Practice Test 01 Flashcards
1
Q
Seabee Birthday
A
March 5, 1942
2
Q
How many articles are contained in the Code of Conduct for U.S. fighting forces?
A
6
3
Q
Only seabee to recieve MOH
A
Marvin G. Shields
4
Q
Which of the following plans or orders provides the course of action to accomplish a future mission
A
Operation Plan
5
Q
What plan or order gives the authority to initiate supply,
personnel and administrative procedures required by a move?
A
Execution Order
6
Q
What center provides the primary centralized control facilities
for the Battalion Commander?
A
COC
7
Q
What center controls, coordinates, and monitors movement of
personnel, supplies, and equipment to an embarkation staging
area?
A
MOCC [Mount Out Control Center]
8
Q
Which of the following reports provides a monthly statement of a
command’s enlisted personnel account?
A
EDVR [Enlisted Distribution Verification Report]
9
Q
Whose primary duties include providing advice and expertise in
small arms?
A
Military Advisor
10
Q
Who is the legal officer in the Battalion?
A
S-1 [Administrative Officer]
11
Q
Which company is known as the general Construction Company?
A
C-Co
12
Q
The distribution of personnel shortages and excesses is determined by what document?
A
Naval Manning Plan
13
Q
Who prepares operation orders for the Battalion?
A
S-3 [Operations Officer]
14
Q
Establishing equal opportunity programs for each command is the responsibility of the
A
Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer
15
Q
Which company is known as the Shops and Utilities Company?
A
B-Co
16
Q
At what current level does the GFCI trip?
A
3-5 mA
17
Q
Which of the following OPNAV forms is for Unsafe/Unhealthful Working Condition Reporting?
A
OPNAV 5100/11
18
Q
Which of the following is/are worn at all construction sites,
shop spaces, warehouses, storage yards, industrial areas and
other areas designated by the Safety Officer?
A
Steel-Toed Shoes and Hard Hats(both a+b)
19
Q
Who chairs the Command’s safety policy committee?
A
XO
20
Q
Which of the following shop operations has the highest potential
for eye hazards?
A
Cutting or Welding metals
21
Q
Prior to first use, temporary power sources are inspected, certified safe and
A
Tagged
22
Q
A lockout device can be any device that is designed to secure a
switch, valve or similar item in the
A
“Off” or “Safe” Position
23
Q
Navy personnel must enter a hearing testing program when they work for an eight-hour period in a designated hazardous noise area above what decibel level?
A
84 dB
24
Q
Who is authorized to certify a confined space as safe for personnel to enter?
A
Gas-Free Engineer
25
A combination of insert type and circumaural type hearing protective devices are required in areas where noise exceeds what decibel level?
104 dB
26
What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
To prevent similar mishaps
27
What type(s) of respirator(s) is/are used by the NCF?
SCBA, Air Purifying, Supplied Air, [All of the above]
28
The command asbestos policy is extremely important since asbestos is recognized as a/an
Major Health Hazard
29
How many principal pressure points are there on the human body?
22
30
The abdominal thrust (Heimlich) maneuver is a treatment for which of the following?
Choking
31
In the body the large vessels that carry blood from the heart are
Arteries
32
Which of the following should not be done when examining an injured person?
Describe the victim’s injuries to him/her in graphic detail
33
Which of the following can not be used to remove a victim that is in contact with an energized circuit?
Your hands
34
Shock is a condition in which the circulation of blood is seriously disturbed and causes a lack of oxygen to body systems.
True
35
What is the first method used in the control of bleeding?
Direct pressure
36
It is imperative that a sucking chest wound be sealed as soon as possible with an airtight dressing taped on 4 sides.
False
37
What type of burn forms blisters and is often the most painful?
Second degree
38
What type of heat casualty exhibits the following signs: hot dry skin, constricted pupils and a very high body temperature?
Heat stroke
39
A victim that is shivering, listless, indifferent, and drowsy is most likely suffering from
Hypothermia
40
When reinforcing a battle dressing you should always remove the old dressing before applying another dressing.
False
41
In a _________ fracture, the bone breaks the skin and tissues.
Open or Compound
42
Which of the following is not a method of disinfecting water for drinking in the field?
Reverse Osmosis
43
When performing 1-man CPR, the ratio of breaths to heart compressions is?
2 to 15
44
When performing 2-man CPR, the ratios of breaths to heart compressions is?
1 to 5
45
Which of the following are characteristics of the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
All of the above (theres a lot of info)
46
Personal protection equipment is not required when handling Hazardous Materials or Hazardous Waste.
False
47
What is the storage procedure for incompatible materials?
Materials may be stored in approved containers if they are separated and placed a minimum of 50 feet from an ignition
source
48
Explain the general procedures to follow when a Hazardous Material / Hazardous Waste (HM/HW) spill is discovered.
Respond immediately with approved team, equipment, disposal plan, reports made and tests conducted for remaining contamination and disposal within strict guidelines
49
Which best describes the required training for all hands with respect to the HM/HW program?
All of the above (lotta info)
50
The purpose of secondary labeling of hazardous material is to inform the user by means of words, pictures, and/or symbols, the
specific health hazards, of the chemical in the container.
True
51
Booming is an effective means of oil spill containment on calm water.
True
52
Minor property is valued between
$300-5000
53
What is the NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?
A change in allowance quantities
54
What form is used to receive or turn in material to DRMO?
DD 1348-1A
55
What dollar value of tool loss requires a DD 200(survey)?
Line item>$35
Total loss>$100
(both a and b)
56
If item experiences 2 or more demands (hits) within a year, it qualifies for the Selected Item Management (SIM) program.
False
57
What is purpose of a COSAL?
To provide authority to stock repair parts
58
The Supply Officer of an NMCB is responsible for CTR and MLO as well as the traditional supply outlets.
True
59
The thirteen digit stock number that identifies items in the federal supply system is known as the
NSN
60
This ________ lists all repair parts installed in equipment and the components to which they apply.
APL
61
The two-character alphanumeric code designating inventory manager is known as the
COG
62
Which of the following acronyms is used when an item is ordered and not on station?
NIS
63
The inventory control principle is known as
SIM
64
Which functional outlet issues and inventories repair parts for CESE and material handling equipment?
ARP
65
A listing of equipment and its support material, which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1200 construction hours or 60 days, is the
COSAL
66
hich of the following forms is used as a requisition and consumption-reporting document for procuring non-NSN material?
NAVSUP 1250-2
67
Which of the following forms is used to establish custody of utility uniform articles?
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT 4400/3
68
What is the Frequency Range of the AN/PRC-119?
30 to 87.975 Mhz in 25 kHz steps
69
How many Crypto fills can a KYK-13 hold in its memory?
6
70
While monitoring the Battalion Tactical Net, you notice that someone is using your call sign. What is the correct procedure you should follow?
Call Gingerbread on that particular net
71
What is the least secure means of communication?
Radio
72
While transmitting from your station to another, the receiving station responds with "Beadwindow" what is your response?
Roger out
73
By stacking the SB-22 switchboard and utilizing the operator pack, how many lines can be utilized?
29
74
The TA-312/PT has a range of how many miles?
14-22
75
What three factors effect radio communication?
Weather, Terrain, Frequency of transmission
76
When handling Top Secret information, what is one of the conditions that must exist?
Two Person Integrity
77
What is one of the capabilities of the AN/PRC-119?
Line of sight communication
78
What is the primary method of communicating in a defense area?
Wire
79
what is the secondary method of communicating in a defense area?
Radio
80
Which of the following prowords is used to pass extremely critical messages?
Flash
81
the safety on any weapon is to remain on safe until you are actually aiming at a target and ready to fire.
True
82
what is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
50m
83
The M9 pistol has how many safeties?
1
84
What is the maximum range of the M16A2E3?
3534m
85
The maximum effective range of the M16A2E3 point and area target
are?
550/800m
86
What type of fire is not less than 1m above and not higher than 68 inches above the ground and can exist for 700m over level or evenly sloping ground?
Grazing
86
What type of fire is not less than 1m above and not higher than 68 inches above the ground and can exist for 700m over level or evenly sloping ground?
Grazing
87
Firing over hills, forests walls and other defenses is a tactical purpose of the 60mm.
True
88
What is the maximum effective range of the MK-19 40mm machine gun?
1500m
89
What is a delay beyond normal ignition time for round functioning?
Hangfire
90
What is the actual rate of fire a weapon can deliver for an indefinite period is?
Sustained rate of fire
91
What is the complete failure of a round to fire called?
Misfire
92
What are the maximum ranges for point and area targets for the M203 grenade launcher?
150/350m
93
What are the maximum effective range and maximum range for the M2HB.50 Cal?
1830/6800m
94
Which of the following grenades is used to destroy equipment?
Incendiary
95
Which grenade produces 55,000-candle power for a period of 25 seconds?
Illuminating
96
What is the effective casualty radius of the M-67 fragmentation grenade?
15
97
What type of grenade is used for signaling?
Colored Smoke
98
What is the theoretical number of rounds a weapon can fire in 1 minute called?
Cyclic rate of fire
99
Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on the web belt of the 782 gear?
Canteen
100
Which of the following is the simplest fighting position?
Hasty individual position
101
What is the definition of concealment?
Protection from enemy observation
102
Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a ground flare while on a security patrol?
Move out of the light as quickly as possible
103
How many basic colors are used on a military map?
5
104
What does the reddish-brown color signify on a military map?
All relief features
105
How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?
12
106
The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied, and keep it clear of the enemy.
True
107
If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give to your captors?
Your name, rank, SSN and DOB
108
How many fighting positions are used in a defense?
3
109
What position is used to protect against a surprise enemy attack?
Supplementary
110
Within a barrier plan, what are the 3 classes of wire entanglements?
Supplementary, tactical, protective
111
What basic fire team formation provides good all around security?
Wedge
112
In defensive combat, emphasis is placed on which of the following types of patrols?
Security
113
Fire commands consist of six necessary elements. The first letter of the most important word of each of these elements is used to form what acronym?
ADDRAC
114
What consideration has the highest priority in the selection of tent campsite?
Tactical
115
What is the first priority of the Rapid Runway Repair organization?
Establishment of a minimum operating strip
116
When transporting causeways, aboard which of the following ships is side loading accomplished?
LST
117
What form is filled out using the Battalion’s Level II Master Activities Summary Sheet?
Construction activity summary sheet
118
What does the acronym ABFC stand for?
Advance base functional components
119
In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in volume two?
3
120
Which of the following is included among the contents of the NAVFAC P-437?
Drawings of facilities and assemblies
121
In the ABFC system, what code identifies assemblies required for use in Northern temperature zone?
N
122
What is the minimum number of Rapid Runway Repair (RRR) command center personnel a battalion should have qualified?
72
123
How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level one and two in order to satisfy the requirements of Rapid Runway Repair?
46 at level 1, 20 at level 2
124
What type of fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire?
Portable CO2 extinguisher
125
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing facilities?
30 yards
125
What is the minimum distance latrines and garbage pits can be located from the nearest natural water supply?
100 yards
126
What is the most common method of disinfecting drinking water?
Chlorination
127
If exposed to chemical agents, how long will the MK-III chemical protective overgarment provides protection?
6 hours
128
The M8A1 automatic chemical agent alarm system can be used to detect a blister agent attack.
False
129
Headache, runny nose, excessive salivation, difficulty breathing, nausea, pinpointed pupils, and localized twitching of muscles are symptoms of exposure to what?
Nerve agents
130
Bloodshot eyes, irritation of throat, hoarseness, coughing, and burns in moist areas are symptoms of what?
Exposure to blister agents
131
Dryness of throat, coughing, headache, burning eyes, and accumulation of fluid in the lungs are all symptoms of exposure to choking agents.
True
132
The M8 chemical detector paper detects what chemical agents?
Blister, G series nerve agent, V series nerve agent, (all of the above)
133
Which of the following chemical agent liquids will M9 paper detect and what color will the M9 paper show?
Blood agent / red
| Nerve agent / red (both a+c)
134
MOPP gear exchange is performed during what level of decontamination?
Operational
135
What is used to perform immediate skin decontamination?
m291 sdk
136
Skin decontamination should be accomplished within how many Minute(s) of exposure?
one minute
137
Areas of terrain contaminated with chemical agents should be
identified with which of the following marking signs?
Yellow background with red letters
138
What are the three different types of CBR surveys?
Area, point, and route
139
When netting a 463L pallet, which way do the hooks face and how many D-rings does the pallet have?
Inboard/22
140
What are the ACLs for the following aircrafts: C-130, C-141, C-17 and C-5, respectively?
25K, 50k, 90k, 150k
141
In a convoy what is the Maintenance Officer responsible for?
Maintenance of equipment on convoy, Repairing break downs, Towing equipment
142
What are the three-color classifications of convoy routes?
Green, Yellow, Red
143
What are sixcons used for?
Water and fuel
144
What do MHE and WHE stand for, respectively?
Material Handling Equipment / Weight Handling Equipment
145
What colors are the background of the Organic and Augment Equipment decals?
Red/ White
146
What is a SF-91 is used for?
Accident Report
147
A vehicle must be in at least what condition code to be in Live Storage?
A5
148
ORM will always eliminate risks?
False
149
What is the correct ORM sequence?
Identify hazards, assess hazards, and make risk decisions, supervise.
