Practice Quizzes Missed Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Mycoplasma can be visualized using what preferred technique?

A

Darkfield microscopy using oblique scattered light

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2
Q

Does Aztreonam cover MSSA? Why not?

A

No

It only covers aerobic gram-negative organisms

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3
Q

Is mycobacteria an obligate anaerobe or obligate aerobe?

A

Obligate aerobe

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4
Q

Is serology a direct or indirect test for infection?

A

Indirect

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5
Q

What is describes the use of antibiotics to prevent an anticipated infection based on preliminary data?

A

Preemptive

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6
Q

What is the most likely diagnostic method for toxoplasmosis?

A

Serology

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7
Q

What is the MoA of capsofungin?

A

Inhibition of glucan synthase

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8
Q

Which antifungal is notable for causing prolongation of the QTc interval?

A

Voriconazole

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9
Q

What is the causative organism of neurocysticercosis?

A

Taenia solium

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10
Q

What is a reservoir host?

A

A host that harbors an immature stage of parasite, but allows no further development; it can also be used for further transmission

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11
Q

Eosinophilic meningitis is highly predictive of which pathogens?

A

Angiostrongylus and Coccidioides

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12
Q

What is especially characteristic of the acute phase of Chagas disease?

A

A romana sign (a chagoma found over the eyelid)

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13
Q

What is the MoA of terbinafine?

A

Blocking ergosterol synthesis

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14
Q

What is the MoA of 5-flucytosine?

A

Inhibition of DNA synthesis

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15
Q

What two species of Plasmodium form hyponozoites in the liver that can reactivate months later?

A

Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale

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16
Q

Does Voriconazole or Nystatin bind directly to ergosterol?

A

Nystatin

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17
Q

Does penicillin rely on liver metabolism?

A

No

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18
Q

What does the acronym HOT T-BONE stEAk stand for?

A

IL-1 -> HOT (pyogenic)
IL-2 -> stimulates T-cell clonal expansion
IL-3 -> stimulates bone marrow
IL-4 -> stimulates IgE production
IL-5 -> stimulate IgA production

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19
Q

Can toxoplasmosis be diagnosed with a Giemsa stain?

A

Yes

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20
Q

Define karyolysis:

A

Irreversible shrinking of the cell nucleus

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21
Q

Define karyorrhexis:

A

Irreversible fragmentation of the cell nucleus

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22
Q

Would cytoplasmic vacuoles be a sign of reversible or irreversible cell injury?

A

Reversible cell injury

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23
Q

What is one of the most common causes of hyperglycemia in patients on TPN?

A

sepsis

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24
Q

What is characterized by “Red man” syndrome? What antibiotic is it commonly associated with?

A

An infusion reaction commonly caused by vancomycin that results in flushing and/or erythematous rash affecting the face, neck and upper torso

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25
What drug class does capsofungin belong do?
Echinocandins
26
What type of viruses must encode their own RNA-dependent DNA polymerases?
RNA viruses
27
What directly causes an increased ESR?
Elevated fibrinogen release from the liver
28
What is the most common mechanism by which bacteria can transfer drug resistance genes?
conjugation
29
Penicillins bind PbPs to inhibit what enzyme?
transpeptidase
30
What effect do detergents have on enveloped viruses?
They can strip viruses of the membrane (and membrane glycoproteins) and eliminate infectivity
31
Distributive shock occurs as a result of what? What is an example of distibutive shock?
Inadequate vascular tone Septic shock
32
Besides SIRS critera (tachypnea, tachycardia, fever, and elevated WBC count) what are 4 additional clinical predictors of septic shock?
Altered mentation Decreased urine production Hypotension Increased serum lactate
33
Can P. aeruginosa produce biofilms?
Yes
34
Is TMP-SMX CI in pregnancy? If so, in what trimester?
Yes In the first trimester
35
Can Nafcillin penetrate the BBB?
Yes
36
What is suggested by the presence of HBsAG in serum?
ONGOING hepatitis B viral replication
37
An infection in an IV line (i.e. TPN) that is visualized as a budding yeast w/ pseudohyphae is most likely to be what?
Candida spp.
38
HBc-ab (hepatitis core ab) in serum indicate what?
Either ongoing OR past infection; further testing required
39
Pseudomembrane colitis caused by C-diff heat resistant spores would have what visual cues on a colonoscopy?
Many yellow pustules and membraneous formations in the colon
40
In what viral family is Hepatitis B?
Hepadnaviridae
41
In what viral family is Hepatitis A?
Picornaviridae
42
In what viral family is Hepatitis C?
Flaviviridae
43
What what viral family is Hepatitis E?
Hepeviridae
44
What is usually the go-to drug to limit T-cell activation in transplant patients?
Calcineurin inhibitors (Cyclosporin or Tacrolimus)
45
What is the major mucosal defense against non-invasive GI pathogens?
IgA
46
What intestinal cell (found in Peyer's patches) is used to transport antigens to activate B cells?
M cells
47
What virus type uses its antigenic diversity to allow reinfection of individuals?
Norovirus (diarrheal sx) Rhinovirus (upper RT sx)
48
What is the most common presentation of CVID in the US?
Isolated IgA deficiency
49
A smooth, pink tapeworm that is tapered on both ends best describes what?
Ascaris
50
What toxicities are associated with aminoglycosides?
Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
51
What bacteria is most likely in the event of a gram-positive, catalase +, non-spore forming bacteria causing meningitis?
Listeria monocytogenes (pt history also important)
52
What type of vaccine is most likely to cause disease in IC pt?
Live-attenuated
53
Where does HHV-8 sequester itself during latency?
Vascular endothelial cells
54
What cancer is associated with HHV-8?
Kaposi's sarcoma
55
Abdominal pain, bloody vaginal discharge, and motion tenderness are most likely associated with what disease condition?
Pevlic inflammatory disorder (PID)
56
What type of imaging is best used for visualizing osteomyelitis?
MRI
57
What are two factors that can differentiate septic arthiritis from reactive or chronic arthritis?
Lack of trauma Abrupt onset
58
What would CSF aspirate look like in a case of septic arthritis?
WBC > 50,000 Elevated neutrophils -> cloudy fluid presentation
59
What type of immune cells can produce defensins?
Innate immune cells (i.e. neutrophils)
60
What is a common bacterial infection common with injuries associated with human bites or closed fists? What is its shape and gram stain?
Eikenella corrodens Gram-negative rod
61
Fusobacterium necrophorum is what type of bacteria (shape, stain)? What types of infections does it participate in?
Gram-negative rod Upper RT infections
62
What are two differences between viral and bacterial conjunctivitis?
VC: - typically both eyes -watery discharge BC: -usually one eye - purulent drainage