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SCW > Practice Test 01 > Flashcards

Practice Test 01 Flashcards

1
Q

Seabee Birthday

A

March 5, 1942

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2
Q

How many articles are contained in the Code of Conduct for U.S. fighting forces?

A

6

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3
Q

Only seabee to recieve MOH

A

Marvin G. Shields

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4
Q

Which of the following plans or orders provides the course of action to accomplish a future mission

A

Operation Plan

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5
Q

What plan or order gives the authority to initiate supply,

personnel and administrative procedures required by a move?

A

Execution Order

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6
Q

What center provides the primary centralized control facilities
for the Battalion Commander?

A

COC

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7
Q

What center controls, coordinates, and monitors movement of
personnel, supplies, and equipment to an embarkation staging
area?

A

MOCC [Mount Out Control Center]

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8
Q

Which of the following reports provides a monthly statement of a
command’s enlisted personnel account?

A

EDVR [Enlisted Distribution Verification Report]

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9
Q

Whose primary duties include providing advice and expertise in
small arms?

A

Military Advisor

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10
Q

Who is the legal officer in the Battalion?

A

S-1 [Administrative Officer]

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11
Q

Which company is known as the general Construction Company?

A

C-Co

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12
Q

The distribution of personnel shortages and excesses is determined by what document?

A

Naval Manning Plan

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13
Q

Who prepares operation orders for the Battalion?

A

S-3 [Operations Officer]

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14
Q

Establishing equal opportunity programs for each command is the responsibility of the

A

Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer

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15
Q

Which company is known as the Shops and Utilities Company?

A

B-Co

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16
Q

At what current level does the GFCI trip?

A

3-5 mA

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17
Q

Which of the following OPNAV forms is for Unsafe/Unhealthful Working Condition Reporting?

A

OPNAV 5100/11

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18
Q

Which of the following is/are worn at all construction sites,
shop spaces, warehouses, storage yards, industrial areas and
other areas designated by the Safety Officer?

A

Steel-Toed Shoes and Hard Hats(both a+b)

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19
Q

Who chairs the Command’s safety policy committee?

A

XO

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20
Q

Which of the following shop operations has the highest potential
for eye hazards?

A

Cutting or Welding metals

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21
Q

Prior to first use, temporary power sources are inspected, certified safe and

A

Tagged

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22
Q

A lockout device can be any device that is designed to secure a
switch, valve or similar item in the

A

“Off” or “Safe” Position

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23
Q

Navy personnel must enter a hearing testing program when they work for an eight-hour period in a designated hazardous noise area above what decibel level?

A

84 dB

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24
Q

Who is authorized to certify a confined space as safe for personnel to enter?

A

Gas-Free Engineer

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25
Q

A combination of insert type and circumaural type hearing protective devices are required in areas where noise exceeds what decibel level?

A

104 dB

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26
Q

What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?

A

To prevent similar mishaps

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27
Q

What type(s) of respirator(s) is/are used by the NCF?

A

SCBA, Air Purifying, Supplied Air, [All of the above]

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28
Q

The command asbestos policy is extremely important since asbestos is recognized as a/an

A

Major Health Hazard

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29
Q

How many principal pressure points are there on the human body?

A

22

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30
Q

The abdominal thrust (Heimlich) maneuver is a treatment for which of the following?

A

Choking

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31
Q

In the body the large vessels that carry blood from the heart are

A

Arteries

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32
Q

Which of the following should not be done when examining an injured person?

A

Describe the victim’s injuries to him/her in graphic detail

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33
Q

Which of the following can not be used to remove a victim that is in contact with an energized circuit?

A

Your hands

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34
Q

Shock is a condition in which the circulation of blood is seriously disturbed and causes a lack of oxygen to body systems.

A

True

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35
Q

What is the first method used in the control of bleeding?

A

Direct pressure

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36
Q

It is imperative that a sucking chest wound be sealed as soon as possible with an airtight dressing taped on 4 sides.

A

False

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37
Q

What type of burn forms blisters and is often the most painful?

A

Second degree

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38
Q

What type of heat casualty exhibits the following signs: hot dry skin, constricted pupils and a very high body temperature?

A

Heat stroke

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39
Q

A victim that is shivering, listless, indifferent, and drowsy is most likely suffering from

A

Hypothermia

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40
Q

When reinforcing a battle dressing you should always remove the old dressing before applying another dressing.

A

False

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41
Q

In a _________ fracture, the bone breaks the skin and tissues.

A

Open or Compound

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42
Q

Which of the following is not a method of disinfecting water for drinking in the field?

A

Reverse Osmosis

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43
Q

When performing 1-man CPR, the ratio of breaths to heart compressions is?

A

2 to 15

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44
Q

When performing 2-man CPR, the ratios of breaths to heart compressions is?

A

1 to 5

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45
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?

A

All of the above (theres a lot of info)

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46
Q

Personal protection equipment is not required when handling Hazardous Materials or Hazardous Waste.

A

False

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47
Q

What is the storage procedure for incompatible materials?

A

Materials may be stored in approved containers if they are separated and placed a minimum of 50 feet from an ignition
source

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48
Q

Explain the general procedures to follow when a Hazardous Material / Hazardous Waste (HM/HW) spill is discovered.

A

Respond immediately with approved team, equipment, disposal plan, reports made and tests conducted for remaining contamination and disposal within strict guidelines

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49
Q

Which best describes the required training for all hands with respect to the HM/HW program?

A

All of the above (lotta info)

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50
Q

The purpose of secondary labeling of hazardous material is to inform the user by means of words, pictures, and/or symbols, the
specific health hazards, of the chemical in the container.

A

True

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51
Q

Booming is an effective means of oil spill containment on calm water.

A

True

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52
Q

Minor property is valued between

A

$300-5000

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53
Q

What is the NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?

A

A change in allowance quantities

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54
Q

What form is used to receive or turn in material to DRMO?

A

DD 1348-1A

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55
Q

What dollar value of tool loss requires a DD 200(survey)?

A

Line item>$35
Total loss>$100
(both a and b)

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56
Q

If item experiences 2 or more demands (hits) within a year, it qualifies for the Selected Item Management (SIM) program.

A

False

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57
Q

What is purpose of a COSAL?

A

To provide authority to stock repair parts

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58
Q

The Supply Officer of an NMCB is responsible for CTR and MLO as well as the traditional supply outlets.

A

True

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59
Q

The thirteen digit stock number that identifies items in the federal supply system is known as the

A

NSN

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60
Q

This ________ lists all repair parts installed in equipment and the components to which they apply.

A

APL

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61
Q

The two-character alphanumeric code designating inventory manager is known as the

A

COG

62
Q

Which of the following acronyms is used when an item is ordered and not on station?

A

NIS

63
Q

The inventory control principle is known as

A

SIM

64
Q

Which functional outlet issues and inventories repair parts for CESE and material handling equipment?

A

ARP

65
Q

A listing of equipment and its support material, which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1200 construction hours or 60 days, is the

A

COSAL

66
Q

hich of the following forms is used as a requisition and consumption-reporting document for procuring non-NSN material?

A

NAVSUP 1250-2

67
Q

Which of the following forms is used to establish custody of utility uniform articles?

A

COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT 4400/3

68
Q

What is the Frequency Range of the AN/PRC-119?

A

30 to 87.975 Mhz in 25 kHz steps

69
Q

How many Crypto fills can a KYK-13 hold in its memory?

A

6

70
Q

While monitoring the Battalion Tactical Net, you notice that someone is using your call sign. What is the correct procedure you should follow?

A

Call Gingerbread on that particular net

71
Q

What is the least secure means of communication?

A

Radio

72
Q

While transmitting from your station to another, the receiving station responds with “Beadwindow” what is your response?

A

Roger out

73
Q

By stacking the SB-22 switchboard and utilizing the operator pack, how many lines can be utilized?

A

29

74
Q

The TA-312/PT has a range of how many miles?

A

14-22

75
Q

What three factors effect radio communication?

A

Weather, Terrain, Frequency of transmission

76
Q

When handling Top Secret information, what is one of the conditions that must exist?

A

Two Person Integrity

77
Q

What is one of the capabilities of the AN/PRC-119?

A

Line of sight communication

78
Q

What is the primary method of communicating in a defense area?

A

Wire

79
Q

what is the secondary method of communicating in a defense area?

A

Radio

80
Q

Which of the following prowords is used to pass extremely critical messages?

A

Flash

81
Q

the safety on any weapon is to remain on safe until you are actually aiming at a target and ready to fire.

A

True

82
Q

what is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

A

50m

83
Q

The M9 pistol has how many safeties?

A

1

84
Q

What is the maximum range of the M16A2E3?

A

3534m

85
Q

The maximum effective range of the M16A2E3 point and area target
are?

A

550/800m

86
Q

What type of fire is not less than 1m above and not higher than 68 inches above the ground and can exist for 700m over level or evenly sloping ground?

A

Grazing

86
Q

What type of fire is not less than 1m above and not higher than 68 inches above the ground and can exist for 700m over level or evenly sloping ground?

A

Grazing

87
Q

Firing over hills, forests walls and other defenses is a tactical purpose of the 60mm.

A

True

88
Q

What is the maximum effective range of the MK-19 40mm machine gun?

A

1500m

89
Q

What is a delay beyond normal ignition time for round functioning?

A

Hangfire

90
Q

What is the actual rate of fire a weapon can deliver for an indefinite period is?

A

Sustained rate of fire

91
Q

What is the complete failure of a round to fire called?

A

Misfire

92
Q

What are the maximum ranges for point and area targets for the M203 grenade launcher?

A

150/350m

93
Q

What are the maximum effective range and maximum range for the M2HB.50 Cal?

A

1830/6800m

94
Q

Which of the following grenades is used to destroy equipment?

A

Incendiary

95
Q

Which grenade produces 55,000-candle power for a period of 25 seconds?

A

Illuminating

96
Q

What is the effective casualty radius of the M-67 fragmentation grenade?

A

15

97
Q

What type of grenade is used for signaling?

A

Colored Smoke

98
Q

What is the theoretical number of rounds a weapon can fire in 1 minute called?

A

Cyclic rate of fire

99
Q

Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on the web belt of the 782 gear?

A

Canteen

100
Q

Which of the following is the simplest fighting position?

A

Hasty individual position

101
Q

What is the definition of concealment?

A

Protection from enemy observation

102
Q

Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a ground flare while on a security patrol?

A

Move out of the light as quickly as possible

103
Q

How many basic colors are used on a military map?

A

5

104
Q

What does the reddish-brown color signify on a military map?

A

All relief features

105
Q

How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?

A

12

106
Q

The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied, and keep it clear of the enemy.

A

True

107
Q

If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give to your captors?

A

Your name, rank, SSN and DOB

108
Q

How many fighting positions are used in a defense?

A

3

109
Q

What position is used to protect against a surprise enemy attack?

A

Supplementary

110
Q

Within a barrier plan, what are the 3 classes of wire entanglements?

A

Supplementary, tactical, protective

111
Q

What basic fire team formation provides good all around security?

A

Wedge

112
Q

In defensive combat, emphasis is placed on which of the following types of patrols?

A

Security

113
Q

Fire commands consist of six necessary elements. The first letter of the most important word of each of these elements is used to form what acronym?

A

ADDRAC

114
Q

What consideration has the highest priority in the selection of tent campsite?

A

Tactical

115
Q

What is the first priority of the Rapid Runway Repair organization?

A

Establishment of a minimum operating strip

116
Q

When transporting causeways, aboard which of the following ships is side loading accomplished?

A

LST

117
Q

What form is filled out using the Battalion’s Level II Master Activities Summary Sheet?

A

Construction activity summary sheet

118
Q

What does the acronym ABFC stand for?

A

Advance base functional components

119
Q

In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in volume two?

A

3

120
Q

Which of the following is included among the contents of the NAVFAC P-437?

A

Drawings of facilities and assemblies

121
Q

In the ABFC system, what code identifies assemblies required for use in Northern temperature zone?

A

N

122
Q

What is the minimum number of Rapid Runway Repair (RRR) command center personnel a battalion should have qualified?

A

72

123
Q

How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level one and two in order to satisfy the requirements of Rapid Runway Repair?

A

46 at level 1, 20 at level 2

124
Q

What type of fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire?

A

Portable CO2 extinguisher

125
Q

What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing facilities?

A

30 yards

125
Q

What is the minimum distance latrines and garbage pits can be located from the nearest natural water supply?

A

100 yards

126
Q

What is the most common method of disinfecting drinking water?

A

Chlorination

127
Q

If exposed to chemical agents, how long will the MK-III chemical protective overgarment provides protection?

A

6 hours

128
Q

The M8A1 automatic chemical agent alarm system can be used to detect a blister agent attack.

A

False

129
Q

Headache, runny nose, excessive salivation, difficulty breathing, nausea, pinpointed pupils, and localized twitching of muscles are symptoms of exposure to what?

A

Nerve agents

130
Q

Bloodshot eyes, irritation of throat, hoarseness, coughing, and burns in moist areas are symptoms of what?

A

Exposure to blister agents

131
Q

Dryness of throat, coughing, headache, burning eyes, and accumulation of fluid in the lungs are all symptoms of exposure to choking agents.

A

True

132
Q

The M8 chemical detector paper detects what chemical agents?

A

Blister, G series nerve agent, V series nerve agent, (all of the above)

133
Q

Which of the following chemical agent liquids will M9 paper detect and what color will the M9 paper show?

A

Blood agent / red

Nerve agent / red (both a+c)

134
Q

MOPP gear exchange is performed during what level of decontamination?

A

Operational

135
Q

What is used to perform immediate skin decontamination?

A

m291 sdk

136
Q

Skin decontamination should be accomplished within how many Minute(s) of exposure?

A

one minute

137
Q

Areas of terrain contaminated with chemical agents should be
identified with which of the following marking signs?

A

Yellow background with red letters

138
Q

What are the three different types of CBR surveys?

A

Area, point, and route

139
Q

When netting a 463L pallet, which way do the hooks face and how many D-rings does the pallet have?

A

Inboard/22

140
Q

What are the ACLs for the following aircrafts: C-130, C-141, C-17 and C-5, respectively?

A

25K, 50k, 90k, 150k

141
Q

In a convoy what is the Maintenance Officer responsible for?

A

Maintenance of equipment on convoy, Repairing break downs, Towing equipment

142
Q

What are the three-color classifications of convoy routes?

A

Green, Yellow, Red

143
Q

What are sixcons used for?

A

Water and fuel

144
Q

What do MHE and WHE stand for, respectively?

A

Material Handling Equipment / Weight Handling Equipment

145
Q

What colors are the background of the Organic and Augment Equipment decals?

A

Red/ White

146
Q

What is a SF-91 is used for?

A

Accident Report

147
Q

A vehicle must be in at least what condition code to be in Live Storage?

A

A5

148
Q

ORM will always eliminate risks?

A

False

149
Q

What is the correct ORM sequence?

A

Identify hazards, assess hazards, and make risk decisions, supervise.

SCW (16 decks)

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