What should all Seabees know about a biological attack?
It is normally difficult to recognize or detect.
It may be used to supplement other types of attacks.
It may be used to cause either delayed death or
incapacitation for strategic purposes.
aota
84
How many MOPP levels are there in NMCB-74’s Tactical SOP?
5
85
MOPP is a flexible system of protection against chemical
| agents used to facilitate mission accomplishment in chemical warfare.
True
86
How many personnel are required to run an efficient Personnel Decontamination Station?
13
87
How long will the MKIII Chemical Protective Overgarment, provide protection after exposure to CB agents? (without liquid)
6 hours
88
The automatic chemical agent alarm can be used to detect blister agents arriving in an area from an upwind chemical attack.
False
89
Who is responsible for the operation of the Mount-Out Control Center (MOCC)?
XO
90
What manual governs the handling of hazardous cargo for air, land and sea movements?
NAVSUP PUB 505
91
What are the three-color classifications used in determining convoy road routes?
Green, yellow, red
92
How many 463L pallets will fit onboard a C-141 Starlifter aircraft?
13
93
What is the maximum height cargo can be loaded on a 463L pallet?
96 inches
94
Which formula is used to determine the center of balance of a vehicle?
(W1 x D1) + (W2 x D2)
| GVW
95
which of the following best describes class III materials?
Petroleums, Oils and Lubricants.
96
Which of the following best describes class VIII materials?
Medical supplies
97
Which of the following best describes class V materials?
Ammunition
98
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Advance
Officer?
Post traffic control personnel
99
A yellow road route indicates that hostile activity is imminent.
False
100
Minor property is valued between?
$300 and 5000
101
Plant property has a useful life of how long?
2+ years
102
Every construction project is required to have a Bill of Material (BM).
True
103
What is the NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?
Increase/decrease allowance quantities.
104
What form is used to keep camouflage utility uniform records?
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT 4400/3
105
What form would you use to order an item by part numbered?
1250-2
106
What form would be used to receive or release an item?
DD 1348-1A
107
An NMCB’s OPTAR is issued by what authority?
2nd/3rd Naval Construction Brigade
108
What dollar value of tool loss requires a DD 200(survey)?
Line item over $35
| Total loss over $100
109
If an item experiences 2 or more hits within a year, it qualifies for the Selected Item Management (SIM) program.
False
110
What is definition of COSAL?
Consolidated SEABEE Allowance list.
| Coordinated Shipboard Allowance list.
111
CSR stands for Central Supply Room.
False
112
What is the main function of an Amphibious Construction Battalion
(PHIBCB)?
To provide amphibious construction support.
113
In today's Navy, what is the contingency function of a Construction Battalion Unit (CBU)?
Fleet Hospital support or NMCB augment.
113
In today's Navy, what is the contingency function of a Construction Battalion Unit (CBU)?
Fleet Hospital support or NMCB augment.
114
What is the main function of Charlie/Delta Company in a
| Naval Mobile Construction Battalion (NMCB)?
All vertical construction
115
What does EDVR stand for?
Enlisted distribution and verification report
116
What is an EDVR?
A monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
117
In which publication will you find the Personnel Readiness Capability Program (PRCP)?
NAVFAC P-458
118
What is the purpose of the PRCP?
To provide accurate, up to date, personnel information so the NCF can accomplish its mission.
119
What is the acronym used for the post, that controls the
| embarkation operations?
MOCC
120
Which of the following departments is directly responsible for all TOA weapons?
S-7
121
Which of the following departments is directly responsible for
maintenance of and training in communication?
S-6
122
What is WHE?
Weight handling equipment
123
What is BEEP?
Battalion equipment evaluation program.
124
What number would be found on a Government license containing
trucks, blazers, buses, HMMWV and passenger vehicles?
OF 346
125
After checking out a vehicle out of dispatch, what type of
| maintenance is performed by you prior to operating the vehicle?
Operator Maintenance.
| First Echelon Maintenance.
126
If involved in an accident, what should be filled out by the
operator prior to leaving the scene?
SF 91
127
Of the inspections done on camp facilities, which one does the
Battalion personnel not normally perform?
None of the above
128
What are the correct procedures for Rapid Runway Repair?
Identify craters, deliver stock pile and place fill,
repair craters, position matting, assemble matting, anchor
matting, clean/sweep and paint runway.
129
What is required before issuing project material?
1250-1
130
How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level one
and two in order to satisfy the requirements of Rapid Runway Repair?
46 at level one, 20 at level two
131
Why is it important to have quality control and project safety plans
contained in the project package?
To ensure standards of construction are maintained and work is being
performed in a safe manner.
132
Construction Activity Summary Sheets (CASS) are used to identify all
material, personnel resources, equipment needed and all quality control
and safety requirements.
True
133
In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in volume two?
3
134
What does the acronym ABFC stand for?
Advance Base Functional Components.
135
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from
messing facilities?
35 yards
136
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can located from
| water supplies?
100 yards
137
Radio call signs would be listed in which portion of a
| five-paragraph order?
Command and signal
138
What minimum distance must a latrine be from water or messing?
100 yards
139
Normally, how long should a generator be allowed to warm up
before a load is applied?
15 minutes
140
Distribution of ammunition to the platoon (s) is the
| responsibility of the?
Platoon Right Guide
141
The Grenadier should always be positioned near the
Squad leader
142
Who is considered the backbone of the fire team?
Automatic rifleman
143
The barriers and obstacles should be placed within hand
| grenade range.
false
144
The fire plan sketch is prepared by the fire team leader and
submitted to the ___________ for approval?
Squad leader
145
When a challenge and password are prescribed, the challenge
| is given by the sentry
After the person has advanced to be recognized.
146
Who is ultimately responsibility for the security of the command
lies with the _____________?
CO
147
Who is ultimately responsibility for the security of the command
lies with the _____________?
false
148
The ammunition for the MK-19 40MM Machine Gun is interchangeable
with M203 ammunition.
false
149
The High Explosive (HE) round of ammunition for the MK-19
| 40 MM Machine Gun has a kill radius of ___________ meters?
5
150
The M67 fragmentation grenade has a killing radius of ________ meters?
5
